Shokry exam 2 Flashcards
(476 cards)
1
Q
How do anti parasitic drugs inhibit the neuromuscular system?
A
- block nicotinic receptors at NMJ so ACh can’t bind
- depolarizing NM blockers by overstimulation
- bind to acetylcholinesterases to block them
- activate LAT1 and LAT2 at NMJ of nematodes
2
Q
How do anti parasitic drugs inhibit the neuronal system?
A
bind to GABA for flaccid paralysis and to inhibit egg production
3
Q
How long is the coccidia lifecycle?
A
1 week
4
Q
When are preventatives used?
A
first 4-5 days of sexual schizogomy
5
Q
When are treatments used?
A
last 6th or 7th day the oocyst is shed
6
Q
What is amprolium used for?
A
prevent coccidia
7
Q
When is decoquinate used for?
A
prevent coccidia
8
Q
Which drug is approved for coccidia in laying hens?
A
amprolium
9
Q
What are the ionophores?
A
monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin, narasin
10
Q
What are ionophores used for?
A
to prevent coccidia, also growth promoters as feed additives
11
Q
Which ionophore is approved in cattle, chickens and goats?
A
salinomycin
12
Q
What is the MOA of sulfonamides?
A
inhibit PABA preventing formation of folic acid that parasite needs to live
13
Q
What are sulfonamides used for?
A
prevent AND treat coccidia
14
Q
When do sulfonamides act?
A
all 7 days of the life cycle
15
Q
When are Robenidine, Nicarbazin, Arsanilic acid, and tetracyclines used?
A
as a feed additive for growth promotion and prevent coccidia
16
Q
What is the MOA of metronidazole?
A
affects DNA synthesis of the parasite
17
Q
What is the DOC for giardia? (meaning least effective)
A
metronidazole
18
Q
What precautions must be taken when using metronidazole?
A
NOT preggos, NOT food animals
19
Q
What are the benzimidazoles?
A
albendazole, fenbendazole
20
Q
What is the MOA of benzimidazoles?
A
deprive parasite of energy
21
Q
When are benzimidazoles used? When are the contraindicated?
A
for giardia as a last resort due to resistance, NOT in preggos
22
Q
What is the DOC for amebiasis?
A
metronidazole
23
Q
What drug can be used in preggos for amebiasis?
A
furazolidone
24
Q
What drugs are used to treat balantidiasis?
A
metronidazole, tetracycline
25
Which drug can treat trichomoniasis in horses and dogs?
metronidazole
26
What is cloquinol used for?
diarrhea in horses due to trichomonas
27
What is carnidazole used for?
pigeon canker in pigeons not intended for human consumption - trichomonad columbae
28
What is the DOC for toxoplasmosis because it is MOST effective?
clindamycin
29
What is the MOA of clindamycin?
inhibits protein synthesis via 50S ribosomal subunit - bacteriostatic
30
What are the organic arsenicals?
carbarsone, roxarsone, nitarsone (histostat)
31
What are organic arsenicals used for?
treat histomonas meleagridis in birds
32
What is imidocarb used for?
treatment of babesia in horses
33
What is oxytetracycline used for?
DOC to treat anaplasmosis
34
What is the MOA of oxytetracycline?
inhibits 30S ribosome subunit, bacteriostatic
35
What are nitazoxanide and ponazuril used for?
treatment of sarcocystis neurons in horses
36
What are paromomycin, azithromycin and nitazoxanide used for?
treatment of cryptosporidiosis
37
What is the MOA of clorsulon?
deprive parasite of energy
38
What is clorsulon used for?
treatment of facial hepatica in cattle
39
What is the MOA of albendazole?
binds to tubulin to decrease energy, inhibits formulin reductase
40
What life stages is albendazole active against?
adults only
41
What is albendazole used for?
broad spectrum of parasites in GI tract and lung of cattle and horses -NO preggos
42
What is dichlorophene used for?
for dogs treatment of taenia and dipyllidium
43
What is the MOA of praziquantel?
broad spectrum that damages the parasites integument
44
What is praziquantel used for in horses?
anoplocephala
45
What is the MOA of epsiprantel?
damages parasite integument, makes holes in skin
46
What is epsiprantel used for?
dogs and cats against taenia and dipyllidium
47
What does fenbendazole treat?
taenia pisiformis and other broad spectrum in dogs but NOT dipyllidium
48
What is profender a combination of?
emodepside and praziquantel (antinematodal and anticestodal)
49
What is profender used as?
spot on for cats
50
What is the MOA of profender?
act on LAT1 and LAT2 receptors to release PAF1 and PAF2 and cause paralysis of the nematode
51
What are endectocides used for?
nematodes and ectoparasites
52
What is the MOA of endectocides?
bind to GABA to induce paralysis and inhibit egg production
53
What does Ivermectin kill?
everything but flukes
54
What stage of heartworm is killed with ivermectin?
larvae
55
What is eprinomectin used in?
