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CompTiaNetwork+EXAMSIM > Lab Questions > Flashcards

Lab Questions Flashcards

Review Lab Test Questions

1
Q

Which layer of the OSI model is used to forward packets on the network?

A

Network Layer

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2
Q

Which layer of the OSI model maps to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model?

A

Network Layer

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3
Q

What is the functionality of data encapsulation?

A
  • Ensures security and reliability of data transmission
  • Adds headers to the data that is sent across the network
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4
Q

At which layer of the OSI model does a router function?

A

Layer 3 The Network Layer

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of a physical network topology?

A
  • a physical network topology displays the actual layout of the network
  • a physical network topology displays the physical location of devices
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6
Q

Which network topology(s) has a single point of failure?

A

Star, Bus, Ring

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7
Q

What are the advantages of a mesh topology?

A
  • ensure high-availability of the network connectivity
  • ensure redundancy of network connectivity
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8
Q

Which network topology is most expensive to implement and maintain?

A

Mesh

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9
Q

Which network topology is most commonly used in a network infrastructure?

A

Star

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10
Q

Class C Private IP address?

A

192.168.x.x

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11
Q

What is the subnet mask for a Classful Class A IP range?

A

255.0.0.0

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12
Q

What would the subnet mask be of the following network range? 192.168.1.0/28

A

255.255.255.240

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13
Q

What is the Loopback address for IPv4?

A

127.0.0.1

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14
Q

What is the functionality of a Multicast IP address?

A

Sends network communication to a specific set of hosts

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15
Q

What sort of internet service providers are used by airlines to provide internet services to customers in transit?

A

Satellite

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16
Q

What sort of internet connection is preferred to provide guaranteed uptime to customers?

A

Leased Line

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17
Q

Which phenomenon is used by light waves within Fibre Optic cables to travel from one point to another?

A

Total Internal Reflection

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18
Q

What is the purpose of twists in a twisted pair cable?

A

Reduce Noise (crosstalk)

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19
Q

What does W in RJ11W indicate?

A

Wall

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20
Q

To which IEEE standard is Ethernet cabling specifications measured against?

A

IEEE Standard 802.3

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21
Q

At what rate is data transmitted using 40GBASE-T?

A

40Gbits/s

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22
Q

Which cable uses light-emitting diodes to transmit multiple signals at a time?

A

Multimode fibre-optic cable (MMF)

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23
Q

What are the two major parts of a BIX punchdown block system?

A

Mount and Connector

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24
Q

When implementing an organised cable management solution, what is required to help keep the system organised?

A

Colour coded cable, Cable ties, Cable labels

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25
Q

Which microsoft technology can be used to create virtual devices on a physical device on-premise?

A

Hyper-V

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26
Q

What is the purpose of creating a private virtual switch using Hyper-V?

A

Connects locally located virtual devices together

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27
Q

Which devices can be created using Network Function Virtualisation (NFV)?

A

Virtual Firewalls, Virtual Load balancers

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28
Q

Which virtual device can be created using Hyper-V?

A

Virtual Switch

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29
Q

How can a virtual device communicate with a physical device on the network?

A

Using an external virtual switch

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30
Q

What does the acronym CIA stand for in relation to network security?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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31
Q

Which threat actor will have prior knowledge of the network layout to perform a malicious attack?

A

Disgruntled network administrator

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32
Q

What is the purpose of Role-based Access Control (RABC)?

A

Users only have access to specific resources according to their job role

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33
Q

Where in a network segment will the DMZ be located?

A

Between the internal and external network

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34
Q

What can be used for multi-factor authentication?

A

Username and password, Smart Card

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35
Q

Which type of attack can be conducted to render a network device inaccessible?

A

Ransomware attack, Denial of Service attack

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36
Q

In a ____ attack, the user is misled by a caller that he is a network technician gathering personal information from the user.

A

Social Engineering

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37
Q

Which type of attack misleads a user to connect to a malicious wireless access point?

A

Evil Twin

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38
Q

In which type of attack are the cache records manipulated for malicious purposes?

A

DNS poisoning, ARP Spoofing

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39
Q

In ________ a malicious user gains physical access to a restricted area of the network.

A

Tailgating

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40
Q

HTTP and HTTPS are TCP-based protocols. Which ports do they use?

A

80 and 443

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41
Q

You work as a network administrator in a domain environment. You have a new firewall and need to configure it. You are asked to create web filtering and firewall rules based on domain groups. Which of the following protocol will you use to integrate your firewall directly with Active Directory?

A

LDAP

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42
Q

You work as a network administrator and are responsible for configuring network firewalls, routers and switches. You have configured rules between the user and server VLANs. You received a request from your development team to create a new rule that allows port TCP 1433 to the database server. Based on the port number, which database is installed on the server.

