Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacy Prep > Literally Everything part 2 > Flashcards

Literally Everything part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True of False

Fentanyl patches should only be used in opioid tolerant patient

A

TRUE

Not suitable for acute pain or in patients whose analgesic requirements are changing rapidly
Risk of fatal respiratory depression in opioid naive patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False

Buprenorphine is only licensed as an adjunct in the treatment of opioid dependence

A

False

Licensed for pre-medication | intraoperative analgesia | and moderate to severe pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACEi and diabetes

A

May have a specific role in the management of diabetic nephropathy

Therefore ACEi are particularly indicated for hypertension in Type 1 diabetes with nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You receive a bottle of Methadose 10 mg/ml. The prescription reads 20 ml Methadone daily.
Using a conical measure you pour out 20 mls of Methadose.
Why is this wrong?

A

Methadose is a concentrate and contains 10 mg/ml of methadone
Therefore needs to be diluted with Methadose diluent before dispensing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Amitriptyline for post herpic neuralgia counselling points

A

Take at night

Side effects: Drowsiness | Dry mouth | Blurred vision | Constipation | urinary retention | sweating

Don’t stop taking as side effects decrease after some time

Alcohol increases sedative effect

Not licensed so not mentioned in the PIL

If it doesn’t relieve pain in 1 week see GP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

70 year old man
Aciclovir 800 mg tabs
1 tablet 5 times a day for 7 days

Has a very painful rash.

Name the condition

A

Post herpetic neuralgia

Peripheral nerve damage following acute herpes zoster infection => shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Care for a feverish child

A 
Encourage fluid 
Only give food if they want it
Watch out for:
- dry mouth
- no tears
- sunken eyes
(Signs of dehydration)

Check on child at night from time to time
Avoid too many clothes
Keep them out of school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a fever in children <5?

A

Temperature 38*C or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Piperazine

Indication

A

Used to treat threadworms

Does not kill the worms directly, paralyses and dislodges them to be passed out in the stools

In order to ensure complete removal come contain senna

For 3 months +

Avoid in pregnancy

Children should take OM. Adults ON.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mebendazole

A

Treatment of threadworms

Stops the worms from absorbing glucose therefore kills the worms.

For 2 years +

Avoid in pregnancy

Single tablet/5 ml spoonful

Repeated after 14 days

Side effects: abdominal pain | diarrhoea | rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Threadworms treatment counselling points

A

Recommend for all family members as it is highly contagious.

Dose repeated after 14 days to ensure any eggs that have matured since first dose are eradicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Personal prevention for Tapeworm

A

Wear close fitting underwear at night and change them every morning in the bath/shower
Wear cotton gloves at night to avoid collecting the eggs when scratching
Have a bath/shower every morning and wash around the anus to remove any eggs laid by the worm at night
Don’t bite or suck on nails
Don’t share towels
Wash between the nails in the morning and after using the toilet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Environmental prevention of threadworms

A

Eggs are highly contagious and can survive several weeks outside the body

Therefore vacuum regularly | wet dust | wash toys | change and wash clothes daily | change and wash bed linen and towels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal sodium levels

A

142 mm/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal potassium levels

A

4.5 mm/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal HCO3- levels

A

26 mm/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal chloride levels

A

103 mm/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal calcium levels

A

2.5 mm/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Valproate and lamotrigine

A

INTERACTION

Valproate increases plasma concentration of lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment options for IBS

A 
No cure
Increase dietary fibre
Whole meal bread/cereal
Antispasmodics
Antimuscarinics 
Muscle Relaxants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bismuth subscalicylate

A

Anti-diarrhoeal agents

Slower acting than loperamide but still effective at reducing the incidence of diarrhoea

Not be given to children < 12 –> risk of Reye’s syndrome

30 ml every 30 - 60 minutes if required, up to a max of 8 doses in 24 hours

Few s/e but can cause black stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4 examples of when a patients insulin requirements may increase

A

During infections | stress | accidental or surgical trauma | during puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sulphonylureas can cause hypersensitivity reactions. When would such a reaction typically happen?

