Skill Acquisition & Sport Psychology Year 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Using CEMPOD identify the six skill continua.

A

Continuity, Environmental, Muscular Involvement, Pacing, Organisation, Difficulty.

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2
Q

What is a motor programme?

A

A series of sub-routines stored in the long-term memory.

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3
Q

What is a sub-routine?

A

An individual movement or component of a skill or technique.

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4
Q

Describe an Open Skill

A

The environment is changing & others affect the skill.
Much information to process

Often externally paced

Skills will require variations

Movements will require adjustments

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5
Q

Describe a Closed Skill

A

Not affected by the environment

Stable and predictable

Internally/Self-Paced

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6
Q

Describe a Gross Skill

A

Involves large muscle movements

Involves large muscle groups

Major body movement skills

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7
Q

Describe a Fine Skill

A

Involve small muscle movements

Involve small muscle groups

Small bodily movements

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8
Q

Describe a Discrete Skill

A

Skill has a definite beginning and end

Usually brief in nature – a single skill

If a skill is repeated, have to start from the beginning

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9
Q

Describe a Serial Skill

A

A number of discrete skills put together to make a sequence or series

The order in which the distinct elements is important

Each movement is both a stimulus and a response

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10
Q

Describe a Continuous Skill

A

No clear beginning or end of skill

Activity continues for unspecified time

Usually performed for a longer period of time

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11
Q

Describe a Self-Paced Skill

A

A performer decides when to perform or start the skill

Performer decided the rate at which the skill is performed

More closed skills e.g. shot put

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12
Q

Describe an Externally-Paced Skill

A

Performance of the action is determined by external sources

Involves the performer in reaction

More open skill (e.g. white water canoeing)

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13
Q

Describe a Simple Skill

A

Little information or stimuli to process.

Few decisions

Time to use feedback.

Few sub-routines

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14
Q

Describe a Complex Skill

A

Large amounts of information to process

Affected by the environment

Less time to use feedback

Many sub-routines to perform in correct order at correct time

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15
Q

Describe a High Organisation Skill

A

Skill cannot be split into sub-routines

Sub-routines have to be practised as part of whole movement

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16
Q

Describe a Low Organisation Skill

A

Sub-routines can be easily identified from overall movement

Sub-routines can be practised in isolation from overall movement

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17
Q

What are the 3 phases of learning?

A

Cognitive, Associative, Autonomous

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18
Q

Describe a learner in the cognitive phase

A

The learner is trying to create a ‘mental picture’ of the skill

Lots of trial and error

Essential that success reinforced by performer experiencing success or being told by the coach/ teacher

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19
Q

Describe a learner in the associative phase

A

Performer practices the skills and compares or associated movements with the mental mage

Feedback occurs (intrinsic and extrinsic)

Beginners start to eliminate mistakes, and refine skills.

Motor programmes aren’t grooved

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20
Q

Describe a learner in the autonomous phase

A

Movements becoming automatic or subconscious

Distractions ignored (selective attention)

Focus on tactical strategies

Motor programmes fully grooved and stored in LTM.

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21
Q

Identify 4 types of guidance

A

Visual, Verbal, Manual, Mechanical.

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22
Q

What is the difference between manual & mechanical guidance?

A

Manual - Physical support and movement from the teacher/coach.

Mechanical - Using equipment to support motor development.

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23
Q

Identify 8 methods of practice

A

Whole

Part

Whole Part Whole

Progressive Part

Massed

Distributed

Varied

Fixed

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24
Q

What is whole practice?

A

Practice by doing the total or complete or entire movement/not breaking skill into subroutines or parts

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25
Q

What is part practice?

A

Practice by splitting or breaking down skill into subroutines or sections

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26
Q

What is whole part whole practice?

A

Practice the complete skill, then split it into subroutines, and then practice complete skill again.

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27
Q

What is progressive part practice?

A

Practice in stages that are linked or chained.

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28
Q

What is massed practice?

A

No or very few rest intervals

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29
Q

What is distributed practice?

A

Regular breaks built into practice

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30
Q

What is varied practice?

A

When the practice situation/environment changes.

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31
Q

What is fixed practice?

A

When the practice situation/environment stays the same.

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32
Q

What are the main two categories of feedback?

A

Knowledge of Results & Knowledge of Performance

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33
Q

In addition to KR and KP, identify 6 other types of feedback.

A

Positive, negative, concurrent, terminal, intrinsic, extrinsic.