pur on for beef and dairy cattle, broad spectrum, lactating is ok
56
What is the name for revolution?
selamectin
57
What is milbemycin oxide used for?
prevention of heartworm, broad parasitic
58
What is moxidectin used for?
broad spectrum in cattle and horses, heartworm in dogs
59
What is advantage multi a combination of?
imidacloprid and moxidectin
60
What does advantage multi protect against?
heartworm and ectoparasite
61
What is the MOA of albendazole?
inhibits energy metabolism,
62
When is albendazole contraindicated?
teratogenic, NOT in first 45 days of pregnancy
63
What is albendazole used for?
broad spectrum anti parasitic for cows - not female dairy cattle of breeding age
64
What is the MOA of fenbendazole?
inhibits reproduction of parasite
65
When is fenbendazole used?
broad spectrum anti parasitic in dogs, horses, cattle, swine - NOT dipyllidium, only taenia pisiformis
66
What is oxybendazole used for in cattle?
moniezia benedini
67
What is the safety margin of febantel?
wide safety margin
68
What is the safety margin like for levasmisole?
narrow safety margin because it can act on host receptors
69
What does levasmisole act on?
GI roundworms and lungworms
70
What is the MOA of pyrantel and morantel?
depolarizing NMB, remain in GI tract, localized
71
What is pyrantel used for?
broad spectrum, kills horse tapeworm anoplocephala at high doses
72
What is morantel used for?
GI nematodes in cattle and goats - ok if lactating
73
Why is dichlorvos extra safe?
it doesn't get absorbed, remains in GI tract
74
What is the MOA of piperazine?
competitive NMB (non-depolarizing)
75
Which drug is approved in chickens and turkeys?
piperazine
76
Which drug is an adulticidal treatment therapy for heartworm?
melarsomine IM (immiticide)
77
Which drug is the microfilaricidal treatment for heart worm?
ivermectin / milbemycin
78
What are the best prevention drugs for heartworm?
ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, moxidectin, selamectin
79
What are the classes of autocoids?
serotonin, peptides, histamine, prostaglandins
80
What drugs are serotonin agonists?
cisapride and fluoxetine
81
What is cisapride used for?
prokinetic, appetite stimulant
82
What is the MOA of fluoxetine?
serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor - increases serotonin levels in the brain
83
What is fluoxetine used for?
antidepressant for separation anxiety in dogs, aggression in cats
84
What autocoids are serotonin antagonists?
cyproheptadine, ondansetron, metoclopramide, mirtazapine
85
What is cyproheptadine used for?
appetite stimulant, tx of seratonin syndrome in dogs, pituitary pars intermedia in horses
86
What is ondansetron used for?
antiemetic, prevention and tx of chemotherapy induced vomiting
87
What is the MOA of metoclopramide?
5HT4 agonist to move GI tract and 5HT3 antagonist to prevent vomiting
88
What is metoclopramide used for?
anti-emetic, prokinetic, tx of agalactica in horses
89
What is mirtazapine used for?
appetite stimulant, anti-emetic, antidepressant
90
What is the MOA of maropitant citrate?
NK1 antagonist
91
What do you use maropitant citrate for?
motion sickness and vomiting from viral infections or anti-cancer therapy
92
What do you use ACE inhibitors for?
hypertension or heart failure to decrease preload
93
What are the angiotension-II receptor antagonists?
-artan
94
What are angiotension-II receptor antagonists used for?
hypertension
95
What does the H1 receptor do?
inflammation/anaphylaxis/allergies
96
What does the H2 receptor do?
gastric acid secretions
97
What does the H3 receptor do?
inhibits NT release of histamine
98
What does the H4 receptor do?
inflammation
99
What are the 1st generation H1 antagonists?
diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, hydroxyzine, trimeprazine, cyproheptadine
100
What are the second generation H1 antagonists?
terfenadine, astemizole, loratadine, fexofenadine
101
What is the difference between first and second generation H1 antagonists?
second generation do NOT cross the BBB so they are NOT sedating
102
What are the H2 antagonists?
cimetidine, nizatidine, ranitidine, famotidine
103
Which H antagonists are mostly enzyme inducers?
H1
104
What is diphenhydramine used for?
anti-emetic, antitussive, sedative
105
What side effect do first generation H1 antagonists have in cats?
paradoxical excitement
106
What are rinitidine and nizatidine used for?
prokinetics
107
Which H2 antagonist is used to treat equine melanoma?
cimetidine
108
What is a side effect of H2 antagonists?
hypersecretion
109
What is the most common side effect of prostaglandins?
abortions
110
What are the prostaglandin inhibitors?
COX inhibitors, phospholipase A2 inhibitors
111
What are the leukotriene inhibitors?
zafirlukast, zileuton
112
What are zafirlukast and zileuton used for?
prevention of bronchoconstriction in bronchial asthma
113
What is misoprosterol used for?