A

In the first 6 - 8 weeks of therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Intermediate insulin
onset
peak
Doa

A

Onset 1 - 2 hours
Peak 4 - 12 hours
DOA 16 - 42 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sinusitis

A

Often accompany a cold

Pain behind the eyes
- particularly when bending

Nasal congestion and catarrh

Sore eyes and tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Paracetamol dose child

4 - 5

A

240 mg
Every 4 - 6 hrs
Max 4 doses/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Beta blockers toxicity

A

Symptoms: Lightheadedness, dizziness, bradycardia, hypotension

Treatment:

Adequate ventilation

Iv atropine( for bradycardia), if unresponsive inj glucagon in 5% glucose, if glucagon not available then iv isoprenalin

Cardiac pacemaker might be used to increase heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Symptoms: drowsiness, ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, occasionally respiratory depression and coma

Treatment:
Activated Charcoal (within 1 hour if patient awake and airway protected)
Flumazenil (particularly in patients with respiratory disorders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Alcohol intoxication

A

Symptoms:
Ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, drowsiness, acidosis, hypotension and coma

Rx:
Aspiration of vomit is hazard, measures to reduce its risk
Supportive management, Maintain clear airway
Glucose given if hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Activated charcoal repeated doses are used for overdosage of which drugs

A 
Carbamazepine
Dapsone
Phenobarbital
Quinine
Theophylline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Charcoal should not be used for poisoning of which drugs

A 
Petroleum distillates
Corrosive substances
Alcohol
Malathion
Cyanides
Metal salts ( e.g lithium and iron)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hemodialysis is required for toxicity of which drugs

A 
Severely poisoned with any drug
Ethylene glycol
Lithium
Methanol
Phenobarbital 
Salicylates (alkalinisation of urine is also done)
Sodium valproate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Paracetamol dose for a child

6 -7

A

240 - 250 mg
Every 4 - 6 hrs
Max 4 doses/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Paracetamol dose for a neonate

28 - 32 weeks (corrected gestational age)

A

20mg/kg for 1 dose then 10 - 15 mg/kg every 8 - 12 hours prn
Max 30 mg/kg/day in divided doses

Note: Oral is unlicensed in < 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Symptoms of Iron Poisoning

A 
nausea
Vomiting 
Abdominal pain
Diarrohoea
Haematemesis 
Rectal bleeding
Hypotention 
Hepatocellular necrosis

LATER – severe acidosis
Coma, shock, metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Digoxin Monitoring Requirements

A

Serum electrolytes (esp. Potassium)

as the possibility of digitalis toxicity is made worse by hypokalaemia

and RENAL FUNCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Warfarin Monitoring requirements

A

INR and Renal Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Warfarin Counselling points

A

Take at the same time each day
Avoid major dietary changes (esp. involving salads and vegetables as it can affect the anticoagulant effect.)
Report any signs of bleeding or spontaneous bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Referral Criteria for Constipation

A

< 2 years
Pregnant
Tried treatment with no success after 5 -7 days
Large amount of blood in stools
Sudden changes in bowel habits with no obvious cause
Frail or elderly
Repeated use of laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Management/suppression of Nausea and vomiting with cytotoxic drugs

A

Acute (N&V within 24 hrs)
- 5HT receptor antagonist may be of benefit + dexamethasone for someone with high risk emetics

Delayed (N&V > 24 hrs after)
- dexamethasone given by mouth either alone or with metoclopramide

Anticipatory (N&V prior to subsequent doses)
- Lorazepam helpful for amnesiac/sedative and anxiolytic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Treatment of Highly active relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis not recommended for patients with known risk of CV event she and why?

