CompTIA Network+ Practice N10-008 2nd edition Flashcards
CompTIA Practice Questions
At which layer of the OSI model do the protocols on a typical LAN use MAC addresses to identify other computers on the network?
Data Link Layer
Which organisation developed the OSI model?
ISO (International Organisation for Standardisation
Which layer of the OSI layer is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and the routing of datagrams on a network?
Network layer - contains headers that specify logical addresses for end system communication and route diagrams across a network
On a TCP/IP network, which layers of the OSI model contain protocols that are responsible for encapsulating the data generated by an application, creating a payload for a packet that will be transmitted over a network?
Data Link, Network, Transport - Before the payload data generated by an application can be transmitted over a TCP/IP network, the system must encapsulate it by applying protocol headers and footers at three layers of the OSI model. The data link layer applies a header and footer to create an Ethernet frame. The network layer applies a header to create an IP datagram. The transport layer applies a TCP or UDP header to create a segment or datagram.
What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information?
Presentation Layer - The presentation layer implements functions that provide formatting, translation, and presentation of information. No other layers of the OSI model translate and format application data.
Which device typically operates at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
A Router - A router connects networks at the network layer of the OSI model. Proxy servers operate at the application layer. Network interface adapters operate at both the data link and the physical layers. Hubs are physical layer devices.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications?
Application Layer - The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network. All other layers of the OSI model reside below this layer and rely on this entry point.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems?
Session Layer - The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. This dialogue can be a two-way alternate dialogue that requires end systems to take turns transmitting, or it can be a two-way simultaneous dialogue in which either end system can transmit at will. No other layers of the OSI model perform dialogue control between communicating end systems.
Some switches can perform functions associated with two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Which two of the following layers are often associated with network switching?
Data Link, Network - The primary function of a switch is to process packets based on their media access control (MAC) addresses, which makes it a data link layer device. However, many switches can also perform routing functions based on IP addresses, which operate at the network layer.
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model are there TCP/IP protocols than can provide either connectionless or connection-oriented services to applications?
Transport Layer - There are two types of transport layer protocols: connection-oriented and connectionless. Connection-oriented protocols guarantee the delivery of data from source to destination by creating a connection between the sender and the receiver before any data is transmitted. Connectionless protocols do not require a connection between end systems in order to pass data.
Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model typically have dedicated physical hardware devices associated with them?
Physical, Datalink, Network - The physical layer of the OSI model is associated with hubs, cables, and network interface adapters. The data link layer is associated with bridges and switches. The network layer is associated with routers. The transport, session, presentation, and application layers are typically not associated with dedicated hardware devices.
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is there a protocol that adds both a header and footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame?
Data Link Layer - The only layer with a protocol (such as Ethernet) that adds both a header and a footer is the data link layer. The process of adding the headers and footers is known as data encapsulation. All other protocol layers that encapsulate data add just a header.
Identify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that controls the addressing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access control method that Ethernet uses.
Data Link Layer; CSMA/CD - The Ethernet protocol that handles the addressing, transmission, and reception of frames operates at the data link layer. Each frame includes hardware addresses that identify the sending and receiving systems on the local network. Ethernet uses the CSMA/CD media access control method.
At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork?
Network Layer - On a TCP/IP network, the Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer is the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its final destination. Data link layer protocols are only concerned with communication between devices on a Local Area Network (LAN) or between two points connected by a Wide Area Network (WAN) link. The session and application layers are not involved in the actual delivery of data.
Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model? IP, ICMP, IGMP, IMAP
IMAP - Internet Protocol (IP), Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and Internet Group Message Protocol (IGMP) are all network layer protocols. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a mail protocol that operates at the application layer.
Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the protocol that provides the guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use?
Transport Layer, Connection-oriented - A connection-oriented transport layer protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), provides guaranteed delivery of data for upper layer applications. Connectionless protocols do not guarantee delivery of information and therefore are not a good choice.
Which device operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Hub - A hub functions only at the physical layer by forwarding all incoming signals out through all of its ports. Bridges and switches operate at the data link layer by selectively propagating incoming data. Routers operate at the network layer by connecting local area networks (LANs) and propagating only the traffic intended for another network, based on IP addresses.
Alice is a network administrator designing a new Local Area Network (LAN). She needs to determine the type of cabling and the network topology to implement. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model apply to cabling and topology elements?
Physical Layer - The physical layer defines the mechanical and electrical characteristics of the cables used to build a network. The data link layer defines specific network (LAN or WAN) topologies and their characteristics. The physical layer standard that Alice will implement is dependent on the data link layer protocol she selects. The network, transport, and application layers are not concerned with cables and topologies.
Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them?
Session, Presentation - In the TCP/IP suite, the functions of the session layer are primarily implemented in the transport layer protocols: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP). The presentation layer functions are often implemented in application layer protocols, although some functions, such as encryption, can also be performed by transport or network layer protocols.
The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets?
Transport Layer - Transport layer protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), have header fields that contain the port numbers of the applications that generated the data in the packet and which will receive it. The application, presentation, and network layers do not use port numbers.
At which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions?
Data Link Layer - Switches and bridges are involved in Local Area Network (LAN) communications only and therefore primarily at the data link layer. They are not primarily associated with the physical, network, or transport layers, although some switches include network layer routing capabilities.