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34
Q

What is knowledge of results feedback?

A

Based upon the outcome or result.

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35
Q

What is knowledge of performance feedback?

A

Based upon the technique and the quality of the movement.

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36
Q

What is intrinsic feedback?

A

Direct feedback from proprioceptors, known as kinesthesis.

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37
Q

What is concurrent feedback?

A

Feedback during performance.

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38
Q

What is terminal feedback?

A

Feedback at the end of performance.

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39
Q

Identify 6 types of transfer.

A

Positive, Negative, Bilateral, Zero, Proactive, Retroactive,

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40
Q

What is positive transfer?

A

One skill helps or enhances the learning and performance of another skill.

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41
Q

What is negative transfer?

A

One skill hinders the learning and performance of another skill.

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42
Q

What is bilateral transfer?

A

This is the transfer which takes place from one limb to another, sometimes called lateralisation.

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43
Q

What is proactive transfer?

A

A skill already learned or performed INFLUENCES the learning or performing of a new skill.

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44
Q

What is retroactive transfer?

A

Learning or performing a new skill INFLUENCES the learning or performing of an OLD skill.

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45
Q

Name three learning theories.

A

Operant, Observational & Cogntive Learning Theories.

46
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Learning by conditioning through response to a stimulus.

Strengthening the stimulus-response (SR) bond.

Using reinforcement & punishment.

47
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

When reinforcement is taken away.

48
Q

Name Thorndike’s Laws.

A

Law of Exercise
Law of Readiness
Law of Effect

49
Q

What is observational learning (social learning) theory?

A

When behaviour is learned through observing or copying another.

50
Q

What are the 6 stages of Bandura’s model of observational learning?

A

Demonstration - Attention, Retention, Motor Reproduction, Motivation - Performance

51
Q

What is the acronym to remember cognitive learning theory?

A

PIGWIP

52
Q

What are the 6 ways of describing cognitive learning theory (PIGWIP)

A

Perception, Intervening Variables, Gestalt, Whole Problem, Insight, Past Experiences.

53
Q

Define Personality

A

The sum total of an individual’s psychological characteristics which make him or her unique

54
Q

What are the three theories of personality?

A

Trait, Social Learning, Interactionist.

55
Q

Describe trait theory of personality.

A

Involves characteristics that are innate, stable and enduring.

Behaviour is genetically programmed.

In sport you will display similar behaviours to other situations.

Suggests the situation does not impact upon the individual’s behaviour.

Behaviour = Function of Personality (B = F(P))

56
Q

Eyesnck identified four personality traits. What were they?

A

Extrovert, Introvert, Stable, Unstable.

57
Q

Girdano suggested there were two ways of classifying someon’s personality. What are they?

A

Type A & Type B.

58
Q

Describe a Type A Personality.

A
Highly competitive
Works fast
Strong desire to succeed
Likes control
Impatient
59
Q

Describe a Type B Personality.

A
Non-competitive
Works more slowly
Lack in desire to succeed
Does not enjoy control
Work slowly
60
Q

Describe an Extrovert.

A

Perform better in higher arousal situations

Aroused more slowly than introverts & have low levels of internal arousal.

Low sensitivity of the reticular activating system (A network of nerves responsible for regulating consciousness/awakeness)

Prefer gross motor skills/activities

61
Q

What is the reticular activating system?

A

A network of nerves responsible for regulating consciousness/awakeness

62
Q

Describe an Introvert.

A

High levels of excitation (nerves).

Don’t need added stimulation & excitement.

Become aroused more quickly than extroverts

There is a high sensitivity of the reticular activating system (RAS)

63
Q

Describe Social Learning theory of Personality

A

Social Learning is in direct contrast to trait theory and proposes all behaviour is learned.

They say behavior changes according to the environment and the situation

BEHAVIOUR = FUNCTION OF ENVIRONMENT (B = F(E))

SLT (Bandura) involves behaviour being imitated through observation & following reinforcement in a social environment.

Learning occurs through environmental experiences and is influenced by others such as friends, peers, family & role models.

64
Q

Describe Interactionist theory of Personality

A

Personality is determined by an interaction
between traits and the situation.

(B = F (P x E))

Behaviour = Function of Personality x Environment

Behaviour changes depending on the situation/role

65
Q

Define attitude.

A

An attitude is a predisposition for feelings or

behaviours towards something or someone.

66
Q

Identify 6 ways attitudes can be formed.