A

Fingolimod
- Known to cause transient bradycardia and heart block after first dose

Not recommended in certain patient groups who are high risk for cv event unless anticipated benefits outweigh the potential risk

Require cardiologist advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Common side effects exhibited by most cytotoxic drugs

A 
Oral mucositis
Tumour lysis syndrome 
Hyperuricaemia
Bone marrow suppression
Alopecia
Thromboembolism 
Nausea and vomiting

Remember these do not occur at the time of administration but days or weeks later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Management/ suppression of Oral Mucositis with cytotoxic drugs

A

REMEMBER PREVENTION IS MORE EFFECTIVE THAN TREATMENT

Good oral hygiene
- keep mouth clean and moist helps prevent mucositis

For 6 month +
- brushing teeth with a small soft brush and fluoride toothpaste 2 - 3 times a day

For < 6 months
- Oral sponge moistened with water or diluted anti-microbial solution (chlorohexidine)

Mucositis can be very painful and may require opioid analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment of cytotoxic induced urothedial toxicity

A

Mesna
Given by mouth but also IV

Injection can be given orally by placing contents of the ampule into a flavoured drink. Orange juice or cola
- can be stored in the fridge for up to 24 hrs in a sealed container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Signs of urothelial toxicity?

A

Haemorrhage cystitis

  • blood in the urine
  • bladder pain
  • Irritative bladder symptoms

Results from damage to the bladders epithelium and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tacrolimus and grapefruit juice

A

INTERACTION

grapefruit juice is reported to increase the blood level of tacrolimus and should be avoided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Monitoring and tests for patients on Tacrolimus?

A

Initial post transplant/on a routine basis:
BP | ECG | Neurological | Visual status | Fasting blood glucose | Potassium | LFTs | renal | Haematology parameters | coagulation values | plasma protein

After initial dosing:
FBC regularly, doses adjusted accordingly

Trough concentration should be monitored closely especially during bouts of diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How should oral Tacrolimus capsules be taken?

A
  • Administration in 2 divided doses (morning and evening)
  • Taken immediately following removal from the blister
  • Swallow whole with water
  • On an empty stomach 1hr before food or 2 - 3 hrs after food
  • Can also be given via nasogastric tubing emptying capsule in water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the active ingredient in:

BurnEze

A

Benzocaine

50
Q

Antibacterial considered safe for treatment of UTI in pregnancy

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Nitrofurantoin –> Avoid at term

51
Q

Which patients are more likely to be allergic to penicillins?

A

Patients with a history of atopic allergy
- asthma | eczema | hay fever

N|B: individuals with a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, or rash immediately after penicillin administration are at risk of immediate hypersensitivity to a penicillin and these individuals should not receive a penicillin

52
Q

Jaundice Symptoms

A 
Yellowing of skin
Yellowing of whites of eyes
Itchy skin
Pale stools
Dark urine
odor heavy stools
53
Q

What is the chance a penicillin allergic patient also also being allergic to cefotaxime

A

0.5 - 6.5%

54
Q

What antibiotic is likely to cause a patient with undiagnosed glandular fever to develop a maculopapular rach?

A

Amoxicillin/Ampicillin

Broad spectrum penicillins should not therefore be used for the blind treatment of sore throats

55
Q

Treatment for suspected bacterial meningitis

A

Benzylpenicillin sodium
IV/IM

If penicillin allergic
- Cefotaxime

If also cephalosporin allergic
- Chloramphenicol

56
Q

Antibacterials to avoid during pregnancy

A

Sulfadiazine
Quinolones
- ciprofloxacin

57
Q

Is gentamicin orally active?

A

No
None of the aminoglycosides are absorbed from the gut
Although there is a risk of absorption in inflammatory bowel disease and liver failure

Therefore must be given by injection for systemic infections

58
Q

When should a child with otitis media be treated with antibiotics?

A

In children without systemic features after 72 hrs if no improvement
Earlier if there is deterioration
- if patient is systemically unwell
- if at high risk of serious complications, those on immunosuppressants/cystic fibrosis
- if mastoiditis present
- if under 2 yrs and bilateral

59
Q

Which 2 side effects are most frequently associated with the use of aminoglycosides and are dose related?

A

Ototoxicity (ear)
and Nephrotoxicity

occur mostly in elderly patients and in renal failure

60
Q

Oral Tacrolimus prescription requirements

A

Must be prescribed by brand ONLY

switching is associated with reports of toxicity and graft rejection

61
Q

A patient is given tacrolimus oral capsules for prophylaxis of graft rejection.