PO as an anti ulcer drug
114
What is the DOC for NSAID induced ulcers?
misoprosterol
115
What is fluprostenol used for?
repro synchronization, causes luteolysis
116
What is latanoprost (ravoprost or bimatoprost) used for?
open angle glaucoma
117
What is the MOA of latanoprost (ravoprost or bimatoprost)?
increase uveoscleral aqueous outflow
118
What is travoprost (luprositl) used for?
open angle glaucoma
119
What is etiproston used for?
synchronize estrus cycle
120
What is oxlacilinib (apequel) used for?
treatment of pruritus in dogs
121
What is the MOA of oxlacilinib?
JAK inhibitor
122
How do corticosteroids affect glucose metabolism?
antagonize insulin
123
What are the physiological effects of insulin?
anabolic and anti-catabolic for all nutrients, increases uptake of K into cells
124
What does insulin stimulate?
glycogenesis, lipogenesis, protein synthesis
125
What does insulin inhibit?
glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis
126
What stimulates insulin secretion?
high glucose, AA, fatty acids, ketones,
127
What inhibits insulin secretion?
somatostatin, low BG
128
What happens in primary DM(insulin dependent)?
lack of insulin from destruction of beta cells
129
How do you treat primary DM if not an emergency?
insulin replacement therapy, decrease caloric intake, high fiber diet
130
What happens in secondary DM(non-insulin dependent)?
insulin higher or lower than normal with hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance or lack of insulin receptor response
131
How do you treat secondary DM if not an emergency?
oral hypoglycemics, treat obesity, high fiber diet
132
How do you treat primary DM if in diabetic ketoacidosis?
regular insulin IV, fluid therapy, correct systemic acidosis, high fiber diet
133
What are some adverse effects of insulin tx?
hypoglycemia and insulin shock, hypokalemia, hypersensitivity, insulin resistance
134
How do you treat hypoglycemia if you overdose insulin?
dextrose PO or IV, glucagon IM
135
What is glipizide used for?
oral hypoglycemic in non-insulin dependent DM
136
What is the somogyi overdosing of insulin?
insulin induced hyperglycemia, initial hypoglycemia leading to hyperglycemia w/i 24 hrs
137
What type of insulin should be used after a diabetic coma?
isophane insulin
138
When do you use regular human insulin, lispro or aspart?
IM,IV, SQ in emergency diabetic ketoacidosis, has a fast onset and short acting
139
When do you use isoprene, porcine insulin zinc suspension or vetsulin?
SQ in stable patients, longer onset but still short acting
140
When do you use protamine zinc, glargine, or detemir?
SQ in stable patients, best for cats since it has a long onset but is longer acting so it can be given just once a day
141
What drug is the only oral hypoglycemic?
glipizide, or glyburide
142
What is the MOA of glipizide/glyburide?
stimulate basal insulin secretion
143
What are some side effects of glizipizide/glyburide?
nausea, hypoglycemia
144
When should you not use glipizide/glyburide?
animals in renal or hepatic insufficiency or preggo
145
What is the MOA of acarbose?
competitively inhibit pancreatic a-amylase and a-glucosidases, decreases rate and amount of glucose absorption from the GI tract
146
What is acarbose used for?
antihyperglycemic in mild hyperglycemia in diabetics but NOT a hypoglycemic agent
147
What is the MOA of glucagon?
increases CAMP inhibiting release of insulin, glucagon, growth hormone, and GI hormones
148
What is glucagon used for?
insulin induced hypoglycemia if dextrose isn't available, cardiac stimulate and tx of bovine ketosis
149
What is the MOA of somatostatin?
inhibits release of insulin, glucagon, growth hormone and GI hormones
150
What is somatostatin used for?
management of insulinomas and gastrinomas in dogs
151
What is diazoxide?
a nondiuretic thiazide thats insoluble in water
152
What is the MOA of diazoxide?
inhibits insulin release from beta cells and stimulates the release of catecholamines to increase BG
153
What is diazoxide used for?
PO to treat insulinomas
154
What species are insulinomas common in?
ferrets
155
What are antimicrobial drugs?
kill or inhibit growth and replication of microorganisms in living tissue
156
What are antibiotics?
natural substances secreted by live organisms to inhibit other species (can be synthetic and semisynthetic)
157
What are antiseptics?
nonselective, toxic chemicals that can be applied to skin to kill microorganisms but NOT given PO
158
What do broad spectrum antibiotics act against?