A

SQL

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43
Q

One of the users in your organisation has just re-installed the operating system on his system. He notices that the email software can be accessed after the reinstallation, but all the old emails have disappeared. What could be the cause of this problem?

A

POP3 was used on the mail client software

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44
Q

What transport protocol/ports do DNS and DHCP use?

A

UDP 53 / UDP 67 and 68

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45
Q

Which parameter can be used with the ping command to send a constant stream of packets when using a Windows device?

A

-t

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45
Q

Which of the following command can be used to display the local routing table for a Windows device?

A

route print

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46
Q

Which command must be used on a Linux device to determine the IP configuration of the eth0 network interface?

A

ifconfig eth0 or ip address show eth0

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47
Q

What is the arp -a command used for on a Windows device?

A

Displays the address resolution table for the device

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48
Q

When executing the tracert 192.168.0.10 command, what can be determined from the output?

A

The route it will take to reach the destination IP address

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49
Q

What is the functionality of a DNS Server?

A

Resolving hostnames to IP addresses

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50
Q

Why would an additional DNS server be implemented in a network?

A

To ensure high-availability of the DNS server

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51
Q

Which command can be used to refresh the DNS records on a host device?

A

ipconfig /registerdns

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52
Q

What is the function of an A host record in DNS?

A

Points an IP address to a static device

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53
Q

What is the functionality of an MX record on a DNS server?

A

It points to the SMTP server for the domain

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54
Q

What is the purpose of implementing a DHCP server on a network?

A

Dynamically allocate IP addresses to hosts on the network, Automatically assign a DNS server address to a host

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55
Q

After installation of the DHCP server role, why is it necessary to restart the DHCP service?

A

To ensure the credentials that were stipulated is applied

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56
Q

What is the functionality of a lease for a DHCP server?

A

It stipulates how long an IP address will be allocated to a host

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57
Q

When creating a scope on a DHCP server, what is the purpose of specifying an exclusion?

A

An exclusion is specified to ensure specific IP addresses are not automatically allocated to hosts

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58
Q

On which server will the DHCP server role normally be installed?

A

Domain Member Server

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59
Q

To be able to remotely manage a Windows device securely, which of the following protocols can be used?

A

RDP

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60
Q

Which of the following connection methods can be used to connect a company’s offices which are located in different geographical areas?

A

Site-to-Site VPN

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61
Q

While configuring a new VPN client, which Role service needs to be installed for the Remote Access role on a Windows server?

A

Direct Access and VPN (RAS)

62
Q

Which permission needs to be assigned to a user to be able to connect to a VPN connection?

A

Network Access permissions

63
Q

Which permission allows a user access to a resource?

A

Authentication

64
Q

To ensure the high availability of a resource, what needs to be configured?

A

NIC teaming, Multipathing, Network Load balancing

65
Q

Which DNS record needs to be configured for a network load balancing cluster?

A

An A record

66
Q

What needs to be done with a newly added network adapter to be able to configure NIC teaming?

A

Configure the adapter with a static IP address in the correct range

67
Q

Which IP address will be used to connect a resource after Network Load balancing has been configured?

A

The Cluster’s IP address

68
Q

What is the functionality of multipathing?

A

Create different network routes to a resource on the network, Ensure a resource is highly available

69
Q

Which Stratum Level is the least Trusted?

A

Level 15

70
Q

Which command-line command would display time sync information for an NTP client?

A

w32tm /query /peers

71
Q

What is the maximum number of NTP Servers that an NTP client can be synchronized with?

A

1

72
Q

Which of the following port is used by NTP Servers to provide time synchronization?

A

123

73
Q

Which Transport Layer protocol is used by NTP Servers to provide time synchronization?

A

UDP

74
Q

When configuring a server for a failover cluster, what needs to be validated before adding the server to the cluster?

A

The harddrives are all similarly configured, The server has the same roles installed as other servers in the cluster, The server has a network interface card configured the same as the other server in the cluster

75
Q

A server needs to be added to a failover cluster, and a virtual switch needs to be created using Hyper-V Manager. The other server in the cluster has a preconfigured virtual switch named: PLCluster. What must be the name of the virtual switch that needs to be created?

A

PLCluster

76
Q

After an incident has occurred resulting in data loss which of the following specifies the amount of acceptable data a company can lose?

A

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

77
Q

What needs to be done to ensure a backup can be scheduled?

A

Install the Windows Server Backup feature, Identify and configure storage solution for the backup

78
Q

A__________ site contains all the relevant network equipment and data but needs to be configured in the event of a disaster.

A

Warm

79
Q

You need to configure a voice VLAN on your Cisco switch with the VLAN ID 10. What command will you use on the global configuration mode?