The patient wants to know how long they will be taking this medication for?

A

No limit to the duration of oral therapy can be given.

This would need to be a discussion between the patient and specialist should the request to cease medication be made

62
Q

Treatment of non-complicated lower UTI in women

A

Nitrofurantoin MR 100 mg BD for 3 days

Alternative:
- Amoxicillin/ampicillin or oral cephalosporin for 7 days but a short course 3 days is usually adequate

63
Q

If a patient has had a reaction to one penicillin should they be prescribed another?

A

No.

If allergic to one, they will be allergic to all because hypersensitivity is related to the basic penicillin structure

64
Q

What is the advantage of giving co-amoxiclav rather than amoxicillin alone?

A

co-amoxiclav consists of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid.
Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor, by itself it has no significant activity but by inactivating beta-lactamases it makes the combination active against beta-lactamase producing bacteria that are resistant to amoxicillin.

Usually reserved for infections likely or known to be caused by amoxicillin resistant beta lactamases producing strains

65
Q

Treatment cascade for Diabetic patients with metformin intolerance

A

1 - sulfonylurea

hbA1c > 6.5%
2 - +DPP-4 inhibitor or thiazolidinedione

hbA1C > 7.5%
3 - Start insulin

hbA1C > 7.5%
4 Increase insulin dose and intensify regimen overtime

consider pioglitazone if:

  • thiazolidinedion previously had marked glucose lowing effect
  • Blood glucose control inadequate with high dose insulin
66
Q

Alendronic acid counselling points

A

Should be swallowed whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing

Patient should remain sitting or standing for 30 minutes after taking the tablet

Take on an empty stromach 30 minutes before breakfast or any other medicine

Once weekly dosing (on the same day each week)

If they develop dysphagia, new or worsening heart burn, pain on swallowing STOP TAKING

67
Q

If patient develops gastroenteritis whilst taking desmopressin,
Should they continue taking the medication?

A

No

Stop until fluid balance is normal

68
Q

Diabetes stepwise treatment

A
  • Lifestlye interventions -

if HbA1C >6.5% or individually agreed target
1- metformin (active dose titration

HbA1C >6.5
2 + Sulfonylurea (OD if adherence problem

HbA1C > 7.5%
3 + Insulin (Active dose titration) Particularly if the person is markedly hyperglycaemic

HbA1C > 7.5 %
4 Increase insulin dose and intensify regimen overtime

consider pioglitazone if:

  • thiazolidinedion previously had marked glucose lowing effect
  • Blood glucose control inadequate with high dose insulin
69
Q

When is a sulfonyurea first line in diabetes?

A

if metformin is not tolerated or is contraindicated

if a rapid therapeutic response is required because of hyperglycemic symptoms

patient is NOT overweight

70
Q

Possession of a schedule 1 CD…

A

Requires a home office licence.

However pharmacists can handle sch 1 CD such as cannabis in:

  • possession for the purpose of destruction
  • Possession for handing to the police (remember to maintain confidentiality. however is the quantity is so large that the drug could not possibly be used purely personally, it may be in public interest to identify the source)

Also remember that the patient has to give permission for the drug to be removed and destroyed.
If the patient refuses the pharmacist may call the police and under no circumstances can it be handed back to the patient

71
Q

Name the ways in which a person/an organisation lawfully possess CDs

A
  • Home office licence
    enables the possession and supply of CDs in accordance with the terms of the licence (museums)
  • Home office group authority
    enables possession and supply of CDs in accordance with the terms of group authority (paramedics operate under this)
  • Depending on the class of the drug
  • On prescription
72
Q

Why can pharmacists, doctors and dentists possess, supply and procure CDs schedule 2, 3, 4, and 5

A

The 2001 regulations under a general authority

73
Q

Name some Schedule 4 (CD Benz POM or CD Anab POM)

A

Schedule 4 CD Benz POM
- Diazepam | Zopiclone | Sativex (a cannabinoid oral mucosal mouth spray)

