Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharmacology > Shokry exam 2 > Flashcards

Shokry exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How do anti parasitic drugs inhibit the neuromuscular system?

A
  1. block nicotinic receptors at NMJ so ACh can’t bind
  2. depolarizing NM blockers by overstimulation
  3. bind to acetylcholinesterases to block them
  4. activate LAT1 and LAT2 at NMJ of nematodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do anti parasitic drugs inhibit the neuronal system?

A

bind to GABA for flaccid paralysis and to inhibit egg production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long is the coccidia lifecycle?

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are preventatives used?

A

first 4-5 days of sexual schizogomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When are treatments used?

A

last 6th or 7th day the oocyst is shed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is amprolium used for?

A

prevent coccidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is decoquinate used for?

A

prevent coccidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drug is approved for coccidia in laying hens?

A

amprolium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the ionophores?

A

monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin, narasin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are ionophores used for?

A

to prevent coccidia, also growth promoters as feed additives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which ionophore is approved in cattle, chickens and goats?

A

salinomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA of sulfonamides?

A

inhibit PABA preventing formation of folic acid that parasite needs to live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are sulfonamides used for?

A

prevent AND treat coccidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do sulfonamides act?

A

all 7 days of the life cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When are Robenidine, Nicarbazin, Arsanilic acid, and tetracyclines used?

A

as a feed additive for growth promotion and prevent coccidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

affects DNA synthesis of the parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the DOC for giardia? (meaning least effective)

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What precautions must be taken when using metronidazole?

A

NOT preggos, NOT food animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the benzimidazoles?

A

albendazole, fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the MOA of benzimidazoles?

A

deprive parasite of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When are benzimidazoles used? When are the contraindicated?

A

for giardia as a last resort due to resistance, NOT in preggos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the DOC for amebiasis?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drug can be used in preggos for amebiasis?

A

furazolidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drugs are used to treat balantidiasis?

A

metronidazole, tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which drug can treat trichomoniasis in horses and dogs?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is cloquinol used for?

A

diarrhea in horses due to trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is carnidazole used for?

A

pigeon canker in pigeons not intended for human consumption - trichomonad columbae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the DOC for toxoplasmosis because it is MOST effective?

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

inhibits protein synthesis via 50S ribosomal subunit - bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the organic arsenicals?

A

carbarsone, roxarsone, nitarsone (histostat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are organic arsenicals used for?

A

treat histomonas meleagridis in birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is imidocarb used for?

A

treatment of babesia in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is oxytetracycline used for?

A

DOC to treat anaplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the MOA of oxytetracycline?

A

inhibits 30S ribosome subunit, bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are nitazoxanide and ponazuril used for?

A

treatment of sarcocystis neurons in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are paromomycin, azithromycin and nitazoxanide used for?

A

treatment of cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the MOA of clorsulon?

A

deprive parasite of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is clorsulon used for?

A

treatment of facial hepatica in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the MOA of albendazole?

A

binds to tubulin to decrease energy, inhibits formulin reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What life stages is albendazole active against?

A

adults only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is albendazole used for?

A

broad spectrum of parasites in GI tract and lung of cattle and horses -NO preggos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is dichlorophene used for?

A

for dogs treatment of taenia and dipyllidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the MOA of praziquantel?

A

broad spectrum that damages the parasites integument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is praziquantel used for in horses?

A

anoplocephala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the MOA of epsiprantel?

A

damages parasite integument, makes holes in skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is epsiprantel used for?

A

dogs and cats against taenia and dipyllidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does fenbendazole treat?

A

taenia pisiformis and other broad spectrum in dogs but NOT dipyllidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is profender a combination of?

A

emodepside and praziquantel (antinematodal and anticestodal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is profender used as?

A

spot on for cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the MOA of profender?

A

act on LAT1 and LAT2 receptors to release PAF1 and PAF2 and cause paralysis of the nematode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are endectocides used for?

A

nematodes and ectoparasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the MOA of endectocides?

A

bind to GABA to induce paralysis and inhibit egg production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does Ivermectin kill?

A

everything but flukes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What stage of heartworm is killed with ivermectin?

A

larvae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is eprinomectin used in?

A

pur on for beef and dairy cattle, broad spectrum, lactating is ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the name for revolution?

A

selamectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is milbemycin oxide used for?

A

prevention of heartworm, broad parasitic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is moxidectin used for?