On a TCP/IP network, flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Transport Layer - Flow control is a process that adjusts the transmission rate of a protocol based on the capability of the receiver. If the receiving system becomes overwhelmed by incoming data, the sender dynamically reduces the transmission rate. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is responsible for implementing flow control. TCP runs at the transport layer.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network?
Physical Layer - The physical layer of the OSI model defines the standards for the physical and mechanical characteristics of a network, such as cabling (copper and fiber), connecting hardware (hubs and switches), and signaling methods (analog and digital).
Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption?
Presentation Layer - The presentation layer provides a syntax translation service that enables two computers to communicate, despite their use of different bit-encoding methods. This translation service also enables systems using compressed or encrypted data to communicate with each other.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium?
Physical Layer - The physical layer of the OSI model defines the functions specific to the network medium and the transmission and reception of signals.
Specify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model at which the Internet Protocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-oriented or connectionless.
Network, Connectionless - IP is a connectionless protocol that operates at the network layer of the OSI model. There are no connection-oriented protocols at this layer.
An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Physical and Data Link Layers - An Ethernet network interface adapter functions at the data link layer by encapsulating network layer data for transmission over the network. It provides physical layer functions by providing the connection to the network medium and generating the appropriate signals for transmission. Network interface adapters do not operate at the network, transport, or application layer.
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? HTTP, SNMP, ICMP, IGMP, UDP?
HTTP, SNMP - Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) operate at the application layer. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) both operate at the network layer. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) operates at the transport layer.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system?
Presentation Layer - The presentation layer of the OSI model is responsible for translating different kinds of syntax, including text-encoding systems, such as EBCDIC and ASCII.
Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model, but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network? IP, UDP, ARP, ICMP, TCP?
ICMP - Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) operates at the network layer by sending operational and error messages. It does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data.
A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. List the order of the TCP flags raised in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages?
SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK - The TCP connection establishment exchange is a three-way handshake that uses TCP flags to specify the message type for each frame. The first frame contains a SYN flag from the client; the second frame contains the SYN and ACK flags from the server; and the last frame contains an ACK flag from the client.
Which of the following is the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size for an Ethernet frame? 512, 1024, 1500, 1518?
1500 - The MTU is the largest amount of data (in bytes) that a protocol operating at a given layer of the OSI model can transmit in one packet. The MTU does not include any header and footer fields supplied by that protocol. For Ethernet, the maximum frame size is 1518 bytes, which includes 18 bytes of header and footer fields. Therefore, the MTU for Ethernet is 1500 bytes. Protocols operating at other OSI model layers can have different MTUs. For example, the typical MTU for an Internet Protocol (IPv4) implementation is smaller than that of Ethernet.
Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session?
FIN - The termination phase of a TCP connection begins when either the client or the server sends a message containing the FIN control bit with a value of 1.
An electrician installing a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network?
BUS - A cable break in a bus topology would split the network into two halves, preventing the nodes on one side of the break from communicating with those on the other. In addition, both halves of the network would be left with one unterminated end, which would prevent the computers on each side of the break from communicating effectively.
Which type of network is typically confined to a small area, such as a single room, floor, or building?
LAN - A Local Area Network (LAN), as the name implies, is a group of computers contained within a small geographic area. WANs (Wide Area Networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. MANs (Metropolitan Area Networks) are not confined to a small area; they are typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A Campus Area Network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university.
Which type of network connects Local Area Networks (LANs) in distant locations?
WAN - WANs (Wide Area Networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant.
Which topologies require the installation of terminating resistors at two locations?
Bus - A bus topology requires terminating resistors at each end of the bus, to remove signals as they reach the end of the cable and prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and interfering with newly transmitted signals.
Which topology is used by the majority of new Ethernet networks installed today?
Hierarchical Star - Virtually all of the new Ethernet networks installed today use the star or the hierarchical star topology, with one or more switches functioning as a cabling nexus.
Alice has constructed a five-node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which term describes this network arrangement?
SAN - A storage area network (SAN) is a network that is dedicated to carrying traffic between servers and storage devices.
Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)? Bluetooth, Z-wave, NFC, SDWAN?
SDWAN - A Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SDWAN) is a technology that automates the configuration of WAN routers based on the current mix of traffic. It is therefore not suitable for use on a PAN. Bluetooth, Z-Wave, and near-field communication (NFC) are all short-range wireless technologies that are capable of providing communications between PAN devices.
Which of the following network topologies are used by Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)? Ad hoc, bus, Infrastructure, Star?
Ad hoc, Infrastructure - WLANs can use the ad hoc topology, in which devices communicate directly with each other, or the infrastructure topology, in which the wireless devices connect to an access point.
Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology? 10Base2, 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, 1000Base-T?
10Base2 - 10Base2 is the physical layer specification for Thin Ethernet, which uses coaxial cable in a bus topology. 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, and 1000Base-T all use twisted pair cable in a star topology.
Which of the following network types are typically wireless? WAN, PAN, SAN, WLAN?
PAN, WLAN - Personal area networks (PANs) connect devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones, and are nearly always wireless. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) are wireless by definition. Wide Area Networks (WANs) typically span long distances and are typically wired, at least in part. Storage area networks (SANs) require high performance levels and are nearly always wired.
Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM) is a signaling technology that has become a popular choice in the construction of which of the following types of provider links? DSL, Metro-optical, Satelite, Cable?
Metro-optical - DWDM has become a popular technology in the construction of metro-optical networks because it addresses some of the scalability and cost restrictions of other optical technologies, such as Synchronous Optical Networks (SONETs). DSL, satellite, and cable providers do not typically use DWDM.