G+ AND G- bacteria
159
What do narrow spectrum antibiotics act against
G+ OR G- bacteria - not both
160
How do bactericidal drugs work?
kills the bacteria
161
How do bacteriostatic drugs work?
stop bacterial growth or replication (must have good immune system)
162
What are the possible MOAs of antibiotics?
inhibit cell wall synthesis, disruption of cell wall membranes, inhibition of protein synthesis, inhibition of DNA synthesis/function
163
Which MOA of antibiotics is least toxic?
inhibition of cell wall synthesis since mammalian cells don't have a cell wall
164
What is a side effect of bacitracin?
nephrotoxic
165
How are drugs that disrupt the cell membranes administered?
narrow therapeutic index - too toxic to be given anything other than topically
166
Which MOA of antibiotics is potentially carcinogenic?
inhibition of DNA synthesis/function
167
What precaution must be taken when giving nephrotoxic drugs?
never give 2 nephrotoxic drugs together
168
Which drugs damage renal tubular epithelial cells?
aminoglycosides, polymixins, tetracyclins, loop or osmotic diuretics with aminoglycosides
169
Which drugs damage CD and distal tubular structures?
sulfonamides (induce crystalluria)
170
Which antibiotics cause ototoxicity?
aminoglycosides
171
Which antibiotics cause CNS excitement in horses?
penicillin G
172
Which antibiotics can cause hypersensitivity reactions?
penicillin G
173
What are the two types of resistance?
acquired and intrinsic
174
What is acquired resistance?
bacteria mutates their DNA or acquires other DNA to survive
175
What is intrinsic resistance?
a bacteria doesn't possess the structure the drug effects
176
What is a problem with pseudomonas aeruginosa?
extremely resistant
177
What are the different ways to use antibiotics?
treatment, metaphylaxis, prophylaxis, growth promotion
178
What is the MOA of penicillins?
bacteriocidal, inhibits production of cell wall
179
What are the types of narrow based penicillins?
natural or semisynthetic
180
What are the types of broad based penicillins?
semisynthetic
181
Which penicillins are reserved for pseudomonas infections?
ticarcillin, piperacillin
182
What makes bacteria resistant to penicillin?
beta-lactamase
183
Are penicillins acidic or basic?
acidic
184
How do you get a synergistic effect with penicillins?
administer at the same time but DO NOT mix in the same bottle or they precipitate
185
What is the post antibiotic effect of penicillins?
some drugs can keep working even after administration has stopped
186
Do penicillins cross barriers?
NO - poor penetration to CSF
187
How are penicillins excreted?
kidneys, high concentration in urine (makes it good to treat UTI)
188
What are the adverse reactions to penicillin?
hypersensitivity in horses, clostridium overgrowth in GPs
189
How do penicillins interact with amino glycosides?
in vitro = antagonism, in vivo = synergism
190
How does giving probenecid with penicillins effect them?
blocks secretion -> longer DOA
191
Which drugs can be given with penicillins to increase its effect?
beta-lactamase
192
What is penicillin G used for?
large animals mostly, G+ aerobes, anaerobes, and at high doses G- anaerobes
193
How is penicillin V administered and in what species?
PO NOT in horses
194
What are anti-pseudomonas penicillins combined with?
clavulanic acid or tazobactum
195
What are the beta lactamase stable penicillins?
cloxacillin, dicloxacillin
196
What are beta lactamase stable penicillins used for?
MRSA
197
How does the oral bioavailability of ampicillin change when given with food?
it decreases
198
When is ampicillin contraindicated?
PO in horses and ruminants, in cats with renal impairment
199
When should amoxicillin not be used?
PO to horses and ruminants
200
What should clavamox be saved for?
cases of known or likely B lactamase resistant infections
201
What is the MOA of cephalosporins?
bactericidal by making a pore in the wall
202
What do 1st generation cephalosporins cover?
G+ and G-
203
What do 2nd generation cephalosporins cover?
G+, G-, anaerobes
204
What do 3rd generation cephalosporins cover?
G-, anaerobes
205
What do 4th generation cephalosporins cover?
G+, G-
206
What are some dosage considerations for cephalosporins?
drug concentration above MIC for 50% of the dosing interval
207
Which animals are cephalosporins well absorbed in?
small animals, poorly absorbed in horses
208
Are cephalosporins protein bound?
variable depending on the drug
209
Where are cephalosporins metabolized?
the liver
210
Where are cyclosporine eliminated?
80% in the bile
211
What are some side effects of cyclosporin?
clostridium overgrowth in Gpigs
212
How do cyclosporine interact with amino glycosides?
antagonists in vitro, synergists in vivo
213
How are cephadroxil and cephalexin administered?
PO
214
What are cephadroxil and cephalexin used to treat?
dermal, urinary, respiratory
215
What is cephazolin used for?
prophylaxis in orthopedic surgery
216
How is cephapirin administered?
intramammary
217
When is cephapirin contraindicated?
food producing animals
218
What are cefoxitin and cefotetan used for?
anaerobic bacterial infections
219
What is cefpodoxime proxetil used to treat?
skin infections
220
What is cefixime used to treat?
UTI by G- bacterial
221
How is cefotaxime administered?
injection
222
What does cefotaxime protect against?
G+ and G-
223
How is ceftazidime administered?
injectable
224
What does ceftazidime protect against?
G- ONLY use for pseudomonas
225
What is ceftiofur used for?
respiratory infections
226
How is cefovecin administered?
SC
227
What is cefovecin used for?
skin infections
228
How does cefovecin act w. plasma proteins?