A

broad spectrum in cattle and horses, heartworm in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is advantage multi a combination of?

A

imidacloprid and moxidectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does advantage multi protect against?

A

heartworm and ectoparasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the MOA of albendazole?

A

inhibits energy metabolism,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When is albendazole contraindicated?

A

teratogenic, NOT in first 45 days of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is albendazole used for?

A

broad spectrum anti parasitic for cows - not female dairy cattle of breeding age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the MOA of fenbendazole?

A

inhibits reproduction of parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When is fenbendazole used?

A

broad spectrum anti parasitic in dogs, horses, cattle, swine - NOT dipyllidium, only taenia pisiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is oxybendazole used for in cattle?

A

moniezia benedini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the safety margin of febantel?

A

wide safety margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the safety margin like for levasmisole?

A

narrow safety margin because it can act on host receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does levasmisole act on?

A

GI roundworms and lungworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the MOA of pyrantel and morantel?

A

depolarizing NMB, remain in GI tract, localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is pyrantel used for?

A

broad spectrum, kills horse tapeworm anoplocephala at high doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is morantel used for?

A

GI nematodes in cattle and goats - ok if lactating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why is dichlorvos extra safe?

A

it doesn’t get absorbed, remains in GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the MOA of piperazine?

A

competitive NMB (non-depolarizing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which drug is approved in chickens and turkeys?

A

piperazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which drug is an adulticidal treatment therapy for heartworm?

A

melarsomine IM (immiticide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which drug is the microfilaricidal treatment for heart worm?

A

ivermectin / milbemycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the best prevention drugs for heartworm?

A

ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, moxidectin, selamectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the classes of autocoids?

A

serotonin, peptides, histamine, prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What drugs are serotonin agonists?

A

cisapride and fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is cisapride used for?

A

prokinetic, appetite stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the MOA of fluoxetine?

A

serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor - increases serotonin levels in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is fluoxetine used for?

A

antidepressant for separation anxiety in dogs, aggression in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What autocoids are serotonin antagonists?

A

cyproheptadine, ondansetron, metoclopramide, mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is cyproheptadine used for?

A

appetite stimulant, tx of seratonin syndrome in dogs, pituitary pars intermedia in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is ondansetron used for?

A

antiemetic, prevention and tx of chemotherapy induced vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the MOA of metoclopramide?

A

5HT4 agonist to move GI tract and 5HT3 antagonist to prevent vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is metoclopramide used for?

A

anti-emetic, prokinetic, tx of agalactica in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is mirtazapine used for?

A

appetite stimulant, anti-emetic, antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the MOA of maropitant citrate?

A

NK1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What do you use maropitant citrate for?

A

motion sickness and vomiting from viral infections or anti-cancer therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What do you use ACE inhibitors for?

A

hypertension or heart failure to decrease preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the angiotension-II receptor antagonists?

A

-artan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are angiotension-II receptor antagonists used for?

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does the H1 receptor do?

A

inflammation/anaphylaxis/allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does the H2 receptor do?

A

gastric acid secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does the H3 receptor do?

A

inhibits NT release of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does the H4 receptor do?

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the 1st generation H1 antagonists?

A

diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, hydroxyzine, trimeprazine, cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the second generation H1 antagonists?

A

terfenadine, astemizole, loratadine, fexofenadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the difference between first and second generation H1 antagonists?

A

second generation do NOT cross the BBB so they are NOT sedating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the H2 antagonists?

A

cimetidine, nizatidine, ranitidine, famotidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which H antagonists are mostly enzyme inducers?

A

H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is diphenhydramine used for?

A

anti-emetic, antitussive, sedative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What side effect do first generation H1 antagonists have in cats?

A

paradoxical excitement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are rinitidine and nizatidine used for?

A

prokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which H2 antagonist is used to treat equine melanoma?

A

cimetidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is a side effect of H2 antagonists?

A

hypersecretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the most common side effect of prostaglandins?

A

abortions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the prostaglandin inhibitors?

A

COX inhibitors, phospholipase A2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the leukotriene inhibitors?

A

zafirlukast, zileuton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are zafirlukast and zileuton used for?

A

prevention of bronchoconstriction in bronchial asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is misoprosterol used for?

A

PO as an anti ulcer drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the DOC for NSAID induced ulcers?

A

misoprosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is fluprostenol used for?

A

repro synchronization, causes luteolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is latanoprost (ravoprost or bimatoprost) used for?