Schedule 4 Anab POM
- anabolic and androgenic steriods and growth hormones

74
Q

Name some Schedule 3 CDs

A

CD No Register POMs include

  • Minor stimulant and other drugs
    Buprenorphine | Temazepam | Tramadol | Midazolam | Phenobarbital

less likely to be misused and less harmful if misused than those in Sch 2

75
Q

Name some Schedule 2 CDs

A

Pharmacists have a general authority to posses and supply and obtain

  • Opiates
    diamorphine | morphine | Methadone | oxycodone | pethidine
  • Major stimulants (amfetamines)
    Quinalbarbitone and ketamine
76
Q

Name some Schedule 1 CDs

A

CD Lic POM

Most sch 1 drugs have NO THERAPEUTIC USE

Licence required for their:

  • Production
  • Possession
  • Supply
Include: 
Hallucinogenic drugs (LSD), ecstasy type substances, raw opium and cannabis
77
Q

Roles and Responsibilities of the accountable officer

A
  • Oversight of the monitoring and auditing of the management, prescribing and use of CDs
  • Ensuring that systems are in place for recording concerns and incidents involving CDs and the operating of these systems
  • Attending local intelligence Network meetings
  • Submission of occurrence reports which describe the details of any concerns the organisation has had regarding the management of CDs
  • Appointing an authorised witness for the destruction of CDs
78
Q

Who is the enforcement body for CD offences?

A

The home office via the police

79
Q

patient presents and request treatment for her son who is 8 years old.

He has had the flu for a couple of days and is now complaining of very painful spots in his mouth.

He is taking Carbimazole 10 mg OD but he’s been on it for quite a while and the mother doesn’t think it has anything to do with it.

what do you think?

A

Likely to be caused by the Carbimazole

inform the patient to contact the Dr immediately

80
Q

After how many doses should the aminoglycoside serum concentration be measured?

A

Assuming normal renal function measure after 3 - 4 doses of a multiple daily dosing regimen and after a dose change.
Patients with renal impairment may require earlier and more frequent measurement

81
Q

How long should a patient receive aminoglycosides for?

A

7

82
Q

Which groups of diuretics should not ideally be given with aminoglycosides?

What if unavoidable?

A

Loop diuretics
–> as they are potentially ototoxic

e.g. Furosemide
administration of the aminoglycosides and the diuretics should be separated by as long period as possible

83
Q

Antimalarials poisoning

A

SYMPTOMS:
Arrhythmias and convulsions

Overdosage of quinine, chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine is extremely hazardous
Seek urgent advice from NPIS

84
Q

Calcium channel blocker toxicity

A

Symptoms:
NV, dizziness, agitation, confusion, acidosis and hyperglycaemia

Rx:
Activated charcoal
Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate (if severe)
Atropine (for bradycardia)
Very severe cases, insulina and glucose infusion

85
Q

When should blood samples be taken for patients on a multiple daily dosing regimen of an aminogycoside?

A

1hr after IM or IV (peak)

and just before next dose (trough)

86
Q

What is the recommended treatment for gastro-enteritis?

A

Nothing

Usually self limiting

87
Q

Which side effect of isoniazid can be prevented by giving pyridoxine 10mg/day?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

More likely if there are pre-existing risk factors e.g. Diabetes | alcohol dependence | chronic renal failure | malnutrition | HIV

88
Q

Signs to look out for whilst on long term use of trimethoprim and why?

A

Signs of blood disorders - seek immediate medical attention if develop:
Fever
Sore throat
Rash
Mouth ulcers
Purpura (spontaneous bleeding into the skin)
Unexplained bruising or bleeding

89
Q

What antibiotic is not given to children under 12 and why?

A

Tetracyclines

It deposits in growing bone and teeth by binding to calcium causes stating and occasionally dental hypoplasia

90
Q

Symptoms of Tuberculosis

A 
Fatigue
Malaise
Fever
Weight loss/anorexia 
Failure to thrive
Pyrex is of unknown origin 
Chronic productive cough lasting more than 3 week some. May or may not contain blood
Worsening shortness of breath
91
Q

Patient has been prescribed the following:
- Isoniazide
- Ethambutol
- Pyrazonamide
- Rifampicin
What infection is it for? And what phase of treatment are they in? And what is the duration of treatment?