99% pp bound
229
What is cefepime used for?
antipseudomonal
230
What is the MOA of carbapenems and monobactams?
inhibit transpeptidation (production of cell wall) by covalently binding to penicillin binding proteins
231
What spectrum are carbapenems?
broad spectrum
232
What are carbapenems NOT effective against?
MRSA
233
What are monobactams effective against?
aerobic and facultative G- --> pseudomonas, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter
234
Are carbapenems and monobactams bactericidal or bacteristatic?
bactericidal - inhibit cell wall
235
What are the dosage considerations for carbapenems and monobactams?
post-antibiotic effect G+ > G-
236
How are carbapenems and monobactams absorbed?
anything but PO -> poor absorption
237
How are carbapenems and monobactams distributed?
widely throughout body, can cross placenta
238
How are carbapenems and monobactams metabolized?
in renal tubules dehydropeptidase decreases activity of the enzyme
239
Which carbapenem and monobactams are used together to slow the inactivation?
cilastatin and imipenem
240
How are carbapenems and monobactams eliminated?
renal
241
How so carbapenems and monobactams interact with amino glycosides?
in vitro = antagonism, in vivo = synergism
242
What is aztreonam used for?
anaerobic and facultative G- bacterial infections, pseudomonas, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter, aeromonas salmonicida
243
What is imipenem administered with?
cilastatin
244
How is meropenem different from imipenem?
more soluble, better tolerated than imipenem
245
Which drug is used for MRSA?
vancomysin
246
What is the MOA of glycopeptides?
block cell wall from forming, bactericidal
247
What is the spectrum of activity for glycopeptides?
G+ only, ONLY for bacteria that can be MRSA/beta-lactam resistant
248
Which animals can not have glycopyrolates?
food producing animals
249
What are some potential drug interactions with glycopeptides?
increased risk of nephrotoxic effects
250
What is the MOA of bacitracin?
binds to isoprenyl phosphate and prevents synthesis of glycopeptide units
251
What is bacitracin effective against?
mainly G+, especially clostridium
252
How is bacitracin administered?
topically, poorly absorbed PO but used for GI sterilization
253
What are some side effects of bacitracin?
nephrotoxicity if given systemically (not a concern if given topically or PO)
254
What are some drug interactions of bacitracin?
divalent cations required for activity, often complexed with zinc
255
What is bacitracin used for clinically in horses?
colitis X - C. difficile
256
What is the MOA of polymixins?
cationic detergents that interact with phospholipid bacterial (and mammalian) cell membrane, bactericidal
257
What is the spectrum of activity for polymyxins?
G- including pseudomonas aeruginosa
258
What are some dosage considerations of polymixins?
no oral or topical absorption, to potentate action its given with bacitracin
259
What are some side effects of polymyxins?
one of the most nephrotoxic drugs, neurotoxic
260
What is polymyxin B used for?
skin, ophthalmic, otic, GI sterilization
261
What is the MOA of tetracycline?
interfere with transfer of RNA by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, bactiriostatic
262
What is the spectrum of activity of tetracycline?
broad based, all intracellular bacteria
263
What are some factors of absorption of tetracyclines?
give 1 hr before food and NOT with Ca
264
What is the distribution of tetracyclines?
very lipid soluble, distributed throughout body
265
What is the metabolism like of tetracyclines?
not metabolized
266
How are tetracyclines excreted?
bile via enterohepatic circulation
267
What are some adverse effects or tetracyclines?
yellowing of teeth and bones, cessation of bone growth, cardiovascular collapse, IV doxy in horses is FATAL
268
How do tetracyclines interact with penicillins?
in vivo = antagonism
269
What is the DOC for hemobartonellosis in cats (mycoplasma hemofelis)?
doxycycline
270
What is the DOC for ehrlichia canis?
doxycycline
271
How is minocycline different from the other tetracyclines?
more lipid soluble, better in renal patients
272
What is tetracycline used for?
URT infections
273
What is oxytetracycline used for?
resp, GI, UT infections, dermatological immune mediated conditions, angular limb deformities in horses, lepto
274
What is chlortetracycline used for?
growth promoter
275
What is the MOA of amphenicols?
inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit peptide bond formation
276
What is the spectrum of activity of amphenicols?
broad, bacteriostatic, very lipophilic so can get into cell walls easily
277
Where is palmate hydrolyzed?
SI
278
Where is succinate hydrolyzed?
plasma
279
How are amphenicols absorbed?
absorbed well PO,
280
When is chloral administration illegal?
PO in ruminants
281
How are amphenicols distributed?
very lipid soluble, widely spread
282
Where are amphenicols metabolized?
liver
283
Where are amphenicols excreted?
tubular secretion
284
What is chloramphenicol used for?
conjunctivitis in dogs and cats
285
What is a side effect of florfenicol?
testicular atrophy
286
What is the MOA of macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?
bind to 50S ribosomal subunit
287
What is the spectrum of activity for macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?
narrow, mainly G-
288
What does clindamycin act against?
anaerobes
289
how are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins distributed?
widely throughout body, very lipophilic = no preggo or food animals
290
Where are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins metabolized?
liveer
291
How are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins eliminated?
bile
292
What are some side effects to macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?
reaction at injection site, cariotoxicity
293
What are some drug interactions of macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?
erythromycin inhibits microsomal enzymes, increases half lives
294
What is erythromycin used for?