A

open angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the MOA of latanoprost (ravoprost or bimatoprost)?

A

increase uveoscleral aqueous outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is travoprost (luprositl) used for?

A

open angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is etiproston used for?

A

synchronize estrus cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is oxlacilinib (apequel) used for?

A

treatment of pruritus in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the MOA of oxlacilinib?

A

JAK inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How do corticosteroids affect glucose metabolism?

A

antagonize insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the physiological effects of insulin?

A

anabolic and anti-catabolic for all nutrients, increases uptake of K into cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What does insulin stimulate?

A

glycogenesis, lipogenesis, protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What does insulin inhibit?

A

glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What stimulates insulin secretion?

A

high glucose, AA, fatty acids, ketones,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What inhibits insulin secretion?

A

somatostatin, low BG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What happens in primary DM(insulin dependent)?

A

lack of insulin from destruction of beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How do you treat primary DM if not an emergency?

A

insulin replacement therapy, decrease caloric intake, high fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What happens in secondary DM(non-insulin dependent)?

A

insulin higher or lower than normal with hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance or lack of insulin receptor response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How do you treat secondary DM if not an emergency?

A

oral hypoglycemics, treat obesity, high fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How do you treat primary DM if in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

regular insulin IV, fluid therapy, correct systemic acidosis, high fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are some adverse effects of insulin tx?

A

hypoglycemia and insulin shock, hypokalemia, hypersensitivity, insulin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How do you treat hypoglycemia if you overdose insulin?

A

dextrose PO or IV, glucagon IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is glipizide used for?

A

oral hypoglycemic in non-insulin dependent DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the somogyi overdosing of insulin?

A

insulin induced hyperglycemia, initial hypoglycemia leading to hyperglycemia w/i 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What type of insulin should be used after a diabetic coma?

A

isophane insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

When do you use regular human insulin, lispro or aspart?

A

IM,IV, SQ in emergency diabetic ketoacidosis, has a fast onset and short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

When do you use isoprene, porcine insulin zinc suspension or vetsulin?

A

SQ in stable patients, longer onset but still short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

When do you use protamine zinc, glargine, or detemir?

A

SQ in stable patients, best for cats since it has a long onset but is longer acting so it can be given just once a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What drug is the only oral hypoglycemic?

A

glipizide, or glyburide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the MOA of glipizide/glyburide?

A

stimulate basal insulin secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are some side effects of glizipizide/glyburide?

A

nausea, hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

When should you not use glipizide/glyburide?

A

animals in renal or hepatic insufficiency or preggo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the MOA of acarbose?

A

competitively inhibit pancreatic a-amylase and a-glucosidases, decreases rate and amount of glucose absorption from the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is acarbose used for?

A

antihyperglycemic in mild hyperglycemia in diabetics but NOT a hypoglycemic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the MOA of glucagon?

A

increases CAMP inhibiting release of insulin, glucagon, growth hormone, and GI hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is glucagon used for?

A

insulin induced hypoglycemia if dextrose isn’t available, cardiac stimulate and tx of bovine ketosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the MOA of somatostatin?

A

inhibits release of insulin, glucagon, growth hormone and GI hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is somatostatin used for?

A

management of insulinomas and gastrinomas in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is diazoxide?

A

a nondiuretic thiazide thats insoluble in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is the MOA of diazoxide?

A

inhibits insulin release from beta cells and stimulates the release of catecholamines to increase BG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is diazoxide used for?

A

PO to treat insulinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What species are insulinomas common in?

A

ferrets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are antimicrobial drugs?

A

kill or inhibit growth and replication of microorganisms in living tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

natural substances secreted by live organisms to inhibit other species (can be synthetic and semisynthetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are antiseptics?

A

nonselective, toxic chemicals that can be applied to skin to kill microorganisms but NOT given PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What do broad spectrum antibiotics act against?

A

G+ AND G- bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What do narrow spectrum antibiotics act against

A

G+ OR G- bacteria - not both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How do bactericidal drugs work?

A

kills the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How do bacteriostatic drugs work?

A

stop bacterial growth or replication (must have good immune system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are the possible MOAs of antibiotics?

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis, disruption of cell wall membranes, inhibition of protein synthesis, inhibition of DNA synthesis/function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Which MOA of antibiotics is least toxic?

A

inhibition of cell wall synthesis since mammalian cells don’t have a cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is a side effect of bacitracin?