A

For concurrent use of 4 drugs is the INITIAL PHASE and is designed to reduce the bacterial population as rapidly as possible and prevent the emergence of drug resistant bacteria.

Treatment lasts 2 months

92
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis is recommended for a patient who has sustained a bomb blast injury where a flying piece of metal has penetrated through and out of their leg causing a fracture?

A

Co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime or metronidazole

Stat dose of gentamicin during the initial operation (repeated if septic during subsequent operations)

Continue IV until wound closure OR until no planned return to theatre

Complete a 6 week course of oral co-amoxiclav after conversation from IV antibiotics

93
Q

Which patients MUST have their serum aminoglycoside concentration measured?

A

Should be done for all patients

MUST be done for

  • neonates
  • elderly
  • the obese
  • those with cystic fibrosis

Or if high doses are being given
Or I find there is renal impairment

94
Q

Symptoms of hepatic disorders patients and careers need to be advised to look out for when they are taking isoniazid

A

Persistent nausea, vomiting, fever, malaise, jaundice

Unexplained deterioration during treatment

95
Q

Patient counselling for iron tablets

A
  • you are likely to be on these for a while. They don
    Not provide and immediate fix but you should start to feel better and have more energy over the coming weeks
  • when your iron level is back to normal you will need to continue therapy for about 3 months to replenish your iron stores
  • it might cause diarrhoea or constipation therefore increasing your fluid and fibre and exercise my help
  • your stools are likely to turn black but this is normal
  • best to take after food
96
Q

Should iron tablets be taken before or after food?

A

After

Although best absorbed on an empty stomach they may be taken after food to reduce GI effects

97
Q

4 patient groups who require prophylactic iron to prevent iron deficiency anaemia?

A 
Pregnant women 
After sub/total gastroectomy 
Haemodialysis patients
Low birth weight infants
Menorrhagia 
Poor diet 
Malabsorption
98
Q

Why would the pharmacist be concerned if a patient who had tendinitis last month presented with a prescription for ciprofloxacin?

A

Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone
Tendon da ache - including rupture - has been reported rarely in patients receiving quinolones.

May occurs within 48hrs of starting treatment

Cases have also been reported several months after stopping quinolones

99
Q

Situations when systemic therapy is recommended for skin and nail infections

A

If topical therapy fails
If many areas are affected
If the are of infection is difficult to treat such as the nail and scalp

100
Q

Safe system requirements for cytotoxic medicines

A

Cytotoxic drugs should be given a part of a wider pathway of care co-ordinated by a multiple disciplinary team

Cytotoxic drug should be prescribe drugs dispensed Andy administered only in the context of a written protocol or treatment plan

Injectable cytotoxic drugs should only be dispensed if they are prepared for administration

Oral cytotoxic drugs should be dispensed with clear directions for use

101
Q

Why must pregnancy be excluded in women of child bearing age prior to starting treatment with lenalidomide?

A

Relatesded to thalidomide therefore there is a risk of teratogenesis

Every prescription MUST be accompanied by a completed Prescription Authoristaion Form

Pregnancy to be excluded before, effective contraception for 1 month before, for the duration of the treatment and for 1 month after.
The same applies to men, if their partner isn’t pregnant or not using effective contraception

102
Q

Which medicine for malignant disease have had the side effects of keratitis and ulcerative keratitis reported due to their usage?

A

Cetuximab
Erlotinib
Gefitinib
Panitumumab

103
Q

Metronidazole counselling points

A
  • Do not drink alcohol while taking this medicine and for 2 days after
  • space doses every throughout the day
  • keep taking until the course is finished unless you are told to stop
  • swallow whole, do not break or chew
  • take with a full glass of water
  • no additional precautions required when combined oral contraceptives is used
104
Q

A 3 year old is prescribed
Nirofurantoin suspension 75 mg at night
What USB the indication?

A

UTI Prophylaxis

Probably following hospital administration for a serious UTI

105
Q

State the indication for the following prescription:

- Metronidazole 500 mg BD for 5 days

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

106
Q

Rifampin

Inducer or inhibitor?