URI, rhodococcus equi, growth promotion, mastitis, respiratory disease
295
What is tylosin used for?
URI, liver abscesses, pneumonia
296
What are tilmicosin and tularthromycin used for?
metaphylaxisis in newly arrived feedlot cattle
297
What is oleandomycin used for?
growth promotion
298
What is azithromycin used for?
rhodococcus equi
299
What is lincomycin used for?
growth promoter in chicken
300
What is pirlamycin used for?
intrammammary for mastitis in cattle
301
What is clindamycin used for?
osteomyelitis, skin, wound and periodontal infections
302
What is the MOA of streptogramins?
type A (75%) changes conformation of 50S ribosomal subunit which potentiates action of type B (25%) - bactericidal
303
What is the spectrum of activity of streptogramins?
mainly G- aerobes and anaerobes, including MRSA
304
What is virginiamycin used for?
growth promoter in swine, in chickens a growth promoter and necrotic enteritis
305
What is the MOA of amino glycosides?
bind 30S ribosomal subunit and prevent tRNA attachment - bactericidal
306
What is the spectrum of activity of amino glycosides?
G- aerobes including pseudomonas, see a post antibiotic effect and synergism with penicillin
307
How are amino glycosides absorbed?
poorly PO, usually IM or SC
308
How are amino glycosides distributed?
mainly to ECF
309
How are amino glycosides metabolized?
NO metabolism
310
How are amino glycosides eliminated?
glomerular filtration
311
What are some side effects of amino glycosides?
nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
312
When is gentamycin used?
urinary, respiratory or skin in dogs, cats, or IU in horses for endometritis, metritis, pyometra
313
What is one caution with neomycin?
do NOT use systemically, chance of toxicity is much higher
314
When is dihydrostreptomycin used?
mastitis in cows and lepto in other species
315
What is spectinomycin used for?
bovine respiratory disease
316
What precaution must be taken with spectinomycin?
residues in food animals
317
What is the MOA of sulfonamides?
competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA
318
What is the spectrum of activity for sulfonamides?
broad, bacteriostatic OR bactericidal with DHFR
319
What is the resistance like for sulfonamides?
inactivated in pus (PABA)
320
What is the absorption of sulfonamides like?
high PO except sulfasalazine
321
What is the distribution of sulfonamides like?
all tissues
322
What is the metabolism of sulfonamides like?
faster in herbivores than in carnivores and omnivores
323
How are sulfonamides eliminated?
glomerular filtration and tubular secretion
324
What are some side effects of sulfonamides?
crystalluria, hematuria, renal tubule blockage, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, diarrhea
325
What is sulfasalazine used for?
colitis in horses
326
What is pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine used for?
equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
327
What is the MOA of DHER inhibitors?
inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
328
What is the spectrum of activity of DHER inhibitors?
broad
329
What is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?
inhibit DNA gyrase to result in failure of DNA super helix formation
330
What is the spectrum of activity of fluoroquinolones?
aerobic G-
331
What are fluoroquiolones inactivated by?
pus, cations, low pH
332
Which species has the slowest absorption of fluoroquinolones?
horses
333
Where are fluoroquinolones NOT distributed to?
CNS, eye
334
How is difloxacin excreted?
in bile
335
What are some side effects of fluoroquinolones?
decreases growth in young, blindness, CNS excitement
336
What are some clinical uses of fluoroquinolones?
skin and soft tissue pyoderma, bone infections,
337
What precaution must be taken with baytril in cattle?
do not deviate from usage directions, illegal
338
What species are nitroimidazoles used in?
NOT food animals --- banned
339
What is the MOA of nitromidizoles?
damages DNA and DNA repair enzymes
340
What is the spectrum of activity of nitromidazoles?
broad
341
What is the resistance of nitromidizoles?
cross resistance - banned in food animals
342
How does food affect the absorption of nitromidizoles?
increases
343
What are some side effects of nitromidizoles?
carcinogenic, neurotoxicosis
344
What can be given to decrease the neurotoxicosis of itromidizoles?
diazepam
345
What are nitromidazoles used for in small animals?
bacterial infections, protozoal infections, IBD
346
What are nitromidazoles used for in horses?
anaerobic bacterial infections
347
What are nitromidazoles used for in pigeons?
trichomoniasis
348
What species are nitrofurans used in?
NOT food animals bc carcinogenic
349
How are nitrofurans used in horses?
spray into wounds or oral
350
When are nitrofurans most active?
in acid urine
351
How is nitrofurantoin administered?
PO
352
How are most nitrofurans administered?
topicallly
353
What is nitrofurantoin used for?