A

nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

How are drugs that disrupt the cell membranes administered?

A

narrow therapeutic index - too toxic to be given anything other than topically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Which MOA of antibiotics is potentially carcinogenic?

A

inhibition of DNA synthesis/function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What precaution must be taken when giving nephrotoxic drugs?

A

never give 2 nephrotoxic drugs together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which drugs damage renal tubular epithelial cells?

A

aminoglycosides, polymixins, tetracyclins, loop or osmotic diuretics with aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Which drugs damage CD and distal tubular structures?

A

sulfonamides (induce crystalluria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which antibiotics cause ototoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which antibiotics cause CNS excitement in horses?

A

penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which antibiotics can cause hypersensitivity reactions?

A

penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are the two types of resistance?

A

acquired and intrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is acquired resistance?

A

bacteria mutates their DNA or acquires other DNA to survive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is intrinsic resistance?

A

a bacteria doesn’t possess the structure the drug effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is a problem with pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

extremely resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are the different ways to use antibiotics?

A

treatment, metaphylaxis, prophylaxis, growth promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is the MOA of penicillins?

A

bacteriocidal, inhibits production of cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What are the types of narrow based penicillins?

A

natural or semisynthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What are the types of broad based penicillins?

A

semisynthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Which penicillins are reserved for pseudomonas infections?

A

ticarcillin, piperacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What makes bacteria resistant to penicillin?

A

beta-lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Are penicillins acidic or basic?

A

acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

How do you get a synergistic effect with penicillins?

A

administer at the same time but DO NOT mix in the same bottle or they precipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is the post antibiotic effect of penicillins?

A

some drugs can keep working even after administration has stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Do penicillins cross barriers?

A

NO - poor penetration to CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

How are penicillins excreted?

A

kidneys, high concentration in urine (makes it good to treat UTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What are the adverse reactions to penicillin?

A

hypersensitivity in horses, clostridium overgrowth in GPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How do penicillins interact with amino glycosides?

A

in vitro = antagonism, in vivo = synergism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

How does giving probenecid with penicillins effect them?

A

blocks secretion -> longer DOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Which drugs can be given with penicillins to increase its effect?

A

beta-lactamase

192
Q

What is penicillin G used for?

A

large animals mostly, G+ aerobes, anaerobes, and at high doses G- anaerobes

193
Q

How is penicillin V administered and in what species?

A

PO NOT in horses

194
Q

What are anti-pseudomonas penicillins combined with?

A

clavulanic acid or tazobactum

195
Q

What are the beta lactamase stable penicillins?

A

cloxacillin, dicloxacillin

196
Q

What are beta lactamase stable penicillins used for?

197
Q

How does the oral bioavailability of ampicillin change when given with food?

A

it decreases

198
Q

When is ampicillin contraindicated?

A

PO in horses and ruminants, in cats with renal impairment

199
Q

When should amoxicillin not be used?

A

PO to horses and ruminants

200
Q

What should clavamox be saved for?

A

cases of known or likely B lactamase resistant infections

201
Q

What is the MOA of cephalosporins?

A

bactericidal by making a pore in the wall

202
Q

What do 1st generation cephalosporins cover?

203
Q

What do 2nd generation cephalosporins cover?

A

G+, G-, anaerobes

204
Q

What do 3rd generation cephalosporins cover?

A

G-, anaerobes

205
Q

What do 4th generation cephalosporins cover?

206
Q

What are some dosage considerations for cephalosporins?

A

drug concentration above MIC for 50% of the dosing interval

207
Q

Which animals are cephalosporins well absorbed in?

A

small animals, poorly absorbed in horses

208
Q

Are cephalosporins protein bound?

A

variable depending on the drug

209
Q

Where are cephalosporins metabolized?

210
Q

Where are cyclosporine eliminated?

A

80% in the bile

211
Q

What are some side effects of cyclosporin?

A

clostridium overgrowth in Gpigs

212
Q

How do cyclosporine interact with amino glycosides?

A

antagonists in vitro, synergists in vivo

213
Q

How are cephadroxil and cephalexin administered?

214
Q

What are cephadroxil and cephalexin used to treat?

A

dermal, urinary, respiratory

215
Q

What is cephazolin used for?

A

prophylaxis in orthopedic surgery

216
Q

How is cephapirin administered?

A

intramammary

217
Q

When is cephapirin contraindicated?