A

inducer

107
Q

Should fluconazole be prescribed in pregnancy?

A

Manufacturer advices to avoid
- multiple congenital abnormalities reported with long term high doses

A stat dose of fluconazole for thrush is therefore unlikely to cause any harm, however other preparations acre available and known to be safe

But if a woman has taken a dose of fluconazole before discovering she was pregnant you could reassure her that it would be unlikely to have an effect

108
Q

What’s is Disulfram?

A

Used as Ann adjunct in the treatment of alcohol dependence(under expert supervision)

Gives rise to an extremely unpleasant systemic reaction after the injection of even a small amount of alcohol because it causes the accumulation of acetaldehyde in the body

Symptoms include:
Flushing of the face | throbbing headache | palpitations | tachycardia | nausea | vomiting

109
Q

When is metronidazole given?

A

As an alternative to penicillin where the patient is allergic or the infection isn’t due to beta lactase producing anaerobes

110
Q

Metronidazole and breastfeeding

A

The BNF states the significant amounts of metronidazole enter the breast milk,

Manufacturer advices to avoid large single doses, may give milk a bitter taste

Should not be given unless essential and avoid high dose short course treatment

111
Q

Counselling points for Sporanox oral liquid

A

Sporanox is itraconazole

  • do not take with food
  • swish around the mouth and swallow, do not rinse mouth afterward
  • space doses evenly throughout the days
  • keep taking this medicine until the course is finished unless you are told to stop
  • take this medicine when your stomach is empty. This means a hour before foo or two hours after food
  • Patients should be told how to recognise signs of liver disorder and advise to seek prompt medical attention
    (anorexia | nausea | vomiting | fatigue | abdominal pain | dark urine)
112
Q

Rifampicin and contraception advice for patients

A

Whilst on Rifampicin long-term, the combined oral contraceptive pill will be less effective therefore an additional barrier method will need to be adopted to prevent any unwanted pregnancies.

An IUD is always recommended or progesterone only contraceptives

Since enzyme activity does not return to normal for several weeks after stopping an enzyme inducing drug, appropriate contraceptive measure are required for 4 weeks after stopping

Patches and Vaginal Rings are NOT RECOMMENDED

113
Q

What are the symptoms of vaginal candidiasis?

A
  • vulval itching
  • vulval soreness and irritation
  • pain/discomfort during urination
  • discomfort during coitus
  • vaginal discharge
    ( not always present, the discharge is usually odourless, can be thin and watery or think and white like cottage cheese )
114
Q

Bomb blast victims must receive which accelerated vaccination course if they sustain injuries where the skin has been cut?

And when should they be tested to check their response to the vaccine?

A

Hepatitis B

At 3 months to determine hepB status

115
Q

What are Gentamicins upper and lower limits for peak and trough serum concentrations for an adult patient with endocarditis?

A

Peak: 3 - 5 mg/L (1 hr post dose)
Trough: < 1 mg/L (pre-dose)

116
Q

6 year old treated for primary nocturnal enuresis with Desmopressin 200 mg at bed time.
Why should the child avoid excessive drinking

A

Risk of hyponatraemic convulsions

Fluid overload warning - including during swimming

117
Q

Symptoms of penicillin hypersensitivity

A

Rashes | Anaphylaxis | Death

Allergic reactions to penicillins occur in 1 a 10% of exposed individuals

Anaphylaxis in less than 0.05%

Make sure to check allergy status with every patient that gets an antibiotic prescription

118
Q

What is the recommended dose of cefaclor for a 6 month old child with a severe infection?

A

40 mg/kg in 3 divided doses - max 1 g/day

Or 125 mg TDS

119
Q

Uncomplicated genital chlamydia treatment

A

Doxycycline for 1 week

Single dose of azythromycin

120
Q

When should antiviral treatment be initiated in Herpes zoster infections (shingles)?

A

Within 72 hrs of the onset of the rash and usually continues for 7 - 10 days as it can reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications and reduce viral shedding

Pharmacy Prep (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions