Side Effects Flashcards

1
Q

what should you not use in an asthmatic patient

A

adenosine (use verapamil as alternative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what anti hypertensive is a teratogen

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

side effect of ciclosporin

A

nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can precipitate lithium toxicity

A

dehydration, renal failure, diuretics, ACEi, NSAIDs, metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what can you get with tramadol

A

serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which anti seizure medication can cause erythema multiforme

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which anti psychotic increases the risk of VTE

A

olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SE beta blockers

A

bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what antibiotic should you not have with alcohol

A

metronidazole- causes a dilsurfiram type reaction- head and neck flushing, N&V, sweaty, headache etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin, CCBs, ciclosporin, AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which cardio drug is associated with corneal opacities and optic neuritis

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which abx can cause a tendinopathy

A

cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SE finasteride

A

gynaecomastia and sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what would the ABG show in aspirin OD

A

initial respiratory alkalosis due to stimulation respiratory centre then followed by metabolic acidosis leading to a mixed picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

SE of bisphosphonates

A

oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, increased risk fractures proximal femoral shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what would you give in cellulitis if penicillin allergic

A

clarithro/clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what antibiotics decrease the seizure threshold

A

quinolones- cipro, levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a side effect of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the treatment of active TB

A

first phase 2 months- ethambutol, pyradimide, isoniazid, rifampicin. continuation phase (next 4 months)- rifampicin, isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the treatment for eradication H pylori

A

PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin. or PPI + metronidazole +clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gentamicin, vancomycin

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

any antibiotic

A

C dif colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ACEi

A

hypotension, electrolyte abnormalities, AKI, dry cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