A

food producing animals

218
Q

What are cefoxitin and cefotetan used for?

A

anaerobic bacterial infections

219
Q

What is cefpodoxime proxetil used to treat?

A

skin infections

220
Q

What is cefixime used to treat?

A

UTI by G- bacterial

221
Q

How is cefotaxime administered?

222
Q

What does cefotaxime protect against?

223
Q

How is ceftazidime administered?

A

injectable

224
Q

What does ceftazidime protect against?

A

G- ONLY use for pseudomonas

225
Q

What is ceftiofur used for?

A

respiratory infections

226
Q

How is cefovecin administered?

227
Q

What is cefovecin used for?

A

skin infections

228
Q

How does cefovecin act w. plasma proteins?

A

99% pp bound

229
Q

What is cefepime used for?

A

antipseudomonal

230
Q

What is the MOA of carbapenems and monobactams?

A

inhibit transpeptidation (production of cell wall) by covalently binding to penicillin binding proteins

231
Q

What spectrum are carbapenems?

A

broad spectrum

232
Q

What are carbapenems NOT effective against?

233
Q

What are monobactams effective against?

A

aerobic and facultative G- –> pseudomonas, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter

234
Q

Are carbapenems and monobactams bactericidal or bacteristatic?

A

bactericidal - inhibit cell wall

235
Q

What are the dosage considerations for carbapenems and monobactams?

A

post-antibiotic effect G+ > G-

236
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams absorbed?

A

anything but PO -> poor absorption

237
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams distributed?

A

widely throughout body, can cross placenta

238
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams metabolized?

A

in renal tubules dehydropeptidase decreases activity of the enzyme

239
Q

Which carbapenem and monobactams are used together to slow the inactivation?

A

cilastatin and imipenem

240
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams eliminated?

241
Q

How so carbapenems and monobactams interact with amino glycosides?

A

in vitro = antagonism, in vivo = synergism

242
Q

What is aztreonam used for?

A

anaerobic and facultative G- bacterial infections, pseudomonas, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter, aeromonas salmonicida

243
Q

What is imipenem administered with?

A

cilastatin

244
Q

How is meropenem different from imipenem?

A

more soluble, better tolerated than imipenem

245
Q

Which drug is used for MRSA?

A

vancomysin

246
Q

What is the MOA of glycopeptides?

A

block cell wall from forming, bactericidal

247
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for glycopeptides?

A

G+ only, ONLY for bacteria that can be MRSA/beta-lactam resistant

248
Q

Which animals can not have glycopyrolates?

A

food producing animals

249
Q

What are some potential drug interactions with glycopeptides?

A

increased risk of nephrotoxic effects

250
Q

What is the MOA of bacitracin?

A

binds to isoprenyl phosphate and prevents synthesis of glycopeptide units

251
Q

What is bacitracin effective against?

A

mainly G+, especially clostridium

252
Q

How is bacitracin administered?

A

topically, poorly absorbed PO but used for GI sterilization

253
Q

What are some side effects of bacitracin?

A

nephrotoxicity if given systemically (not a concern if given topically or PO)

254
Q

What are some drug interactions of bacitracin?

A

divalent cations required for activity, often complexed with zinc

255
Q

What is bacitracin used for clinically in horses?

A

colitis X - C. difficile

256
Q

What is the MOA of polymixins?

A

cationic detergents that interact with phospholipid bacterial (and mammalian) cell membrane, bactericidal

257
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for polymyxins?

A

G- including pseudomonas aeruginosa

258
Q

What are some dosage considerations of polymixins?

A

no oral or topical absorption, to potentate action its given with bacitracin

259
Q

What are some side effects of polymyxins?

A

one of the most nephrotoxic drugs, neurotoxic

260
Q

What is polymyxin B used for?

A

skin, ophthalmic, otic, GI sterilization

261
Q

What is the MOA of tetracycline?

A

interfere with transfer of RNA by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, bactiriostatic

262
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of tetracycline?

A

broad based, all intracellular bacteria

263
Q

What are some factors of absorption of tetracyclines?

A

give 1 hr before food and NOT with Ca

264
Q

What is the distribution of tetracyclines?

A

very lipid soluble, distributed throughout body

265
Q

What is the metabolism like of tetracyclines?

A

not metabolized

266
Q

How are tetracyclines excreted?

A

bile via enterohepatic circulation

267
Q

What are some adverse effects or tetracyclines?