A

Past experiences - good or bad, they shape your attitudes

Social learning - learn from role models e.g - parents

Media - shape attitudes through coverage - can reinforce stereotypes (e.g. - women’s rugby)

Education - class, course, school, teacher

Social norms - e.g. - football is big sport in the UK

Culture/ religion - e.g. - women in Muslim cultures have limited sporting opportunities

67
Q

What is a prejudice?

A

An attitude based on pre-judgement arising from an evaluation based on unfounded beliefs or opinions.

68
Q

Which three components make up the Triadic Model of attitude?

A

Cognitive, Affective, Behavioural.

69
Q

What is dissonance within the triadic model?

A

Creating disagreement or differences between the components of an attitude is likely to cause emotional discomfort.

Changing one aspect of the triadic model is likely to cause such dissonance.

70
Q

When their is dissonance, what do humans naturally try to do?

A

Create resonance/consonance (agreement).

71
Q

What are the three components of persuasive communication?

A

The message, The persuader, The recipients.

72
Q

Identify 6 ways you could change an attitude.

A
Reinforcement
Punishment
Cognitive methods – educate/ raise awareness
Affective methods – help them feel the benefits
Role models
Raise self esteem
Peer/ group pressure
Goal setting
Re-attribution
Create cognitive dissonance
73
Q

Define Motivation

A

The direction and intensity of one’s effort

74
Q

What is intrinsic motivation?

A

Intrinsic Motivation is……..performing for its own sake, for personal reasons, for personal satisfaction or personal challenge.

75
Q

What is extrinsic motivation?

A

Extrinsic Motivation is……..performing to earn a reward or when you are driven to perform for external reason

76
Q

Define arousal

A

The intensity of emotion/motivation/behaviour. Degree of psychological readiness. The amount of drive to achieve.

77
Q

What are the two types of arousal?

A

Cognitive & Somatic

78
Q

Describe Drive Theory of arousal

A

There is a linear relationship arousal and performance. As arousal increases, performance increases.

Dominant response is more likely as arousal increases.

P = f (H x D)

79
Q

What is a dominant response?

A

Dominant behaviours: EMP and learned behaviours.

80
Q

What is the Inverted U Theory?

A

Inverted U theory states that performance increases with arousal until it reaches an optimum point at a medium level of arousal.

Any further increases to arousal will result in a decline in performance.

81
Q

What does the Inverted U Theory suggest about different types of skill or different levels of learner?

A

It suggests complex or fine skills best with low arousal whereas simple or gross skills best with high arousal.

Extroverts cope with higher arousal or introverts cannot cope with higher arousal.

Autonomous learners = higher arousal to bring about the dominant response

Cognitive learners = lower arousal to focus on relevant cues and sub-routines

82
Q

Describe the Catastrophe Theory of arousal.

A

As (somatic) arousal increases, performance increases up to an optimum or midway point. If arousal continues to increase or is (too) high there is a sudden or extreme decline in performance.

If high cognitive arousal/anxiety coincides with or interacts with high somatic anxiety, it causes loss of control/coordination/concentration or decision making skills

BUT if arousal/ anxiety is controlled or reduced, performance can improve again.

83
Q

Define anxiety.

A

Negative feelings of worry and nervousness relating to activation or arousal.

84
Q

What are the two types of anxiety?

A

Trait & State

85
Q

What is the ZOF (Zone of Optimal Functioning)?

A

When the performer’s level of anxiety is at the optimum level they will give their best performance (This can also refer to arousal).

Every individual has a different ZOF.

86
Q

What does peak flow or being in the zone look or feel like?

A

Relaxed:
High levels of arousal are not necessary.

Confident:
Believe in your own ability.

Focused:
Attend to the task at hand (selective attention).

Effortless:
A great deal can be completed without much effort.

Automate/ sub-conscious:
Your movements can be done automatically without much thought (grooved).

Fun/ enjoyable:
Without enjoying yourself you are unlikely to achieve peak flow.

In control:
You are in FULL control of your actions.

87
Q

What is cue utilisation theory?

A

That every performer is able to focus on or block out relevant & irrelevant cues depending upon their attentional band.

88
Q

Define aggression

A

Intent to harm outside of the rules of sort

89
Q

What is Instinct theory of aggression?

A

Aggression is a ‘natural response’ or ‘trait’ (Freud).

Lorenz (1966) advocated this viewpoint who suggested humans generate aggressive energy which needs to be released.