On peer-to-peer networks, every workstation is capable of authenticating users. T/F
True - A peer-to-peer network calls for each workstation to maintain accounts for authenticating users that access their shared resources. On a client-server network, authentication is centralized. Peer-to-peer networks can be more difficult to administer than client-server networks, but they are not inherently less secure.
Why does DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology support faster data transmissions than a standard Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) modem connection?
DSL technology provides higher data rates because it uses frequency ranges that are higher than the standard voice spectrum. DSL connections use 10 kHz and above, whereas the standard voice spectrum uses 300 Hz to 4 kHz. DSL does not use separate control circuits and does not perform CRC functions. Also, DSL technology is strictly digital and does not require an analog-to-digital conversion.
Which DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions?
RADSL - Rate-Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line (RADSL) technology can adjust its rate of transmission based on line conditions. High-bit-rate Digital Subscriber Line (HDSL), Very high-rate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL), and Internet Digital Subscriber Line (IDSL) do not use rate adaptive transmission.
Which Wide Area Network (WAN) technologies uses broadband signaling?
Cable Television (CATV) - CATV networks use broadband signaling, which enables many signals to occupy the same channel. DSL and ISDN do not use broadband signaling.
Ed has been hired by a private company to connect two remote sites with a Wide Area Network (WAN). Each of these sites has more than 200 users, and they all need to constantly transfer files across the WAN. One of the sites has a customer database that is accessed by both sites at all hours of the day. Access to the database and other information is time sensitive and constant. The company estimates that their aggregate bandwidth needs to be approximately 40 Mbps. Management says that they need to guarantee access to this information and that money is not a factor in the WAN implementation. Which WAN technology should Ed recommend for this scenario?
A T-3 dedicated leased line - This is because the bandwidth requirements are constant, and the data transfer rates are high. To support the 40 Mbps data rate, Ed should recommend a T-3 dedicated leased line, running at 44.735 Mbps.
Ralph is an employee of a company that offers the option to telecommute from home. As a telecommuting employee, he needs to connect to the company network to access client information, transfer files, and send email through a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection. Ralph is investigating the different Wide Area Network (WAN) services available for the remote connection before he implements one. His home is over 30 years old; the existing telephone wiring was not run through conduit, and the wiring seems to be deteriorating. Ralph has cable television (CATV) service, and his home is also approximately 20,000 feet from the nearest telephone central office. He wants to implement the fastest remote connection service possible, but cost is a factor in the decision. Which WAN technology should Ralph implement?
A broadband CATV connection - In this scenario, the best solution is for Ralph to use his existing CATV service for the remote connection. CATV offers faster data rates than standard modem-to-modem service and supports VPN connections.
Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) connection technologies uses analog signaling? PSTN, CATV, DSL, SONET?
PSTN is an analog, circuit-switched network. CATV, DSL, and SONET are all digital networks.
If you want to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection, what type of device is required at the customer site?
A splitter - In a DSL connection, a signal splitter is needed at the customer site to separate the lower frequency voice range from the higher frequencies used by data traffic. The higher frequency signals are handled at the central office by a DSLAM device. Lower frequency signals carrying voice traffic are handled at the central office by a CODEC device.
What are the two main factors that affect DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) transmission rates?
Distance to the nearest central office, Line Conditions - There are two factors that affect DSL transmission rates. The first is the distance to the nearest central office, and the second is the condition and quality of the line. For DSL to achieve higher data rates, the site must be close to the central office and use good-quality lines for signal transmission.
Describe the function of a demarcation point or demarc?
The place where an outside service enters the building - A demarcation point, or demarc, is the place where an outside telecommunications service meets a customer’s private network, which is typically where the service enters the building. The demarc is also the place where the responsibility of the network administrator ends. If a problem occurs outside the demarc, it is up to the service provider to fix it. Inside the demarc, it is the network administrator’s problem.
Which of the following broadband WAN services provides equal amounts of upstream and downstream bandwidth? ADSL, SDSL, Satelite, Cable?
SDSL - The word symmetric in Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) means that the service provides equal amounts of bandwidth in both directions. The asymmetric in Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) means that the service provides more downstream bandwidth than upstream. Cable and satellite services are also asymmetric, providing more bandwidth downstream than upstream.
Which of the following remote access connection technologies can support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (Choose all that apply.)
Dial-up modem connection
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
Cable television (CATV) network
ISDN and DSL are both remote access technologies that enable users to transmit voice and data simultaneously. To do this, DSL splits the lower analog frequency (voice) range from the higher digital frequency (data) range, whereas ISDN provides multiple data channels (called B channels) that allow for both voice and data transmissions. Broadband cable television networks can often support simultaneous voice and data communications, but they use Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) to carry voice traffic over the Internet, not the PSTN. Dial-up connections and SONET do not support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data.
A T-3 leased line connection runs at 44.736 megabits per second (Mbps). How many separate channels does a T-3 provide?
672 - A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24).
A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of how many T-1 connections?
28 - A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24), for an overall transfer rate of 44.736 Mbps.
Which of the following is the U.S. standard for synchronous data transmissions that defines data rates designated by optical carrier levels, such as OC-3, OC-12, OC-48, and OC-192?
SONET - The Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard defines a base data transfer rate of 51.84 Mbps, which is multiplied at the various optical carrier levels. An OC-3 connection therefore runs at 155.52 Mbps, an OC-12 at 622.08 Mbps and so forth. The Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET.
