Side Effects Flashcards

1
Q

what should you not use in an asthmatic patient

A

adenosine (use verapamil as alternative)

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2
Q

what anti hypertensive is a teratogen

A

ACEi

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3
Q

side effect of ciclosporin

A

nephrotoxicity

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4
Q

what can precipitate lithium toxicity

A

dehydration, renal failure, diuretics, ACEi, NSAIDs, metronidazole

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5
Q

what can you get with tramadol

A

serotonin syndrome

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6
Q

which anti seizure medication can cause erythema multiforme

A

carbamazepine

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7
Q

which anti psychotic increases the risk of VTE

A

olanzapine

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8
Q

SE beta blockers

A

bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbance

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9
Q

what antibiotic should you not have with alcohol

A

metronidazole- causes a dilsurfiram type reaction- head and neck flushing, N&V, sweaty, headache etc

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10
Q

what drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin, CCBs, ciclosporin, AML

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11
Q

which cardio drug is associated with corneal opacities and optic neuritis

A

amiodarone

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12
Q

which abx can cause a tendinopathy

A

cipro

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13
Q

SE finasteride

A

gynaecomastia and sexual dysfunction

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14
Q

what would the ABG show in aspirin OD

A

initial respiratory alkalosis due to stimulation respiratory centre then followed by metabolic acidosis leading to a mixed picture

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15
Q

SE of bisphosphonates

A

oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, increased risk fractures proximal femoral shaft

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16
Q

what would you give in cellulitis if penicillin allergic

A

clarithro/clindamycin

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17
Q

what antibiotics decrease the seizure threshold

A

quinolones- cipro, levofloxacin

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18
Q

what is a side effect of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis

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19
Q

what is the treatment of active TB

A

first phase 2 months- ethambutol, pyradimide, isoniazid, rifampicin. continuation phase (next 4 months)- rifampicin, isoniazid

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20
Q

what is the treatment for eradication H pylori

A

PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin. or PPI + metronidazole +clarithromycin

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21
Q

gentamicin, vancomycin

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

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22
Q

any antibiotic

A

C dif colitis

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23
Q

ACEi

A

hypotension, electrolyte abnormalities, AKI, dry cough

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24
Q

B blockers

A

hypotension, bradycardia, wheeze, worsens acute heart failure

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25
Q

CCB eg diltiazem

A

hypotension, bradycardia, peripheral oedema, flushing

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26
Q

diuretics

A

hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, AKI

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27
Q

heparin

A

haemorrhage (especially renal failure), heparin induced thrombocytopenia

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28
Q

aspirin

A

haemorrhage, peptic ulcers and gastritis, tinnitus

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29
Q

digoxin

A

N&V, blurred vision, confusion, drowsy, xanthopsia (disturbed yellow/green vision including halo)

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30
Q

amiodarone

A

ILD, thyroid dysfunction, skin greying, corneal deposits

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31
Q

lithium

A

early- tremor, intermed- tired, late- arrhytmia, seizures, coma, renal failure

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32
Q

haloperidol

A

dyskineasia

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33
Q

steroids side effects

A

stomach ulcers, thin skin, edema, right and left heart failure, osteoporosis, infection, diabetes, cushings syndrome

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34
Q

fludrocortisone

A

HTN, Na and H2O retention

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35
Q

NSAIDS

A

no urine (renal failure), systolic dysfunction (heart failure), asthma, indigestion, dyscrasia

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36
Q

statin

A

myalgia, abdominal pain, incr ALT/AST, rhabdomyolysis

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37
Q

side effects metformin

A

GI side effects, lactic acidosis

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38
Q

side effects sulfonylureas

A

hypoglycaemia, incr appetite and weight gain, SIADH, liver dysfunction

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39
Q

SE glitazones

A

weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction (do LFTs), fractures

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40
Q

which NSAID is CI in cardio disease

A

diclofenac

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41
Q

what is the most common cause of drug induced angioedema

A

ACEi

42
Q

what medication can cause a blue vision

A

viagra - sildenafil

43
Q

which anti TB drug causes peripheral neuropathy

A

isoniazid

44
Q

contraindications of sildenafil

A

patient taking nitrates, nicorandil, hypotension, recent stroke or MI

45
Q

which anti diabetes drug is most likely to cause cholestasis

A

gliclazide

46
Q

interactions amiodarone

A

decreases wafarin metabolism so incr conc and incr INR. increases digoxin levels

47
Q

SE alpha blockers

A

postural hypotension, drowsy, SOB, cough

48
Q

if tolerance develops to nitrates what should you do

A

give another dose isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12

49
Q

SE ARBs

A

hypotension, hyperkalaemia. (candesartan, losartan)