90
Q

What is social learning theory of aggression?

A

Bandura (1977) suggested by watching/observing others who are aggressive we learn to copy their behaviour.

More likely if aggression is shown by significant others/ role models.

91
Q

What is frustration-aggression theory?

A

Frustrating circumstances or blocked goals causing frustration, drive and therefore aggression.

Frustration caused by poor personal performance or perceived unfairness.

Aggression helps achieve catharsis which is a release of frustration.

92
Q

What is aggressive cue hypothesis?

A

Frustration creates a ‘readiness’ for aggression

Signals/cues/stimuli from the environment trigger aggression (e.g. - crowd)

93
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

The positive influence of others, who may be watching or competing, on sports performance

94
Q

What is social inhibition?

A

The negative influence of others, who may be watching or competing, which leads to decrease in sports performance

95
Q

What is the impact of others on arousal?

A

The mere presence of others causes an increase.

96
Q

What is evaluation apprehension?

A

Increases in arousal occur when the performer perceives the audience were assessing or judging their performance.

97
Q

What determines if the presence of others results in social facilitation or inhibition?

A

Home/Away crowd, personality, experience levels, type of skill being performed, proximity.

98
Q

Describe what is meant by the term ‘group’.

A

‘A collection of people (2+) who share similar goals and interact with one another’.

This will often involve:

  • Collective identity
  • Common goal
  • Shared purpose
  • Group unity
  • Structured patterns of communication
99
Q

What is cohesion?

A

Concerns the motivation which attracts individuals to the group and the resistance of those members to the group breaking up

Cohesiveness is ‘the total field of forces which act on members to remain in the group’
(Festinger, 1963)

100
Q

What are the four stages in Tuckman’s model of group development?

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.

101
Q

Describe the forming stage in Tuckman’s model.

A

High dependence on the leader for guidance & direction.

Group members start to get to know each other.

Little agreement on aims.

Roles are unclear and leader must give strong direction.

102
Q

Describe the storming stage in Tuckman’s model.

A

Group decisions are difficult.

Members jostle for position and attempts to establish themselves against each other, and may potentially challenge leaders.

Clearer focus and stronger sense of purpose (some uncertainty)

Cliques and power struggles may form.

The team needs to focus on goals to avoid being drawn into power struggles.

103
Q

Describe the norming stage in Tuckman’s model.

A

More agreement and consensus on opinion of the team.

Roles and responsibilities are clearer and generally accepted.

Decisions increasingly made through agreement.

Less important decisions are delegated.

Stronger sense of commitment, unity and group become more social.

General respect for the leader.

104
Q

Describe the performing stage in Tuckman’s model.

A

Clear strategies, visions and aims.

No interference or direct participation from the leader (team don’t need instruction)

Focus on achieving goals and the team makes decisions.

Team members are trusted to get on with the task.

Disagreements are resolved positively.

Team members may ask for assistance from the leader on personal issues.

105
Q

Identify the equation for Steiner’s Group Model.

A

Actual Productivity = Potential productivity

– (minus) Losses due to faulty processes

106
Q

Identify faulty processes described as co-ordinational losses.

A

Team performance affected by inability to work together. Eg. Poor communication

Ringelmann effect: Individual performance decreases as group size increases

Inadequate leadership

Poor tactics/strategies

107
Q

Identify faulty processes described as motivational losses.

A

Social loafing or lack of motivation

Lack of confidence or internal stable attributions for failure. Blaming themselves for failure

Lack of identifiable roles for the team

Individual efforts not recognised

Injury, illness or fatigue

Lack of incentives to work together

Too high a level of competition

Negative effects of others or criticisms from team-mates

Environmental stressors

108
Q

Define social loafing.

A

When individuals lessen their effort as part of a group.

109
Q

What is an outcome goal?

A

Goals focusing on end result

E.g. - winning match

110
Q

What is a personal performance goal?

A

Focus on the individual / team performance
Less stress-inducing and put the performer in control
May make outcome/ losing bearable
E.g. - achieving a PB

111
Q

What is a process goal?

A

Goals used to improve a skill/ technique

E.g. - improve front foot drive in cricket

112
Q

What is each part of the SMART goal setting strategy?

A

S - specific (need to be personal/clear)

M - measurable
(need to be assessed/help monitor progress)

A - achievable
(shared, realistic goals are most powerful)

R - recorded
(recorded, measured against progress)

T - time phased
(Short/Medium/Long-term)