Which is a wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels, rather than addresses?
MPLS - Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a data transfer mechanism that assigns labels to individual packets, and then routes the packets based on those labels.
Which two of the following constructs provide roughly the same function? (Choose two that apply.)
SIP trunk
CSU/DSU
VoIP gateway
Smartjack
VPN concentrator
A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network. A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) gateway provides a connection between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). Both of these provide a conduit between a subscriber’s private network and the network furnished by a service provider.
Which is the device that provides the interface between a Local Area Network (LAN) and a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
CSU/DSU - A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that provides a LAN router on a private network with access to a leased line WAN connection.
Which term describes a leased line subscription that provides access to only part of a T-1?
Fractional T-1 - A subscription to part of the T-1 leased line is called a fractional T-1 service. This service enables you to purchase some of the 24 DS0 channels in a T-1 connection. An E-1 is the European version of a T-1.
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is sometimes said to operate between two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Between which two layers is it usually said to function?
Data Link and Network - MPLS is a data-carrying service that is often said to operate between the data link layer and the network layer. It is therefore sometimes called a layer 2.5 protocol. MPLS can be used to carry IP datagrams as well as Ethernet, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) traffic.
Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate?
T-1
E-1
T-3
OC-1
OC-1 - An OC-1 connection provides the fastest transfer rate at 51.84 Mbps. An E-1 connection is 2.048 Mbps. A T-3 is 44.736 Mbps, and a T-1 is 1.544 Mbps.
To which Internet connection types does a specification called DOCSIS apply?
Cable Broadband - The Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a telecommunications standard that defines the manner in which data is to be transmitted over a cable television system.
Which of the following are types of circuits offered by frame relay services? (Choose all that apply.)
SRV
PVC
SVC
UPC
PVC, SVC - Frame relay services offer permanent virtual circuits (PVCs) and switched virtual circuits (SVCs). SRV is a resource record type in the Domain Name System (DNS), and an Ultra-Physical Contact (UPC) is a type of fiber-optic cable connector.
Which types of Wide Area Network (WAN) connections commonly use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)?
Cable Broadband, DSL - Cable broadband and DSL subscribers typically connect to ISP networks that run Ethernet, but Ethernet has no built-in authentication or encryption mechanisms. PPP has the ability to use external authentication and encryption protocols, so by encapsulating PPP within Ethernet frames, users are able to log on to the ISP network securely.
Which of the Wide Area Network (WAN) services typically uses a switched fabric that was called a cloud long before the term came into general use?
Frame Relay - Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud.
Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable?
Bus to Star - All coaxial-based Ethernet networks, including Thin Ethernet, use a bus topology. All UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet networks use a star topology. Therefore, an upgrade from coaxial to UTP cable must include a change in topology from bus to star.
A vSwitch enables virtual machines (VMs) running on the same hypervisor to communicate with each other internally.
T/F
True - In most virtualization products, when you create multiple virtual machines on one host computer, they can communicate with each other internally using a built-in virtual switching capability. A computer with multiple network adapters can function as a router, but not as a switch. Layer 3 switches can provide virtual routers that connect VLANs together, but not virtual switches. The function that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate is called trunking, not virtual switching.
Describe the difference between Type I and Type II virtualisation
In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the physical computer hardware, whereas in Type II virtualization, a host operating system runs on the computer hardware and the hypervisor runs on top of the host OS. - Type I virtualization does not require a host OS, whereas Type II virtualization does. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can use processors with hardware virtualization assistance, but only Type I requires it. The type of virtualization does not impose any limit on the number of virtual machines supported; any limitations are left to the individual implementation. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can share a single processor among virtual machines.
On which virtual networking components can you create VLANs?
Virtual Switch - You can create Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) on a virtual switch, just as you can create them on many physical switches. In most cases, virtual components function just like their physical counterparts.
On an unmanaged network, which virtual networking components have media access control (MAC) addresses assigned to them?
Virtual NICs - Just like physical network interface cards (NICs), virtual NICs have 6 byte MAC addresses assigned to them, which enable them to be identified by data link layer protocols. Unlike physical NICs, however, it is typically an easy matter to modify a MAC address on a virtual NIC.
Which component is responsible for providing a virtualized hardware environment and running virtual machines?
Hypervisor - The hypervisor is the hardware or software component responsible for managing virtual machines and providing the virtualized hardware environment on which they run.
What is the proper term for a computer with a hypervisor on which you can create virtual machines and other virtual components?
Host - A computer with a hypervisor, on which you can create virtual machines, is referred to as a host. The virtual machines themselves are called guests.
In which way does a vSwitch (virtual switch) differ from a physical switch?
Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number.
Which technology can replace leased lines, such as T-1s, by multiplexing signals as packets switched through virtual circuits in a cloud?
Frame Relay - Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. The service can create virtual circuits connecting the subscriber’s network to multiple destinations, eliminating the need for a dedicated leased line to each remote site.
Which of the following is not a protocol that uses tunneling to establish secured links between TCP/IP systems?
L2TP
IPsec
MGRE
NAT
NAT - Network Address Translation (NAT) enables workstations on private networks to access the Internet by substituting a public IP address in packets generated with private addresses. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), IPsec, and Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (MGRE) are all protocols that encapsulate packets in an encrypted form within another protocol to secure the contents.
Which of the following is not one of the primary components of the Network Function Virtualization (NFV) framework?
