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Pharmacy Prep > Single Best Answer > Flashcards

Single Best Answer Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a typical sign of lithium toxicity?

a) Convulsions
b) Jaundice
c) Muscle Twitching
d) Tremor
e) Increased urine output

A

b) Jaundice

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2
Q

Which of the following about amitriptyline is correct?

a) it is an SSRI
b) it is licenced in post herpetic neuralgia
c) it can be used in combination with pregabalin for neuropathic pain
d) it is taken in the morning
e) it commonly causes diarrhoea

A

c) it can be used in combination with pregabalin for neuropathic pain

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3
Q

Of the following which 2 have similar amounts of beclometasone:

a) Fostair
b) Clenil
c) Qvar
d) Pulmicort
e) Flixotide

A

a) Fostair and c) QVAR

Pulmicort = Budesonide
Flixotide = Fluticasone
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4
Q

Of the following which has the lowest beclometasone content:

a) Fostair
b) Clenil
c) Qvar
d) Pulmicort
e) Flixotide

A

b) Clenil
Clenil has half the beclometasone than fostair and QVAR

Pulmicort = Budesonide
Flixotide = Fluticasone
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5
Q

Which of the following MDI’s is licensed for use in COPD?

a) Fluticasone / salmeterol (Seretide) 100/5
b) Fluticasone / formoterol (Flutiform) 50/5
c) Beclometasone / formoterol (Fostair)
d) Fluticasone / formoterol (Flutiform) 125/5
e) Fluticasone / salmeterol (Seretide) 125/25

A

c) Beclometasone / formoterol (Fostair)

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6
Q

Which of the following has CYP40 enzyme action?

a) Cimetidine
b) Famoridine
c) Nizatidine
d) Ranitidine

A

Cimetidine

enzyme inhibitor

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7
Q

Which of the following has a standard dose of 1 - 4 mg in daily divided doses?

a) Lorazepam
b) Diazepam
c) Propranolol
d) Chloral Hydrate

A

a) Lorazepam

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8
Q

Which of the following can legally operate a retail pharmacy business in England?

a) A Partnership where at least one partner is a pharmacist
b) A body corporate
c) A representative of a deceased pharmacist

A

b) a body corporate
And
c) a representative of a deceased pharmacist

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9
Q

Which of the following statements about partnerships owning a retail pharmacy business are true?

a) in England all partners must be pharmacists
b) in Scotland only one partner has to be a pharmacist
c) in Wales only one partner has to be a pharmacist

A

a) in England all partners must be pharmacists

And b) in Scotland only one partner has to be a pharmacist

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about retail pharmacy business are TRUE?

a) Retail pharmacy businesses operate from registered pharmacies
b) A representative can run a retail pharmacy business for 3 years following the death of a pharmacist
c) All retail pharmacy businesses must have a superintendent pharmacist

A

a) retail pharmacy businesses operate from registered pharmacies

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11
Q

Which of the following about responsible pharmacists are TRUE?

a) all hospital pharmacies must have a responsible pharmacist
b) the responsible pharmacist can be absent for a maximum of 2 hours
c) GSL medicines can be sold when the responsible pharmacist is absent

A

b) the responsible pharmacist can be absent for a maximum of 2 hours
And
c) GSL medicines can be sold when the responsible pharmacist is absent

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12
Q

Which of the following statements about responsible pharmacists are TRUE?

a) They must display a notice stating their name, registration number and that they are the responsible pharmacist
b) they must keep a record of their absence from the pharmacy
c) they can be the responsible pharmacist for more than one pharmacy at a time

A

a) they must display a notice stating their name, registration number and that they are the responsible pharmacist
And b) they must keep a record of their absence from the pharmacy

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about the responsible pharmacists are TRUE?

a) the responsible pharmacist can only be absent if the pharmacy can continue to run safely and effectively
b) it is a legal requirement to record to record to record why the responsible pharmacist is absent
c) There can be more than one responsible for a pharmacy at any one time

A

a) the responsible pharmacist can only be absent if the pharmacy can continue to run safely and effectively

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14
Q

Which of the following statements about responsible pharmacists are true?

a) The responsible pharmacist must display their GPhC registration certificate
b) Records of responsible pharmacists must be kept for 2 years
c) The law requires the responsible pharmacist to establish (if not already established) maintain and review pharmacy procedures

A

c) The law requires the responsible pharmacist to establish (if not already established) maintain and review pharmacy procedures

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15
Q

Which of the following statements about registratered pharmacies are TRUE?

a) The title of pharmacy can only be used by a registered pharmacy or hospital/health centre
b) The registering body for pharmacies is the GPhC
c) A pharmacist running a drug store can use the title pharmaceutical chemist in the name of the business

A

a) The title of pharmacy can only be used by a registered pharmacy or hospital/health centre
And b) the registering body for pharmacis is the GPhC

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16
Q

Which of the following statements about responsible pharmacists are TRUE?

a) EU qualified pharmacists are allowed to be the responsible pharmacist for a newly registered pharmacy
b) The responsible pharmacist can be absent for a maximum of 2 hours
c) GSL medicines can be sold when the responsible pharmacist is absent

A

All are true.