B blockers

A

hypotension, bradycardia, wheeze, worsens acute heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CCB eg diltiazem
hypotension, bradycardia, peripheral oedema, flushing
26
diuretics
hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, AKI
27
heparin
haemorrhage (especially renal failure), heparin induced thrombocytopenia
28
aspirin
haemorrhage, peptic ulcers and gastritis, tinnitus
29
digoxin
N&V, blurred vision, confusion, drowsy, xanthopsia (disturbed yellow/green vision including halo)
30
amiodarone
ILD, thyroid dysfunction, skin greying, corneal deposits
31
lithium
early- tremor, intermed- tired, late- arrhytmia, seizures, coma, renal failure
32
haloperidol
dyskineasia
33
steroids side effects
stomach ulcers, thin skin, edema, right and left heart failure, osteoporosis, infection, diabetes, cushings syndrome
34
fludrocortisone
HTN, Na and H2O retention
35
NSAIDS
no urine (renal failure), systolic dysfunction (heart failure), asthma, indigestion, dyscrasia
36
statin
myalgia, abdominal pain, incr ALT/AST, rhabdomyolysis
37
side effects metformin
GI side effects, lactic acidosis
38
side effects sulfonylureas
hypoglycaemia, incr appetite and weight gain, SIADH, liver dysfunction
39
SE glitazones
weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction (do LFTs), fractures
40
which NSAID is CI in cardio disease
diclofenac
41
what is the most common cause of drug induced angioedema
ACEi
42
what medication can cause a blue vision
viagra - sildenafil
43
which anti TB drug causes peripheral neuropathy
isoniazid
44
contraindications of sildenafil
patient taking nitrates, nicorandil, hypotension, recent stroke or MI
45
which anti diabetes drug is most likely to cause cholestasis
gliclazide
46
interactions amiodarone
decreases wafarin metabolism so incr conc and incr INR. increases digoxin levels
47
SE alpha blockers
postural hypotension, drowsy, SOB, cough
48
if tolerance develops to nitrates what should you do
give another dose isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12
49
SE ARBs
hypotension, hyperkalaemia. (candesartan, losartan)
50
side effects azathioprine
bone marrow depression, N&V, pancreatitis
51
when is metformin CI
when eGFR <30 and use with caution if <45
52
what anti diabetes can you use if CKD
gliclazide
53
what is the main CI for stimulant laxatives (senna, bisacodyl)
colitis/cramps
54
main CI for osmotic laxatives
bloating
55
what laxative can be used in bowel evacuation
sodium picosulfate
56
what can aminophylline cause at toxic levels
tachycardia and fatal tachyarrhthmyias
57
what do loop and thiazide diuretics do to K
lower it
58
when should diuretics be prescribed
not at nighttime`
59
when should ACEi be prescribed (lisinopril)
at night time to reduce the daytime postural hypotension
60
which anti emetic should be used with caution in Parkinsons patients
metoclopramide (dopamine antagonist). domperidone is a good choice as it does not cross the BBB
61
can simvastatin be taken in pregnancy
no- contraindicated
62
which antibiotic is used in C dif
metronidazole
63
when is gradual withdrawal of steroids necessary
received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week received more than 3 weeks treatment recently received repeated courses
64
which diuretic can cause gout
loop eg furosemide
65
what anti emetic can cause fluid retention and so shouldnt be used in heart failure
cyclizine
66
which anti emetic should be avoided in parkinsons
metoclopramide
67
what does hypokalaemia do to the effect of digoxin
augments it as it competes with K at Na/K ATPase and limits Ca in.
68
SE amiodarone
ILD, hyper and hypothyroidism, corneal deposits, skin greying
69
management INR > 8
vitamin K by slow IV injection
70
management INR 6-8 and no bleeding
withold 1-2 doses warfarin and restart at a lower dose
71
causes SIADH
malignancy (SCLC, prostate, pancreas), neuro (stroke, SAH, subdural, meningitis, abscess), drugs, infections (pneumonia, TB), porphyrias, PEEP
72
drugs causing SIADH
SSRIs, TCAs, cabamazepine, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, sulhponylureas
73
which types of antibiotics are associated with benign intracranial hypertension
tetracyclines/doxycycline
74
side effect pizotifen
weight gain
75
when is metformin CI
significant renal impairment or acutely unwell
76
what can cause urinary retention
morphine / opioids. anticholinergics (anti psychotics, anti depressants), anaesthetics, alpha agonists, benzos, NSAIDs, CCBs, anti histamines, alcohol
77
can metoclopramide cause confusion
yes
78
what can HRT do to BP
increase it- Na and water retention
79
drugs causing increase in BP
prednisolone, NSAIDs, venlafaxine
80
what is prochlorperazine
dopamine antagonist (anti psychotic)- can worsen parkinsons features
81
what drugs can cause constipation
codeine, ferrous sulfate
82
when is emergency contraception not required (if on regular medication and missed pills)
if taken 7 consecutive days worth of the pill then don't need emeregency contraception, but need to use alternative for the next7 days.
83
what CCBs should be avoided in heart failure patient
diltiazem, verapamil, nifedipine
84
what is the conversion of morphine PO to IM,SC,IV
10mg to 5mg
85
if miss one pill anywhere in the pack what should be done
just take the pill as soon as know and continue as normal. should be protected from pregnancy
86
what is eplerenone
K sparing diuretic
87
what anti depressant causes abnormal dreams
mirtazapine
88
oral abx for scarlet fever
phenoxymethylpenicillin
89
what should you give in oculogyric crisis
procyclidine
90
what dose is required for pred in exac COPD
30mg
91
what HRT can be used if don't want withdrawal bleeding
Evorel conti - contains estradiol and norethisterone, continuous so no withdrawal bleed
92
what is CI in PVD
B blockers as cause vasoconstriction
93
common triggers of psoriasis
b blockers, lithium, NSAIDs, ACEi
94
when should patient stop taking bisphosphonates
if start developing oesophageal reactions
95
drugs causing hyperprolactinaemia
phenothiazines eg prochloperazine, metoclopramide, domperidone
96
what can bendro do to Calcium
hypercalcaemia
97
what can contribute to lithium toxicity
NSAIDs causing renal impairment
98
side effects long term use of PPIs
osteoporosis, fractures and can mask gastric cancer
99
when are triptans CI
in cardiac disease- IHD
100
what illicit drugs can increase chance of VTE
opioids- heroin