VNF
NFV ISG
NFVI
NFV-MANO
NFV ISG - The NFV specification, published by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI), calls for three main components: virtualized network functions (VNFs), which are software-based implementations of standard network services, such as firewalls and load balancers; a Network Functions Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI), which is the hardware/software environment that hosts the VNFs; and a Network Functions Virtualization-Management And Orchestration (NFV-MANO) framework, which includes the elements required to deploy and administer the NFVI and the VNFs. The Network Functions Virtualization Industry Specification Group (NFV ISG) is the group within ETSI that develops the NFV specifications; it is not one of the three components.
Identify the organizations that developed the general cable type standards for voice and data communications that are currently in use and identify the document name.
ANSI/TVA, document C568
TWA/ANSI/EIA, document T530-A
EIA/ANSI/TWA, document 802.2
TDA/EIA/TIA, document 802.11
ANSI/TIA/EIA, document T568b
ANSI/TIA/EIA, document T568b - The three organizations that collectively developed the T568b document, which defines the standard for a structured cabling system for voice and data communications, are the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA), and the Electronic Industries Association (EIA). All of the other options are not standards organizations or cabling standards.
Which cable types and connectors are used to attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network?
A coaxial cable and an F-type connector - The cable type and connector used to attach a television set to a CATV network is a coaxial cable with a screw-on F-type connector. Although CATV networks typically use fiber-optic cables and ST connectors for outdoor connections, they do not use fiber for internal connections to television sets. Coaxial cables with BNC connectors are most commonly used for Thin Ethernet LANs, not CATV network connections.
Which of the cable types is used for Thick Ethernet network segments?
RG-8 - The cable type used for Thick Ethernet segments is a coaxial cable called RG-8. RG-58 is used exclusively on Thin Ethernet segments.
Which of the cable types is used for Thin Ethernet network segments?
RG-58 - RG-58 coaxial cable is used exclusively for Thin Ethernet segments. RG-8 cable is used for Thick Ethernet segments.
What is a common European alternative to the 110 punchdown block used in U.S. telecommunications installations?
Krone LSA-Plus - The Krone LSA-Plus is a proprietary telecommunications connector type commonly used in European installations.
Which of the following coaxial cable types are still in general use? (Choose all that apply.)
RG-6
RG-8
RG-58
RG-59
RG-6 and RG-59 - RG-6 and RG-59 are 75 ohm cables that are still used for cable television and similar connections. RG-8 and RG-58 are 50 ohm cables that were formerly used for Thick Ethernet and Thin Ethernet, respectively, but are no longer in general use.
Which of the following is not a type of fiber-optic connector?
SC
MTRJ
ST
BNC
BNC - Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) is a type of connector used with coaxial cable. Subscriber Connector (SC), Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ), and Straight Tip (ST) are all types of fiber-optic connectors.
Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and therefore the most obsolete?
SFP
SFP+
GBIC
QSFP
QSFP+
The Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) transceiver standard was first published in 1995 and defines a maximum data transfer rate of 1.25 Gbps. It was rendered all but obsolete by the Small Form-factor Pluggable (SFP) standard, introduced in 2001, which ran at the same maximum speed but was smaller in size.
Which of the following cable types is typically configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses RJ-45 connectors?
RG-8
Twisted pair
RG-58
Fiber optic
There are two main types of twisted pair wiring used for data communications: Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP). Both types can be used in a star topology. UTP and STP cables contain eight copper conductors twisted in four pairs. UTP and STP cables use RJ-45 connectors to connect end systems to switches, patch panels, and wall plates.
Which of the following statements explains the purpose of the twists in twisted pair cabling?
- The twists prevent collisions.
- The twists completely eliminate crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) in adjacent wire pairs.
- The twists prevent crosstalk in adjacent wire pairs and limit the effects of EMI on the signals carried over the cable.
- The twists extend the bend radius allowance of the cable.
The twists in a twisted pair cable prevent the signals on the different wires from interfering with each other (which is called crosstalk) and also provide resistance to outside electromagnetic interference. The twists have no effect on collisions. The twists cannot completely eliminate the effects of EMI.
Thin Ethernet network?
RG-58, 50-ohm, 0.195-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors
Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer?
RJ45
MT-RJ
8P8C
BNC
F
BNC - Thin Ethernet networks use a type of coaxial cable that runs from each computer to the next one, forming a bus topology. To connect the cable to the network computers, each network interface adapter has a T-connector attached to it, with two additional male BNC connectors, to which you connect two lengths of network cabling.
Which of the following connector types are associated with fiber-optic cables? (Choose all that apply.)
RJ11
ST
F
LC
MT-RJ
ST, LC, MT-RJ - Fiber-optic cable connectors all function on the same basic principles, but there are a variety of form factors from which to choose, including Straight Tip (ST), Local Connector (LC), and Mechanical Transfer–Registered Jack (MT-RJ). RJ-11 is a twisted pair cable connector, and F connectors are for coaxial cable.
Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap?
Unshielded twisted pair
Shielded twisted pair
Multimode fiber optic
Single-mode fiber optic
Coaxial
Coaxial - Thick Ethernet installations used a type of coaxial cable called RG-8. To connect a node to the network, installers ran a separate cable called an Attachment Unit Interface (AUI) cable from the computer to the RG-8 and connected it using a device called a vampire tap that pierced the sheathing to make contact with the conductors within.