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17
Q

You agree to make an emergency supply of a POM at the request of a patient. Which of the following conditions have to be met?

a) An entry must be made in the POM register
b) The patient should give their name and address
c) the patient should give the name and address of the pharmacy which supplied the patient last

A

a) An entry must be made in the POM register

and b) the patient should give his/her name and address

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18
Q

With respect to an emergency supply of a POM at the request of a doctor which of the following statements are TRUE?

a) The patients must have had the medicines prescribed on a precious occasion
b) The maximum quantity of medicine that can be supplied is 28 days
c) CD 2 cannot be supplied

A

c) CD 2 cannot be supplied

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19
Q

For an emergency supply of a POM at the request of a patient, which of the following conditions must be fulfilled?

a) the pharmacist must interview the patient
b) The patient must have had the medicine prescribed on a previous occasion
c) A prescription must be received within 72 hours of the supply

A

a) the pharmacist must interview the patient

And b) the patient must have had the medicine prescribed in a previous occasion

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20
Q

Which of the following are legally required to be entered into the POM register after the emergency supply of a POM at the request of a doctor has been made?

a) The date of the prescription
b) The date the prescription was received
c) The date on which the medicine was sold or supplied

A

All are legally required

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21
Q

A request for an emergency supply of a POM can be made by which of the following?

a) a dentist
b) a general prescriber
c) a nurse prescriber

A

All can make an emergency supply

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22
Q

Which of the following statements about an emergency supply of a POM at the request of a doctor are TRUE?

a) A prescription must be received within 24 hours
b) a maximum of 30 days medication is normally all that can be supplied
c) the POM cannot be a CD 2

A

c) cannot be a CD 2

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23
Q

Which of the following statements about an emergency supply at the request of an EEA Registered doctor are TRUE?

a) CD 4 and 5 can be requested
b) A prescription must be received within 72 hours
c) A record of the supply should be made in the POM Register

A

All are true

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24
Q

Prescriptions from which of the following EEA prescribers are valid in the U.K.

a) doctors
b) dentists
c) Nurse prescribers

A

All are valid

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25
Q

Which piece of information are legally required to be present on a prescription written in France for dispencing in England?

a) Email address of the prescriber
b) Patients full first name
c) The work address of the prescriber (including the county they work in)

A

All are legally required

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26
Q

Which of the following only alleviates the physical symptoms of anxiety

a) Lorazepam
b) diazepam
c) Propranolol
d) Chloral hydrate

A

c) Propranolol

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27
Q

Warfarin interactions

A 
Enhance anticoagulant effects
NSAIDs
Fluconazole
Miconazole
Statins
Ciprofloxacin 
Erythromicin
Metronidazole
Cranberry Juice

Reduce anticoagulataant effect
Grisofluvin
St Johns Wort
Antiepilectics

Alcohol could do either

28
Q

drugs with a narrow therapeutic index

A 
Digoxin 
Lithium 
Phenytoin
Theophylline
Warfarin
29
Q

What is the maximum day Emergency supply for phenobarbital?

A

5 days

also for schedule 4 and 5 days

30
Q

Terazosin:

a) Constricts smooth muscle
b) is a selective BB
c) increases urinary flow rate
d) may cause an increase in BP
e) is indicated in urinary frequency

A

c) increases urinary flow rate

Terazosin is a selective ALPHA blocker that RELAXES smooth muscle. After first dose causes a rapid REDUCTION in blood pressure may occur. It is indicated in benign prostate hyperplasia because it INCREASES urinary flow rate and improves obstructive symptoms
Also indicated in the management of mild - moderate hypertension

31
Q

Legionnaires disease:

a) is caused by Gram positive concussion
b) is a chronic infectious disease
c) has an incubation period of 2 days to 3 years
d) is characterised by the development of pneumonia
e) may be prevented by vaccination

A

d) its is characterised by the development of pneumonia

Legionnaires disease is an acute respiratory tract infection caused by Gram negative bacillus of the legionella sp.

Incubation period of 2 - 10 days
Attributed to the inhalation of water droplets I.e from AC cooling systems and hit water systems that are contained within the bacteria

Prevention based on the maintenance of AC filters and water systems

32
Q

Which of the following will NOT typically give a regular monthly withdrawal bleed?

a) Ellest-Duet tab
b) Everol Sequi
c) Premique tab
d) Novofem

A

c) Premique tab
Contains an oestrogen and a proestrogen as a combined preparation which is taken continuously through the 28 day cycle

Cyclical HRT where an oestrogen is taken in the first phase of the cycle and an oestrogen/progesterone combination is taken in the second phase of the cycle usually results in a regular withdrawal bleeding towards the end of the progesterone

33
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

a) Oestrogens stimulate endometrial hyperplasia
b) long-term use of combined HRT or oestrogen only HRT is associated with a small increased risk of ovarian cancer
c) Oestrogens are typically given with progesterone in women with an intact uterus
d) Clonidine can be used to relieve the vasomotor symptoms of menopause
e) HRT preparations provide contraceptive cover

A

e) FALSE
HRT does not provide contraceptive cover.

also a woman is considered potentially fertile for 2 years after her last period if she is under 50 and 1 year if she is over 50

34
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?

a) 12 mg Deflazacort =5 mg prednisolone
b) 750 mg dexamethasone = 750 mg betamethasone
c) 10 mg prednisolone = 40 mg hydrocortisone
d) 750 mg betamethasone = 20 mg hydrocortisone
e) 2 mg methyprednisolone = 1 mg prednisolone

A

c) 10 mg prednisolone = 40 mg hydrocortisone

12 mg Deflazacort = (10 mg) prednisolone
(750 mcg) dexamethasone = 750 mg betamethasone
(750 mcg) betamethasone = 20 mg hydrocortisone
2 mg methyprednisolone = (2.5 mg) prednisolone

35
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?

a) Addison’s disease requires a replacement therapy with hydrocortisone and dexamethasone
b) Hydrocortisone is used for long term disease suppression because it has a low mineral corticoid activity
c) Patients being treated with long term corticosteriods should stop treatment prior to surgery
d) immunisation with varicella-zoster is non-essential for non-immune patients taking systemic corticosteriods who have been exposed to chicken pox
e) Acute hypersensitivity reactions may be treated with IV hydrocortisone and adrenaline

A

e) Acute hypersensitivity reactions may be treated with IV hydrocortisone and adrenaline
* ***
a) Addison’s disease requires a replacement therapy with hydrocortisone 20 - 30 mg daily divided doses larger dose in the morning and smaller dose in the evening –> mimicking normal diural rhythm
b) Hydrocortisone has high mineralcorticoid activity, the resulting fluid retention makes it unsuitable for long term disease suppression
c) Patients being treated with long term corticosteriods does not need to stop treatment prior to surgery
d) passive immunisation with varicella-zoster is needed non-immune patients taking systemic corticosteriods who have been exposed to chicken pox

36
Q

The following products contain a local anaesthetic except:

a) Dequacaine
b) Merocaine
c) BurnEze
d) Anthisan
e) Proctosedyl

A

d) Anthisan

an antihistamine

37
Q

Trigger factors for migraine inc. all EXCEPT:

a) use of caffeine
b) Exposure to sunlight
c) Missed meals
d) Lack of sleep
e) air travel

A

d) Lack of sleep

38
Q

Gradual withdrawal of the corticosteriod is NOT required in patients who have:

a) Taken a short course (2 weeks) treatment within one year of stopping long term therapy
b) Been repeatedly prescribed 21 day courses of 30 mg prednisolone daily for acute asthma attacks over the winter period
c) Taken more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for weeks
d) Taken a 4 week course of betamethasone 20 mg once daily
e) Taken a 2 week course of prednisolone 30 mg OD

A

e) Taken a 2 week course of prednisolone 30 mg OD

39
Q

Identify the inappropriate counselling statements, relating to long term steriods.

a) If you experience indigestion stop taking immediately and seek medical advice
b) If you are in contact with anyone with an infectious disease seek medical advice
c) A PIL should be supplied to each patient when dispensing systemic corticosteriods
d) You may need to increase your dose if you have an illness or require surgery
e) Always carry a steroid treatment card

A

a) If you experience indigestion stop taking immediately and seek medical advice

GI disturbances are a common side effect.
BNF states that serious GI effects can occur - no mention of stopping treatment

40
Q

How many weeks before major elective surgery should HRT be stopped?

a) 4 - 6 weeks
b) 6 - 8 weeks
c) 2 - 4 weeks
d) 8 - 10 week

A

a) 4 - 6 weeks

Should only be restarted after full mobilisation

41
Q

Good pharmacy practice guidelines:

a) have been established by the international pharmaceutical federation
b) comply with ISO 9000
c) consist of an audit process
d) relate to pharmaceutical marketing
e) Entail field observation studies

A

a) have been established by the international pharmaceutical federation

42
Q

For which of the of the following must invoices be retained for 2 years?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

b) Sch 3 and e) Sch 5

However NICE advises that invoices for all CDs be retained for 6 years for the purpose of HM revenue and customs

43
Q

For which of the of the following is a requisition necessary?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

a) Sch 2 and b) Sch 3

44
Q

which of the of the following is not repeatable?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

a) Sch 2 and b) Sch 3

45
Q

Which of the of the following can be given on emergency supply?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

b) ONLY phenobarbital for epilepsy by a UK registered prescriber Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

46
Q

Which of the of the following can an EEA or Swiss prescribe, prescribe in the UK?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

47
Q

For which of the of the following does the address of the prescriber have to be in the UK?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

a) Sch 2 and b) Sch 3

48
Q

Which of the of the following is valid for 6 months?

a) Sch 2
b) Sch 3
c) Sch 4 part I
d) Sch 4 part 2
e) Sch 5

A

e) Sch 5

49
Q

Of the following which colours the patients urine?

  • Isoniazid
  • Ethambutol
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Rifampicin
A

Rifampicin

Colour the urine, saliva, and other body secretions ORANGE-RED

50
Q

Which of the following cautionary advisory labels should be included on the dispensing label of Propanolol?

a) Dissolve/mix with water before taking
b) Do not take with iron or indigestion remedies at the same time
c) Do not stop taking except told by the doctor
d) warning avoid alcohol
e) May cause drowsiness. Do not drive or operate machinery

A

c) do not stop taking except told by the doctor

51
Q

Which of the following cautionary advisory labels should be included on the dispensing label of Ispaghula?

a) Dissolve/mix with water before taking
b) Do not take with iron or indigestion remedies at the same time
c) Do not stop taking except told by the doctor
d) warning avoid alcohol
e) May cause drowsiness. Do not drive or operate machinery

A

a) dissolve/mix with water before taking

52
Q

Which of the following cautionary advisory labels should be included on the dispensing label of Tinidazole?

a) Dissolve/mix with water before taking
b) Do not take with iron or indigestion remedies at the same time
c) Do not stop taking except told by the doctor
d) warning avoid alcohol
e) May cause drowsiness. Do not drive or operate machinery

A

d) warning. Avoid alcohol

53
Q

Drugs that patients bring with the. Into the hospital:

a) Remain the patients own property
b) Become the hospitals property
c) Should be detroyed by the pharmacy
d) Should be desytroyed by the nursing staff
e) Should be destroyed by the relatives of the patient

A

a) remain the patients own property and must therefore not be destroyed or otherwise disposed of without the patients agreement

54
Q

Which one of the following is likely to be the major primary cause of degradation of aspirin?

a) Temperature
b) Photolysis
c) pH Changes
d) Oxidation
e) Hydrolysis

A

e) Hydrolysis

55
Q

Which of the following is correct?

a) HRT offers effective contraceptive cover
b) HRT should be stopped for women with a blood pressure of 162/88
c) Unnecessary to stop HRT prior to surgery requiring a general anaesthetic
d) Oestrogens administered transdermally are still subject to first pass metabolism
e) Tibolone is not associated with an increase risk of breast cancer

A

b) HRT should be stopped for women with blood pressure of 162/88

56
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?

a) Adrenal suppression in the neonate following parental exposure is rarely important
b) Betamethasone readily crosses the placenta
c) Systemic corticosteriods in pregnancy do not increase the risk of cleft palate in the foetus
d) Prednisolone appears in small amounts in breast milk
e) Prolonged course of systemic steriods do not cause fetal growth restriction

A

e) Prolonged course of systemic steriods do not cause fetal growth restriction

57
Q 
which of the following is associated with greater risk of hypoglycemia? 
A) Gliclazide
b) Glimepiride
c) Glipizide 
d) Glibenclamide
e) Tolbutamide
A

d) Glibenclamide

58
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?

a) Patients considered at risk of osteoporosis should ensure they have an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D
b) Desmopressin can be used to treat diabetes mellitus
c) HRT is first line for post menopausal osteoporosis
d) Bisphosponates must be taken after food
e) Prophylaxis for osteoporosis is not necessary for patients taking prednisolone 7.5 mg daily for 6 months