A

yellowing of teeth and bones, cessation of bone growth, cardiovascular collapse, IV doxy in horses is FATAL

268
Q

How do tetracyclines interact with penicillins?

A

in vivo = antagonism

269
Q

What is the DOC for hemobartonellosis in cats (mycoplasma hemofelis)?

A

doxycycline

270
Q

What is the DOC for ehrlichia canis?

A

doxycycline

271
Q

How is minocycline different from the other tetracyclines?

A

more lipid soluble, better in renal patients

272
Q

What is tetracycline used for?

A

URT infections

273
Q

What is oxytetracycline used for?

A

resp, GI, UT infections, dermatological immune mediated conditions, angular limb deformities in horses, lepto

274
Q

What is chlortetracycline used for?

A

growth promoter

275
Q

What is the MOA of amphenicols?

A

inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit peptide bond formation

276
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of amphenicols?

A

broad, bacteriostatic, very lipophilic so can get into cell walls easily

277
Q

Where is palmate hydrolyzed?

278
Q

Where is succinate hydrolyzed?

279
Q

How are amphenicols absorbed?

A

absorbed well PO,

280
Q

When is chloral administration illegal?

A

PO in ruminants

281
Q

How are amphenicols distributed?

A

very lipid soluble, widely spread

282
Q

Where are amphenicols metabolized?

283
Q

Where are amphenicols excreted?

A

tubular secretion

284
Q

What is chloramphenicol used for?

A

conjunctivitis in dogs and cats

285
Q

What is a side effect of florfenicol?

A

testicular atrophy

286
Q

What is the MOA of macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

bind to 50S ribosomal subunit

287
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

narrow, mainly G-

288
Q

What does clindamycin act against?

289
Q

how are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins distributed?

A

widely throughout body, very lipophilic = no preggo or food animals

290
Q

Where are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins metabolized?

291
Q

How are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins eliminated?

292
Q

What are some side effects to macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

reaction at injection site, cariotoxicity

293
Q

What are some drug interactions of macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

erythromycin inhibits microsomal enzymes, increases half lives

294
Q

What is erythromycin used for?

A

URI, rhodococcus equi, growth promotion, mastitis, respiratory disease

295
Q

What is tylosin used for?

A

URI, liver abscesses, pneumonia

296
Q

What are tilmicosin and tularthromycin used for?

A

metaphylaxisis in newly arrived feedlot cattle

297
Q

What is oleandomycin used for?

A

growth promotion

298
Q

What is azithromycin used for?

A

rhodococcus equi

299
Q

What is lincomycin used for?

A

growth promoter in chicken

300
Q

What is pirlamycin used for?

A

intrammammary for mastitis in cattle

301
Q

What is clindamycin used for?

A

osteomyelitis, skin, wound and periodontal infections

302
Q

What is the MOA of streptogramins?

A

type A (75%) changes conformation of 50S ribosomal subunit which potentiates action of type B (25%) - bactericidal

303
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of streptogramins?

A

mainly G- aerobes and anaerobes, including MRSA

304
Q

What is virginiamycin used for?

A

growth promoter in swine, in chickens a growth promoter and necrotic enteritis

305
Q

What is the MOA of amino glycosides?

A

bind 30S ribosomal subunit and prevent tRNA attachment - bactericidal

306
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of amino glycosides?

A

G- aerobes including pseudomonas, see a post antibiotic effect and synergism with penicillin

307
Q

How are amino glycosides absorbed?

A

poorly PO, usually IM or SC

308
Q

How are amino glycosides distributed?

A

mainly to ECF

309
Q

How are amino glycosides metabolized?

A

NO metabolism

310
Q

How are amino glycosides eliminated?

A

glomerular filtration

311
Q

What are some side effects of amino glycosides?

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

312
Q

When is gentamycin used?

A

urinary, respiratory or skin in dogs, cats, or IU in horses for endometritis, metritis, pyometra

313
Q

What is one caution with neomycin?

A

do NOT use systemically, chance of toxicity is much higher

314
Q

When is dihydrostreptomycin used?

A

mastitis in cows and lepto in other species

315
Q

What is spectinomycin used for?

A

bovine respiratory disease

316
Q

What precaution must be taken with spectinomycin?

A

residues in food animals

317
Q

What is the MOA of sulfonamides?

A

competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA

318
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for sulfonamides?