In an internal UTP cable installation, each horizontal cable run connects a wall plate in the work area to a centralized cabling nexus in a telecommunications room. Which of the following is the correct term for this cabling nexus?
Telepole
Demarc
Backbone
Patch panel
Fiber distribution panel
Patch Panel - The cabling nexus in a telecommunications room is called a patch panel. A telepole is a tool used for installing cables. A backbone is a network that connects other Local Area Networks (LANs) together. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the location at which a telecommunication provider’s service meets the customer’s private network. A fiber distribution panel is used for fiber optic cable, not Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), connections.
Ralph has been hired by a client to install cabling to connect two existing networks. The two networks are in different buildings approximately 1000 feet apart. The cable type must support Gigabit Ethernet data rates of 1000 megabits per second (Mbps) and provide a high level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Your client wants the most economical cabling solution that meets their needs. Which of the cable types best meets the needs of this client?
Multimode Fibre Optic - Multimode fiber-optic cable best meets the client’s needs. Fiber-optic cable supports the required 1000 Mbps data rate and can connect networks that are more than 1000 feet apart. Fiber-optic cable is immune to EMI. Although both multimode and single-mode fiber would meet the corporation’s general needs, multimode is best in this scenario because it is less expensive than single-mode fiber.
What are the steps are followed when connecting bulk cables to jacks in wall plates and patch panels?
- Strip some of the sheath off the cable end to expose the wires.
- Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends.
- Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire.
- Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack.
- Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place.
- Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts.
Which of the following cable connector types is not used with fiber-optic cable?
Straight Tip (ST)
Subscriber Connector (SC)
Mechanical Transfer–Registered Jack (MT-RJ)
F-type
Fiber Local Connector (LC)
F-type - ST, SC, fiber LC, and MT-RJ are all connectors used with fiber-optic cables. F-type connectors are used with coaxial cables.
Which of the following twisted pair cable types can you use to construct a 10GBase-T network with 100-meter segments? (Choose all that apply.)
CAT5
CAT5e
CAT6
CAT6a
CAT7
CAT8
CAT6a, CAT7, CAT8 - Category 6a (CAT6a) twisted pair cable is a variant on CAT6 that enables you to create 10GBase-T networks with segments up to 100 meters long. Category 7 (CAT7) cable adds shielding both to the individual wire pairs and to the entire cable, for even greater resistance to crosstalk and noise. CAT7 supports 100-meter 10GBase-T segments as well. CAT8 cable supports bandwidth up to 2 GHz, making it even more suitable for 10GBase-T networks than CAT6a (500 MHz) or CAT7 (600 MHz). CAT5 and CAT5e are not suitable for use with 10GBase-T. You can use CAT6 for 10GBase-T, but it is limited to 55-meter segments.
Which of the following Ethernet specifications calls for CAT8 UTP cable exclusively?
10GBase-T
40GBase-T
100Base-TX
1000Base-SX
40GBase-T - is a 40-gigabits-per-second (Gbps) Ethernet specification that calls for 4-pair CAT8 twisted pair cabling for lengths up to 30 meters. 10GBase-T and 100Base-TX do not require CAT8 cable, and 1000Base-SX is a fiber optic standard.
Ralph has been hired to connect three Local Area Networks (LANs) together with redundant paths that form a fault-tolerant backbone. The LANs reside on different floors in the same building and are approximately 600 meters apart. Each LAN is currently configured in a star topology using twisted pair cabling. Each LAN includes wall plates and rack-mounted patch panels and switches. Building and fire codes allow cables to run through existing risers, ceilings, and walls, but a 50,000-watt radio station occupies one of the floors between the LANs. Which topology, cable type, and installation method are best suited for this network?
- Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation
- Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation
- Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and external installation
- Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation
- Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation
- Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation
Mesh Topology, Fibre-optic cabling and internal installation
In the 100Base-TX specification, what are the functions of the Fast Link Pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters?
- The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection between the devices
- The FLP signals enable the devices to negotiate to speed of the link between them
Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable?
10GBase-LR
10GBase-CX4
10GBase-ER
10GBase-LX4
10GBase-SR
The 10GBase-CX4 specification calls for the use of a twinaxial copper cable with segments no longer than 15 meters. The10GBase-LR, 10GBase-ER, 10GBase-LX4, and 10GBase-SR specifications all call for fiber-optic cable.
Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to upgrade an existing Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. The network consists of 20 workstations with integrated 10Base-T/100Base-TX/1000Base-T network interface adapters. The network cabling is Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), installed when the building was constructed. All of the workstations are connected to a single 100Base-TX switch. Which of the following options would Alice find to be a valid upgrade path to Gigabit Ethernet?
- Replace the CAT5 cable with at least Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6), and leave the existing network interface adapters and switch in place.
- Install a 1000Base-T network interface card in each computer, and leave the existing cables and switch in place.
- Replace the CAT5 cable with at least CAT5e or CAT6, and replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T switch.
- Replace the 100Base-TX switch with a 1000Base-T switch, and leave the existing cables and network interface adapters in place.
Replace the 100Base-TX switch with a 1000Base-T switch, and leave the existing cables and network interface adapters in place - The multispeed network interface adapters in the computers can run at 1 Gbps speed using the existing CAT5 cable, but the 100Base-T switch must be replaced with a 1000Base-T switch. While the network might run better with a cable upgrade, it is not immediately necessary. Replacing the network interface adapters is not necessary because the existing multispeed adapters can run at 1 Gbps if they are connected to a 1000Base-T switch.
Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address?
DHCP
NAT
DNS
NTP
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that enables computers with unregistered IP addresses to access the Internet by substituting a registered address in packets as they pass through a router. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IP address allocation service. Domain Name System (DNS) resolves domain and hostnames into IP addresses, and Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables network devices to synchronize their time settings.
Which of the following best defines the concept of the dual stack?
A computer with two network interface adapters
A computer with two installed operating systems
A computer with two sets of networking protocols
A computer with connections to two different network segments
A dual stack is an IP implementation that includes both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks, operating simultaneously. A computer with two network adapters or connections to two network segments is often called multihomed. A computer with two installed operating systems is called a dual-boot system.
Which of the following IPv4 addresses are you unable to assign to a network host? (Choose all that apply.)
A)1.1.1.1
B)229.6.87.3
C)103.256.77.4
D)9.34.0.1
B, C. IPv4 addresses with first byte values from 224 to 239 are Class D addresses, which are reserved for use as multicast addresses. Therefore, you cannot assign 229.6.87.3 to a host. Option C, 103.256.77.4, is an invalid address because the value 256 cannot be represented by an 8-bit binary value. The other options, 1.1.1.1 and 9.34.0.1, are both valid IPv4 addresses.
How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network?
15 - The value after the slash in a Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) address specifies the number of bits in the network identifier. An IPv4 address has 32 bits, so if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier.
Alice has been instructed to create an IPv4 network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224 - To create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet, Alice would have to allocate 3 of the 8 bits in the last octet for subnet identifiers. This would result in a binary value of 11100000 for the last octet in the subnet mask, which converts to a decimal value of 224.
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
fe00::b491:cf79:p493:23ff
2001:0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56
fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb
2001:0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f
fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb - The address fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb is correctly formatted for IPv6, with the double colon replacing three blocks of zeroes. Uncompressed, the address would appear as follows: fe00:0000:0000:0000:c955:c944:acdd:3fcb. Option A contains a nonhexadecimal digit. Option B contains only seven 16-bit blocks (and no double colon) instead of the eight required for 128 bits. Option D contains blocks larger than 16 bits.
To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class B - All Class B addresses have first octet values between 128 and 191. The first octet range of a Class A address is 1 to 126, and the Class C first octet range is 192 to 223. Class D addresses have a first octet range of 224 to 239.
Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers?
255.248.0.0
255.252.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.252.0.0 - The 14-bit prefix indicated in the network address will result in a mask with 14 ones followed by 18 zeroes. Broken into 8-bit blocks, the binary mask value is as follows:
11111111 11111100 00000000 00000000
Converted into decimal values, this results in a subnet mask value of 255.252.0.0.
What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-bit subnet identifier?
The formula for calculating the number of subnets you can create using a subnet identifier of a given length is 2x, where x is the number of bits in the subnet identifier. Therefore, with a 14-bit subnet, you can conceivably create 214, or 16,384, subnets.
Alice has been asked to design her company’s Internet Protocol (IPv4) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned a Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network?
In this scenario, the last byte of the IP address assigned to the company must be subdivided into 3 subnet bits and 5 host bits. The 3 subnet bits will give Alice up to 8 subnets, with 5 host bits for up to 30 hosts per subnet. The new subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The 224 is the decimal equivalent of the binary value 11100000, which represents the 3 subnet bits and the 5 host bits.
A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hexadecimal MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter’s IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-64 value?
To convert a MAC address to an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64), you split the 6-byte MAC address into two 3-byte halves and insert the 2-byte value FFFE in between, as follows:
001F9E FFFE FC7AD0
Then, you change the seventh bit in the first byte, the universal/local bit, from 0 to 1, indicating that this is a locally created address. This results in a binary first byte value of 00000010, which converts to 02 in hexadecimal.
Finally, you add the IPv6 link local prefix FE80::/10, resulting in the following complete address:
FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0
The default mask for a IPv4 Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask for the network?
A standard Class B address with a mask of 255.255.0.0 has 16 bits that can be used for subnets and hosts. To get 600 subnets, you must use 10 of the available bits, which gives you up to 1024 subnets. This leaves 6 host bits, which gives you up to 62 hosts per subnet, which exceeds the requirement of 55 requested by the client. Using 9 bits would give you only 510 subnets, while 11 bits would give you 2046 subnets but leave you only 5 bits for a maximum of 30 hosts, which is not enough.
What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of a network with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20?
The formula for calculating the number of hosts you can create using a host identifier of a given length is 2x–2, where x is the number of bits in the host identifier. You cannot create a host with an address of all zeroes or all ones, which is why you subtract 2. On a network that uses 20 bits for network identification, 12 bits are left for the host identifier. Using those 12 bits, you can create 212–2 or 4,094 host addresses.
Ralph has an IPv4 Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create, and how many hosts can he create per subnet?
With a Class B subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, the binary form of the third and fourth bytes is 11111000 00000000. There are 5 subnet bits, providing up to 32 subnets and 11 host bits, providing up to 2046 hosts.
Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask?
The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, the value for 11100000 is 224, and the value for 00000000 is 0, so the mask is 255.255.224.0.
If you have an IPv4 network address of 192.168.1.32/27, what is the valid range of host addresses you can use for your workstations?
With a network address of 192.168.1.32 and 27 mask bits, the subnet mask value is 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 in binary form, or 255.255.255.224 in decimal form. This leaves 5 bits for the host identifier. The valid range of host bits is therefore 00001 (1) through 11110 (30). This gives you a range of 192.168.1.32 + 1 (33) through 192.168.1.32 + 30 (62).
Alice has been assigned the IPv4 network address 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have available to her?
To calculate the number of host addresses available, Alice must determine the number of host bits in the address, which is 10, raise 2 to that power, and subtract 2 for the network and broadcast addresses, which are unusable for hosts. The formula is therefore 2x–2. 210–2=1022.
Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for an IPv4 network with the address 172.16.0.0/20?
The address given uses 20 bits to identify the network, leaving 12 bits for the host identifier. In binary form, therefore, the subnet mask value would be 11111111 11111111 11110000 00000000. The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, and the decimal value for 11110000 is 240. Therefore, the subnet mask is 255.255.240.0.
Ed has been assigned the IPv4 network address 192.168.2.32/28 for the computers in his department. What range of addresses can Ed use to configure the TCP/IP clients on his computers?
A /28 address leaves 4 bits for the host identifier. To calculate the number of hosts, Ed uses 24–2=14. The first address on the subnet is therefore 192.168.2.33, and the fourteenth is 192.168.2.46.
When two workstations access the Internet using the same Port Address Translation (PAT) router, which of the following does the router assign to each workstation? (Choose all that apply.)
A unique port number
A common public IPv4 address
A common port number
A unique public IPv4 address
Unlike network address translation, port address translation uses a single public IPv4 address for all of the client workstations. Instead of assigning each workstation a unique address, PAT assigns each workstation a unique port number.
Which of the following pairs of well-known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client?
110 and 25
143 and 25
110 and 143
80 and 110
25 and 80
The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the other protocol used by email clients, is 25. Port 143 is the default for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3. Port 80 is the default for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by POP3 email clients.
Which component does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify?
The port numbers specified in a transport layer protocol header identify the application that generated the data in the packet or the application that will receive the data. Port numbers do not identify transport layer protocols, gateways, or proxy servers.
What is the term for the combination of an IPv4 address and a port number, as in the following example: 192.168.1.3:23?
Socket
Which protocols generate messages that are carried directly within Internet Protocol (IPv4) datagrams, with no intervening transport layer protocol?
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) are unusual in that they generate messages that are encapsulated directly within IP datagrams. Nearly all of the other TCP/IP protocols, including Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), are encapsulated within one of the transport layer protocols—User Datagram Protocol (UDP) or Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)—which is encapsulated in turn within an IP datagram.
Which protocol is used to exchange directory service information?
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an application layer protocol used for managing and accessing information stored in directory services.
Ralph is configuring a new email client on a workstation to use the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Post Office Protocol (POP3) email protocols. He wants both protocols to use encryption when communicating with the email server. Which of the following port numbers should Ralph use to secure the SMTP connection with Transport Layer Security (TLS) and the POP3 connection with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption? (Choose all that apply.)
110
25
587
993
995
587, 995 - SMTP with TLS uses port number 587. POP3 over SSL uses port number 995. Port numbers 25 and 110 are used for SMTP and POP3 without encryption. Port number 993 is used for Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) over SSL.
Which of the following is not a port number used for Structured Query Language (SQL) communications?
1433
1521
3306
3389
3389 - The port number 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) and is not involved in SQL communication. Port 1433 is used by SQL Server; 1521 is used by SQLnet; 3306 is used by MySQL.
Which of the following port numbers is assigned to a Unix logging services program?
389
514
636
993
Port number 514 is assigned to syslog, a Unix standard designed to facilitate the transmission of log entries generated by a device or process, such as the sendmail SMTP server, across an IP network to a message collector, called a syslog server. Port number 389 is assigned to the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP). Port number 636 is assigned to LDAP over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Port number 993 is assigned to Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) over SSL.
Which of the following protocols use(s) the term datagram to describe the data transfer unit it creates? (Choose all that apply.)
Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
IP, UDP - The term datagram is typically used by protocols offering connectionless delivery service. The two main connectionless protocols in the TCP/IP suite are the Internet Protocol (IP) and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP), both of which use the term datagram. Ethernet uses the term frame, and Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) uses segment.
What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft Windows operating systems?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Network File System (NFS)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Server Message Block (SMB)
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
The default file sharing protocol used on all Windows operating systems is SMB. HTTP is the native protocol used by web clients and servers. NFS is the native file sharing protocol used on Unix/Linux networks. FTP is a protocol used for transferring files from one system to another. LDAP is a protocol for transmitting directory service information.
Which of the following terms describes the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) exchange that establishes a connection prior to the transmission of any data?
Synchronization
Initialization exchange
Connection establishment
Three-way handshake
Three-way handshake - Two systems establishing a TCP connection exchange three messages before they begin transmitting data. The exchange of these synchronization messages is referred to as a three-way handshake.
Alice has been instructed to install 100 Windows workstations, and she is working on automating the process by configuring the workstations to use PXE boots. Each workstation therefore must obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and download a boot image file from a TFTP server. Which of the following well-known ports must Alice open on the firewall separating the workstations from the servers? (Choose all that apply.)
65
66
67
68
69
67, 68, 69 - Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers use port numbers 67 and 68. The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses port number 69.
Which Unix/Linux performance monitoring tool, with output shown in the figure, enables you to display information about processes that are currently running on a system?
top - The top utility displays performance information about the currently running processes on a Unix/Linux system.