A

a) Patients considered at risk of osteoporosis should ensure they have an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D
*******
b) Desmopressin can be used to treat diabetes INSIPIDUS
c) HRT is AN OPTION for post menopausal osteoporosis WHEN OTHER THERAPIES ARE CONTRAINDICATED OR NOT TOLERATED
d) Bisphosponates must be taken 30 mins BEFORE food
e) Prophylaxis for osteoporosis IS necessary for patients taking prednisolone 7.5 mg daily for 6 months
(patients on oral corticosteriods for 3 months or more should be assessed for the need of prophylactic treatment)

59
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

a) Evorel is indicated for patients with a uterus
b) Tibolone increases the risk of breast cancer more than combined HRT
c) HRT should be discontinued 4 - 6 weeks prior to major surgery
d) For most women less than 60, benefits of HRT outweigh the risk
e) Raloxifene does not reduce vasomotor symptoms of menopause

A

b) Tibolone doesn’t increase the risk of breast cancer but to a lesser extent than combined HRT

60
Q

Which of the following is not a cephalosporin?

a) Ceftriaxome
b) Cefaloxome
d) Cefuroxime

A

b) Cefaloxome

61
Q

All the following products used in the treatment of glaucoma are applied topically EXCEPT

a) Xalatan
b) Diamox
c) Trusopt
d) Trimoptol
e) Betaopic

A

B) Diamox

Contains acetazolamide a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor administered orally or by the perinatal route

62
Q

Mrs G has developed a sore mouth over the past 24 hours. On examination the inside of her cheeks and tongue look red and raw and the doctor asks for your opinion. You suspect the newly started Symbicort 400/12 Turbohaler (1 Puff BD) may habe precipitated this condition.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment for Mrs G?
a) Co-Amoxiclav 625mg TDS
b) Difflam (benzydamine hydrochloride) 15 ml ODS
c) Fluconazole 50 mg OD
d) Itraconazole 100 mg BD
e) Nystatin (100,000 units/ml) 1 ml QDS

A

e) Nystatin
Mrs G has oral thrush precipitated by her newly prescribed Symbicort, which contains budesonide. Initially treatment should be started with nystatin topically before using fluconazole systemically

63
Q

Which of the following instructions would you give regarding symbicort?

a) Inhale quickly and deeply
b) Inhale quickly and shallowly
c) Inhale slowly and deeply
d) Inhale slowly and gently
e) Offer Mrs G a spacer

A

a) Inhale quickly and deeply

Symbicort is a dry powder inhaler and should be inhaled quickly and deeply to ensure adequate delivery to the lungs

64
Q

Mrs G asks how she can avoid developing a sore mouth in the future. Which of the following would you advise Mrs G to do when using Symbicort in order to prevent this complication?

a) Hold breath for 10 seconds
b) Only use when wheezy
c) Rinse mouth after use
d) Use a spacer
e) None of the above; the condition cannot be prevented

A

c) Rinse mouth after use

Oral thrush can be prevented by rinsing the mouth after using steroid containing inhalers

65
Q

Which of the following medicines must NOT be crushed or dispersed to go down a nasogastric tube?

a) Chemydur 60XL (isosorbide mononitrate)
b) Clopidogrel 75 mg tablets
c) Paracetamol 500 mg dispersible tablets
d) Ramipril 2.5 mg tablets
e) simvastatin 40 mg tablets

A

a) Chemydur 60XL (isosorbide mononitrate)

A modified release formulation should not be crushed or dispersed as this can cause dose dumping.

The other medicines listed as available as more suitable formulations but can also be crushed and/or dispersed if needed. In practice it is always advisable to check a reliable resource

66
Q

Before dispensing clozapine you decide to check Mr F’s blood results.
Which of the following levels do you need to ensure are in range?
a) Phosphate levels
b) Potassium levels
c) Red blood cells count
d) sodium levels
e) White cell count

A

e) White cell count

Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, neutropenia and depleted white blood cells. It is imperative that Mr F’’s white cell count is in range during therapy

67
Q

Which of the following advice is the most appropriate to tell a patient in relation to drinking alcohol?

a) it may make clozapine more effective
b) It may make clozapine less effective
c) It may increase the likeihood of drowsiness
d) It may make you more alert
e) Do not drink while taking clozapine =

A

c) It may increase the likelihood of drowsiness.

Alcohol can cause sedation, which may compound any sedation caused by clozapine.
Whilst its ideal that patients with mental health conditions do not drink, this is not always achieveable and the patient should be supported in making in formal decisions and what could happen if they do drink.

Pharmacy Prep (25 decks)

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