A

broad, bacteriostatic OR bactericidal with DHFR

319
Q

What is the resistance like for sulfonamides?

A

inactivated in pus (PABA)

320
Q

What is the absorption of sulfonamides like?

A

high PO except sulfasalazine

321
Q

What is the distribution of sulfonamides like?

A

all tissues

322
Q

What is the metabolism of sulfonamides like?

A

faster in herbivores than in carnivores and omnivores

323
Q

How are sulfonamides eliminated?

A

glomerular filtration and tubular secretion

324
Q

What are some side effects of sulfonamides?

A

crystalluria, hematuria, renal tubule blockage, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, diarrhea

325
Q

What is sulfasalazine used for?

A

colitis in horses

326
Q

What is pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine used for?

A

equine protozoal myeloencephalitis

327
Q

What is the MOA of DHER inhibitors?

A

inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

328
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of DHER inhibitors?

329
Q

What is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?

A

inhibit DNA gyrase to result in failure of DNA super helix formation

330
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of fluoroquinolones?

A

aerobic G-

331
Q

What are fluoroquiolones inactivated by?

A

pus, cations, low pH

332
Q

Which species has the slowest absorption of fluoroquinolones?

333
Q

Where are fluoroquinolones NOT distributed to?

334
Q

How is difloxacin excreted?

335
Q

What are some side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

decreases growth in young, blindness, CNS excitement

336
Q

What are some clinical uses of fluoroquinolones?

A

skin and soft tissue pyoderma, bone infections,

337
Q

What precaution must be taken with baytril in cattle?

A

do not deviate from usage directions, illegal

338
Q

What species are nitroimidazoles used in?

A

NOT food animals — banned

339
Q

What is the MOA of nitromidizoles?

A

damages DNA and DNA repair enzymes

340
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of nitromidazoles?

341
Q

What is the resistance of nitromidizoles?

A

cross resistance - banned in food animals

342
Q

How does food affect the absorption of nitromidizoles?

343
Q

What are some side effects of nitromidizoles?

A

carcinogenic, neurotoxicosis

344
Q

What can be given to decrease the neurotoxicosis of itromidizoles?

345
Q

What are nitromidazoles used for in small animals?

A

bacterial infections, protozoal infections, IBD

346
Q

What are nitromidazoles used for in horses?

A

anaerobic bacterial infections

347
Q

What are nitromidazoles used for in pigeons?

A

trichomoniasis

348
Q

What species are nitrofurans used in?

A

NOT food animals bc carcinogenic

349
Q

How are nitrofurans used in horses?

A

spray into wounds or oral

350
Q

When are nitrofurans most active?

A

in acid urine

351
Q

How is nitrofurantoin administered?

352
Q

How are most nitrofurans administered?

A

topicallly

353
Q

What is nitrofurantoin used for?

354
Q

What is nitrofurazone used for?

A

skin wounds

355
Q

What is furazolidine used for?

A

skin wounds NOT in food animals

356
Q

What is the MOA of novobiocin?

A

binds to DNA gyrase to inhibit DNA repair and transcription

357
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of novobiocin?

358
Q

What should novobiocin not be mixed with?

A

macrolides

359
Q

How does food effect the absorption of novobiocin?

360
Q

What is the distribution of novobiocin like?

361
Q

How is novobiocin eliminated?

362
Q

What are some side effects of novobiocin?

A

GI distrubances, skin rashes

363
Q

What is novobiocin used for in dogs?

A

kennel cough

364
Q

What is the MOA of rifampin?

A

inhibit B subunit of DNA dependent RNA polymerase

365
Q

What does rifampin work against?

A

broad, rhodococcus, fungi

366
Q

How does food effect absorption of rifampin?

367
Q

What is the PP binding like in rifampin?

368
Q

How is rifampin eliminated?

369
Q

What are some side effects of rifampin?

A

teratogenic, hepatitis, enterocolitis

370
Q

What is rifampin used for in foals?

A

rhodococcal pneumonia

371
Q

What is rifampin used for in dogs and cats?

A

fungal infections

372
Q

What is rifampin used for in birds?

A

mycobacteria infection

373
Q

What are the most common skin infections from?

A

dermatophytes, yeasts

374
Q

What is the MOA of griseofulvin?

A

disrupts the mitotic spindle stopping replication

375
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for griseofulvin?

A

organisms causing dermatophytosis and inhibits fungi growth

376
Q

What formulation of griseofulvin has a better oral bioavailability?