50
Q

side effects azathioprine

A

bone marrow depression, N&V, pancreatitis

51
Q

when is metformin CI

A

when eGFR <30 and use with caution if <45

52
Q

what anti diabetes can you use if CKD

A

gliclazide

53
Q

what is the main CI for stimulant laxatives (senna, bisacodyl)

A

colitis/cramps

54
Q

main CI for osmotic laxatives

A

bloating

55
Q

what laxative can be used in bowel evacuation

A

sodium picosulfate

56
Q

what can aminophylline cause at toxic levels

A

tachycardia and fatal tachyarrhthmyias

57
Q

what do loop and thiazide diuretics do to K

A

lower it

58
Q

when should diuretics be prescribed

A

not at nighttime`

59
Q

when should ACEi be prescribed (lisinopril)

A

at night time to reduce the daytime postural hypotension

60
Q

which anti emetic should be used with caution in Parkinsons patients

A

metoclopramide (dopamine antagonist). domperidone is a good choice as it does not cross the BBB

61
Q

can simvastatin be taken in pregnancy

A

no- contraindicated

62
Q

which antibiotic is used in C dif

A

metronidazole

63
Q

when is gradual withdrawal of steroids necessary

A

received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week
received more than 3 weeks treatment
recently received repeated courses

64
Q

which diuretic can cause gout

A

loop eg furosemide

65
Q

what anti emetic can cause fluid retention and so shouldnt be used in heart failure

A

cyclizine

66
Q

which anti emetic should be avoided in parkinsons

A

metoclopramide

67
Q

what does hypokalaemia do to the effect of digoxin

A

augments it as it competes with K at Na/K ATPase and limits Ca in.

68
Q

SE amiodarone

A

ILD, hyper and hypothyroidism, corneal deposits, skin greying

69
Q

management INR > 8

A

vitamin K by slow IV injection

70
Q

management INR 6-8 and no bleeding

A

withold 1-2 doses warfarin and restart at a lower dose

71
Q

causes SIADH

A

malignancy (SCLC, prostate, pancreas), neuro (stroke, SAH, subdural, meningitis, abscess), drugs, infections (pneumonia, TB), porphyrias, PEEP

72
Q

drugs causing SIADH

A

SSRIs, TCAs, cabamazepine, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, sulhponylureas

73
Q

which types of antibiotics are associated with benign intracranial hypertension

A

tetracyclines/doxycycline

74
Q

side effect pizotifen

A

weight gain

75
Q

when is metformin CI

A

significant renal impairment or acutely unwell

76
Q

what can cause urinary retention

A

morphine / opioids. anticholinergics (anti psychotics, anti depressants), anaesthetics, alpha agonists, benzos, NSAIDs, CCBs, anti histamines, alcohol

77
Q

can metoclopramide cause confusion

A

yes

78
Q

what can HRT do to BP

A

increase it- Na and water retention

79
Q

drugs causing increase in BP

A

prednisolone, NSAIDs, venlafaxine

80
Q

what is prochlorperazine

A

dopamine antagonist (anti psychotic)- can worsen parkinsons features

81
Q

what drugs can cause constipation

A

codeine, ferrous sulfate

82
Q

when is emergency contraception not required (if on regular medication and missed pills)

A

if taken 7 consecutive days worth of the pill then don’t need emeregency contraception, but need to use alternative for the next7 days.

83
Q

what CCBs should be avoided in heart failure patient

A

diltiazem, verapamil, nifedipine

84
Q

what is the conversion of morphine PO to IM,SC,IV

A

10mg to 5mg

85
Q

if miss one pill anywhere in the pack what should be done

A

just take the pill as soon as know and continue as normal. should be protected from pregnancy

86
Q

what is eplerenone

A

K sparing diuretic

87
Q

what anti depressant causes abnormal dreams

A

mirtazapine

88
Q

oral abx for scarlet fever

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

89
Q

what should you give in oculogyric crisis

A

procyclidine

90
Q

what dose is required for pred in exac COPD

A

30mg

91
Q

what HRT can be used if don’t want withdrawal bleeding

A

Evorel conti - contains estradiol and norethisterone, continuous so no withdrawal bleed

92
Q

what is CI in PVD

A

B blockers as cause vasoconstriction

93
Q

common triggers of psoriasis

A

b blockers, lithium, NSAIDs, ACEi

94
Q

when should patient stop taking bisphosphonates

A

if start developing oesophageal reactions

95
Q

drugs causing hyperprolactinaemia

A

phenothiazines eg prochloperazine, metoclopramide, domperidone

96
Q

what can bendro do to Calcium

A

hypercalcaemia

97
Q

what can contribute to lithium toxicity

A

NSAIDs causing renal impairment

98
Q

side effects long term use of PPIs

A

osteoporosis, fractures and can mask gastric cancer

99
Q

when are triptans CI

A

in cardiac disease- IHD

100
Q

what illicit drugs can increase chance of VTE

A

opioids- heroin