UTI
354
What is nitrofurazone used for?
skin wounds
355
What is furazolidine used for?
skin wounds NOT in food animals
356
What is the MOA of novobiocin?
binds to DNA gyrase to inhibit DNA repair and transcription
357
What is the spectrum of activity of novobiocin?
broad
358
What should novobiocin not be mixed with?
macrolides
359
How does food effect the absorption of novobiocin?
decreases
360
What is the distribution of novobiocin like?
poor
361
How is novobiocin eliminated?
bile
362
What are some side effects of novobiocin?
GI distrubances, skin rashes
363
What is novobiocin used for in dogs?
kennel cough
364
What is the MOA of rifampin?
inhibit B subunit of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
365
What does rifampin work against?
broad, rhodococcus, fungi
366
How does food effect absorption of rifampin?
decreases
367
What is the PP binding like in rifampin?
75-95%
368
How is rifampin eliminated?
in bile
369
What are some side effects of rifampin?
teratogenic, hepatitis, enterocolitis
370
What is rifampin used for in foals?
rhodococcal pneumonia
371
What is rifampin used for in dogs and cats?
fungal infections
372
What is rifampin used for in birds?
mycobacteria infection
373
What are the most common skin infections from?
dermatophytes, yeasts
374
What is the MOA of griseofulvin?
disrupts the mitotic spindle stopping replication
375
What is the spectrum of activity for griseofulvin?
organisms causing dermatophytosis and inhibits fungi growth
376
What formulation of griseofulvin has a better oral bioavailability?
ultramicrosized (1u) > microsized (4u)
377
What is the distribution of griseofulvin?
doesn't get eliminated, deposited in skin, hair, nails
378
What type of metabolism is seen with griseofulvin?
1st pass, induction of cytochrome p450
379
How is griseofulvin eliminated?
inactive metabolites ONLY thru urine
380
What are some side effects of griseofulvin?
GI disturbances, bone marrow suppression, teratogenic
381
Why should griseofulvin be avoided in the food chain?
don't know its withholding time
382
What is the MOA of polyenes?
bind to ergosterol, disrupt phospholipids, K leaks into the cell
383
What is the spectrum of activity of polyenes?
broad spectrum fungicidal
384
What is the absorption of polyenes?
very poor
385
What is the distribution of polyenes?
slowly released from lipid membranes = long 1/2 life
386
What are some side effects of polyenes?
most nephrotoxic drug available -DO NOT combine with other nephrotoxic drugs
387
What are some drug interactions with polyenes?
see additive hypokalemia with thyazide and loop diuretics
388
When are polyenes used clinically?
only in serious fungal infections
389
What is the MOA of the azoles?
inhibit CYP51A affecting the membrane
390
What is the distribution of azoles?
does NOT reach the CNS
391
How are azoles eliminated?
inactive metabolites in bile
392
What are some side effects of azoles?
inhibition of P-glycoproteins and P450 enzymes, teratogenic, cats more sensitive
393
What are some uses of azoles?
hyperA, systemic mycosis
394
Does fluconazole get into the CNS?
YES
395
How is fluconazole eliminated?
active drug in urine
396
What is fluconazole used for?
dermatophytes and systemic mycosis - u sully given with amphotericin B
397
How is the absorption of itraconazole effected by food?
100% absorption after a meal
398
How is itraconazole distributed?
widely, spends 4weeks in skin and nails after tx
399
How is itrakonazole eliminated?
in bile and urine
400
What is itrakonazole used for?
dermatophytosis, systemic mycosis, cutaneous leishmaniasis
401
How is vorakonazole absorbed?
100% from GI - no food needed
402
What species is vorakonazole used in?
birds
403
What is terbinafine used for?
hepatic toxicosis in dogs, facial dermatitis and pruritus in cats
404
What is lufenurin used for?
tx of flea infestations, higher doses as an anti fungal by inhibiting chitin synthesis, endometritis in mares
405
What precaution should be taken with lufenurin?
can cause repro issues in horses
406
What is flucytosine converted to?
5-fluorouracil
407
What is a side effect of flucytosine?
goes to the bone marrow - give it with amphotericin B
408
What is iodide used for?
sporotrichiosis, nasal fungal granulomas, abortion and infertility
409
What is clotrimazole used for?
otitis extern associated with malassezia, off label for nasal aspergillosis
410
What is miconazole used for?
dermatophytosis
411
What is enilconaole used for?
clean equipment, not animals
412
What is nystatin used for?
crop mycosis, antibiotic and antiinflammatory
413
How is nystatin administered?
topical only - systemic toxicity
414
What is natamycin used for?
guttural pouch mycosis, dermatophytes, keratomycosis
415
How is natamycin administered?
topical, systemic toxicity
416
What is the induction phase of anticancer drugs?
high dosage over a short period of time in order to induce remission
417
What is the maintenance phase of anticancer drugs?
lower dosage over longer period of time stay in remission and delay regrowth
418
What is beneficial about combing anti-cancer drugs?
they can stop replication of cells more quickly at different stages
419
Which cells are more susceptible to anti-cancer drugs?
continuously dividing ones - bone marrow, GI, hair follicle
420
What are some side effects of anticancer drugs?
bine marrow suppression, alopecia
421
How is the dose of anticancer drugs calculated?
using body surface area - due to narrow therapeutic index
422
What is the MOA of alkylating agents?
form covalent bonds with the DNA, cross bridges between guanine
423
What are the alkylating agent drugs?
cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, ifosfamide, carmustine
424
What is a side effect of cyclophosphamide?
hemorrhagic cystitis
425
How is cyclophosphamide activated?
in liver into active metabolites with antineoplastic effects
426
What does cyclophosphamide used for?
broad spectrum
427
What is isosfamide used for?
metastatic carcinoma and sarcoma in cats
428
What precaution is taken with isosfamide?
give fluids with it to avoid urinary damage
429
What is carmustine used for?
brain tumors - lipophillic (crosses BBB)
430
What precaution should be taken with carmustine?
infuse slowly to prevent bone pain - severe bone suppression
431
What drugs are platinum derivatives?
cisplatin, carboplatin
432
What is the MOA of platinum derivatives?
interstrand bridges that denature DNA
433
What is cisplatin used for?
carcinoma and sarcoma in dogs, sarcoids in cats
434
What are some side effects of cisplatin?
nephrotoxic, emesis
435
What precaution should be taken with cisplatin?
NOT IN CATS > fatal pulmonary edema
436
What is carboplatin used for?
carcinoma and sarcoma in dogs
437
What is a side effect of carboplatin?
nephrotoxic
438
What precaution must be taken with carboplatin?
don't give using IV sets with aluminum
439
What is the MOA of doxorubricin?
stabilizes DNA topoisomerase 2 complex preventing replication
440
What is doxorubicin used for?
broad spectrum
441
What is a side effect of doxorubricin?
cumulative cardiotoxicity
442
What is mitoxantrone used for?
broad
443
What is a side effect of mitoxantrone?
blue ring in sclera of eye, blue urine
444
What is bleomyocin used for?
SSC
445
What is a side effect of bleomycin?
use a local anesthetic before injection because it burns
446
What are the cytotoxic antibiotics?
doxorubicin, mitoxantrone, bleomycin
447
What are the antimetabolites?
folate anagonists = methotrexate
| pyrimidine analogues = 5-fluorouracil and cytarabine
448
What is methotrexate used for?
lymphoma or osteosarcoma
449
What is methotrexate given with?
leucovorin AKA folonic acid
450
What is 5-fluorouracil pro drug used for?
local treatment of skin lesions
451
What are some side effects of 5-fluorouracil?
neurotoxic, TOXIC in CATS
452
What is cytarabine used for?
lymphoma
453
What are the plant alkaloid drugs?
vincristine and vinblastine
454
What is the MOA of plant alkaloid drugs?
synchronize cells
455
What are plant alkaloids used for?
TVT, lymphoma, mast cell tumors
456
What does radioactive iodine do?
destroys thyroid gland
457
What does mitotaine do?
cushings - cytotoxic effect to outer adrenal cortex
458
What does piroxicam do?
non-selective NSAID, used in transitional cell carcinoma in dogs
459
What is asparginase used for?
lymphoma and mast cell tumor
460
What supportive therapy should be given with anticancer drugs?
analgesic, antiemetic, appetite stimulant, anabolic steroids
461
What is the MOA of expectorants?
increases Amt of mucous so it can be coughed up
462
What is the MOA of mucokinetics?
dilute the airway and make mucous more watery to use the mucocilliary escalator system and get rid of it
463
What do theophylline and aminoplylline do?
increase beats of cilia, bronchodilator, anti inflammation, + ionotrope, vasodialate, CNS stimulation
464
What do opioids do?
suppress cough center in medulla
465
What does atropine do?
bronchodilatory, dries secretions
466
What do glucocorticoids do?
increase beta2 receptors, anti-inflammatory
467
What does cromolyn sodium do?
mast cell stabilizer, prevents granulation by mast cell so histamine can't cause constriction
468
What is the MOA of theophylline/pentoxifylline?
nonselective inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme, inhibits leukotriene synthesis, stabilizes mast cells, non-selective adenosine receptors
469
which drugs have chocolate toxicity in animals?
theobromine and caffeine
470
How is theophyllene different in horses?
not good in COPD, narrow therapeutic index
471
How is theophylline different in cattle?
poor bronchodilator
472
How is pentoxifylline used in small animals?
dermatomyositis and vasculitis, FIP
473
How is pentoxifylline used in horses?
navicular dz, laminitis, endotoxemia via reological effect
474
What are some effects of doxapram?
CNS stimulation, increase minute ventilation, increases contractility of heart,
475
What are the clinical uses of doxapram?
stimulate respiration due to hypoventilation
476
What are some contraindications of doxapram?
must have clear airway, not a substitute for mechanical ventilation, seizures at large doses