A

configure terminal
vlan 10
name VOICE

80
Q

What is the name of the switching feature that prevents frame dropping in case of congestion by pausing sending frames?

A

Flow Control

81
Q

You have a high speed environment in your network with speeds of up to 40 Gbps. Users in the network are experiencing slow performance issues on some applications. What do you need to enable on your equipment to improve the performance?

A

Jumbo Frames

82
Q

What is the key drawback of STP or per VLAN STP – PVST?

A

Slow convergence

83
Q

You want to improve the security in your network and enable MAC address filtering. Which of the following feature will you configure on the switch ports?

A

Port security

84
Q

What does an L3 device use to make decisions on where to forward a packet?

A

Routing Table

85
Q

Your device has a route to the 0.0.0.0/0 network in a routing table. What route is it, and when will it be used?

A

0.0.0.0/0 is a default route. The router uses it to route packets if it doesn’t have a more specific route to the destination

86
Q

When is dynamic routing protocol preferred over static routes?

A

Dynamic routing protocols are better in large environments where there are many networks and devices

87
Q

What is the difference between distance vector and link state routing protocol?

A

Distance vector routing protocol exchanges the whole routing table, while link state routing protocol exchanges information about all connected networks

88
Q

Which of the following routes will have an Administrative distance of 90 in a routing table?

A

EIGRP routes

89
Q

You work as a network administrator in an organization. The company has three locations. A user is unable to access a shared folder located on a desktop in another location. You try to ping the IP address of the desktop, but it fails. You are unable to ping any IP address from that subnet. What is the next step you should perform on your router?

A

Check the IP routing table

90
Q

You have two users who work on the same floor and belong to the same department. The organization has strict rules implemented for printer access. One of the users is unable to access the printer but has access to the Internet. What should you check on your switch?

A

VLAN assignment

91
Q

You have implemented your network with new managed switches. A user is experiencing periodical interruptions on the network. While pinging the main server, you notice that there is periodical packet loss. What could cause this problem?

A

Broadcast storm

92
Q

You have configured a new web server in your network, which will be used only from the local network. You published the website on TCP port 8443 but are unable to access the website on that port from a client device. You are able to ping the server IP address and also have access to the server using a Remote Desktop Connection. What could be the cause of this issue?

A

Windows Firewall is enabled and port 8443 is not allowing traffic

93
Q

You have a complex network environment and have issues related to the routing of network traffic between hosts. Which of the following command will you use to troubleshoot this issue and verify how the packets are routed?

A

traceroute

94
Q

In which type of cloud configuration is the customer responsible for maintaining the operating system and software?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

95
Q

When choosing the location to create resources in the cloud, what is the best location for the resources?

A

Geographically closest Cloud Service Provider, Closest Regional Cloud Service Provider Datacenter

96
Q

With a _________ Cloud, the hardware and software are maintained by the company that owns it.

A

Private

97
Q

What is an example of Software as a Service (SaaS)?

A

Microsoft 365, Dropbox

98
Q

What is the advantage of elasticity when utilizing a cloud service provider?

A

Resource allocation is scaled automatically, Resources are deallocated when not used

99
Q

Which tier in the three-tiered network is responsible for routing traffic in and out of a network?

A

Core

100
Q

At which layer in Software Defined Network (SDN) will you find a firewall?

A

Application Layer

101
Q

How many tiers are there in the spine and leaf network architecture?

A

2

102
Q

The traffic that enters into a network is known as the ___________ traffic.

A

Southbound

103
Q

Which storage area network (SAN) connection type uses an Ethernet switch to send commands to the SAN devices?

A

Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI)

104
Q

What will affect the quality of VoIP calls?

A

Jitter

105
Q

Which hardware metrics needs to be measured to ensure the availability of the network?

A

CPU utilisation, Memory, Temperature

106
Q

Which service needs to be configured to ensure metrics for network devices can be captured?

A

SNMP

107
Q

Which application on Windows devices can be used to review events that occurred on the local system?

A

Event Viewer

108
Q

Which of the following Log Level Severity levels indicates that there can be a potential problem?

A

Warning

109
Q

What is the first step that needs to be taken when troubleshooting a network incident?

A

Identify the problem

110
Q

What is the purpose of documenting an incident?

A

For future reference

111
Q

Where is the best practice to test theory for the probable cause of the incident?

A

In a sandbox solution

112
Q

Which strategies can be used to identify the cause of an incident?

A

Gather information of the incident, Question people involved

113
Q

You have configured a new DHCP server and connected it to the network. There is connectivity to the server, but the clients in the network are unable to obtain IP addresses from the server. Which enabled feature on the switch can cause this issue?

A

DHCP snooping

114
Q

You work in an organization as a network administrator. One of your new clients owns a hotel and has asked you to provide a single Internet connection for every room, but also ensure that the users are not visible to each other. Which technology on the switch will you use to meet the requirements stated in the scenario?

A

Create Private VLANs

115
Q

You have empty ports on your switches, that is, no connected hosts. Which are best practices to ensure that the empty ports are secure?

A

Move the ports from the default VLAN to a new, unused VLAN and then disable them

116
Q

Which versions of SNMP are considered unsecure?

A

SNMPv1, SNMPv2c

117
Q

You need to create an access list on your router to filter specific IP addresses and ports. You created entries with permit statements and deny statements. But you forget to add one specific deny statement to filter traffic from host A. How will this traffic be treated?

A

Host A traffic will be denied because, at the end of every access list, there is an implicit deny statement

118
Q

Which tool is used to connect a media connector to the end of a cable?

A

Cable Crimper

119
Q

Which tool uses red and black probes to measure voltage?

A

Multimeter

120
Q

Which tool is used to test an Ethernet cable and creates a loopback connection?

A

Cable Tester

121
Q

Which of the following devices is used to test a fiber cable to determine a fault and its length?

A

Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)

122
Q

Which is a hardware device that is used for troubleshooting network transmission issues?

A

Loopback Adapter

123
Q

Which of the following networking device can be used to implement access lists, dynamic routing protocols, and Network Address Translation (NAT)?

A

Router

124
Q

On which device can you not assign an IP address?

A

Hub

125
Q

Which are the benefits of a Wireless LAN Controller?

A

Simplified wireless network maintenance, Flexible deployment of a wireless access point, Interference detection, Wireless access point status detection

126
Q

Which SCADA component is geographically dispersed and receives commands to perform certain tasks?

A

Remote Terminal Unit (RTU)

127
Q

What is the data rate that defines the amount of data transmitted in a specific time?

A

Throughput

128
Q

What is the maximum speed of the CAT1 cable?

A

Up to 1Mbps

129
Q

Which types of cables are mainly used in elevator shafts that can prevent fire?

A

Riser-rated

130
Q

Which type of cable has an RJ45 (male) at one end and a DB9 (female) connector at the other end?

A

Rollover Cable, Console Cable

131
Q

Which of the following causes an evident loss of decibel?

A

Increased Attenuation

132
Q

Which wireless standard provides a range of 150 feet and is the oldest standard still in use and supported by wireless routers?

A

802.11b

133
Q

In Basic Service Set (BSS), what is the maximum number of access points?

A

1

134
Q

In roaming, what is the first step that a wireless client performs?

A

Scanning

135
Q

Which protocol was initially introduced with Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)?

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

136
Q

When using CDMA, where is the cellular-related information stored?

A

In the handset

137
Q

Which is the orientation of the antenna concerning the surface of the earth?

A

Antenna Polarisation

138
Q

When is a site survey done for a wireless network?

A

Before Deployment

139
Q

You have several visitors who come to your office every day and connect to the corporate wireless network. You want to secure the wireless network and limit wireless network access for the visitors. They should not be able to connect to the systems on the corporate wireless network. Which method should you use?

A

Create a guest wireless network

140
Q

Which protocol is used for generating preshared keys?

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

141
Q

Which type of portal is used for wireless client authentication?

A

Captive

142
Q

Which type of camera records the entry and exit of each individual through the door?

A

Fixed

143
Q

Which employee training method uses a Learning Management System (LMS)?

A

Training Videos

144
Q

Which phase is defined after the Preparation phase in the Incident Response Plan?

A

Identification

145
Q

When is the disaster recovery plan invoked?

A

During the disaster

146
Q

In which phase of a system life cycle is a device procured into the organization and becomes an asset, identified using a specific number or similar identification method?

A

Acquisition

147
Q

Which are the components of a standard operating procedure document?

A

Definitions, Scope, Purpose, Responsibilities, Procedures

148
Q

If you enable password history in a Windows environment, how many passwords are remembered by default?

A

24

149
Q

In a physical network diagram, which entities should be documented?

A

Clients, WAN Links, VoIP Phones, Servers, Firewalls

150
Q

Which is the main panel that houses the main incoming cables for the building or floor?

A

MDF

151
Q

When writing the site survey report, which of the following points should be included?

A

Recommendations on type of wireless access points, Number of wireless access points, Amount of redundancy, Mounting locations along with the cable path

152
Q

When defining a baseline of a server, which of the following components’ utilization must be included?

A

Processor, Network, Memory, Hard Drive

153
Q

In which type of Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA) do you have more than two parties involved, but just one party shares the information with the other parties?

A

Multilateral

CompTiaNetwork+EXAMSIM (5 decks)

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