A

ultramicrosized (1u) > microsized (4u)

377
Q

What is the distribution of griseofulvin?

A

doesn’t get eliminated, deposited in skin, hair, nails

378
Q

What type of metabolism is seen with griseofulvin?

A

1st pass, induction of cytochrome p450

379
Q

How is griseofulvin eliminated?

A

inactive metabolites ONLY thru urine

380
Q

What are some side effects of griseofulvin?

A

GI disturbances, bone marrow suppression, teratogenic

381
Q

Why should griseofulvin be avoided in the food chain?

A

don’t know its withholding time

382
Q

What is the MOA of polyenes?

A

bind to ergosterol, disrupt phospholipids, K leaks into the cell

383
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of polyenes?

A

broad spectrum fungicidal

384
Q

What is the absorption of polyenes?

385
Q

What is the distribution of polyenes?

A

slowly released from lipid membranes = long 1/2 life

386
Q

What are some side effects of polyenes?

A

most nephrotoxic drug available -DO NOT combine with other nephrotoxic drugs

387
Q

What are some drug interactions with polyenes?

A

see additive hypokalemia with thyazide and loop diuretics

388
Q

When are polyenes used clinically?

A

only in serious fungal infections

389
Q

What is the MOA of the azoles?

A

inhibit CYP51A affecting the membrane

390
Q

What is the distribution of azoles?

A

does NOT reach the CNS

391
Q

How are azoles eliminated?

A

inactive metabolites in bile

392
Q

What are some side effects of azoles?

A

inhibition of P-glycoproteins and P450 enzymes, teratogenic, cats more sensitive

393
Q

What are some uses of azoles?

A

hyperA, systemic mycosis

394
Q

Does fluconazole get into the CNS?

395
Q

How is fluconazole eliminated?

A

active drug in urine

396
Q

What is fluconazole used for?

A

dermatophytes and systemic mycosis - u sully given with amphotericin B

397
Q

How is the absorption of itraconazole effected by food?

A

100% absorption after a meal

398
Q

How is itraconazole distributed?

A

widely, spends 4weeks in skin and nails after tx

399
Q

How is itrakonazole eliminated?

A

in bile and urine

400
Q

What is itrakonazole used for?

A

dermatophytosis, systemic mycosis, cutaneous leishmaniasis

401
Q

How is vorakonazole absorbed?

A

100% from GI - no food needed

402
Q

What species is vorakonazole used in?

403
Q

What is terbinafine used for?

A

hepatic toxicosis in dogs, facial dermatitis and pruritus in cats

404
Q

What is lufenurin used for?

A

tx of flea infestations, higher doses as an anti fungal by inhibiting chitin synthesis, endometritis in mares

405
Q

What precaution should be taken with lufenurin?

A

can cause repro issues in horses

406
Q

What is flucytosine converted to?

A

5-fluorouracil

407
Q

What is a side effect of flucytosine?

A

goes to the bone marrow - give it with amphotericin B

408
Q

What is iodide used for?

A

sporotrichiosis, nasal fungal granulomas, abortion and infertility

409
Q

What is clotrimazole used for?

A

otitis extern associated with malassezia, off label for nasal aspergillosis

410
Q

What is miconazole used for?

A

dermatophytosis

411
Q

What is enilconaole used for?

A

clean equipment, not animals

412
Q

What is nystatin used for?

A

crop mycosis, antibiotic and antiinflammatory

413
Q

How is nystatin administered?

A

topical only - systemic toxicity

414
Q

What is natamycin used for?

A

guttural pouch mycosis, dermatophytes, keratomycosis

415
Q

How is natamycin administered?

A

topical, systemic toxicity

416
Q

What is the induction phase of anticancer drugs?

A

high dosage over a short period of time in order to induce remission

417
Q

What is the maintenance phase of anticancer drugs?

A

lower dosage over longer period of time stay in remission and delay regrowth

418
Q

What is beneficial about combing anti-cancer drugs?

A

they can stop replication of cells more quickly at different stages

419
Q

Which cells are more susceptible to anti-cancer drugs?

A

continuously dividing ones - bone marrow, GI, hair follicle

420
Q

What are some side effects of anticancer drugs?

A

bine marrow suppression, alopecia

421
Q

How is the dose of anticancer drugs calculated?

A

using body surface area - due to narrow therapeutic index

422
Q

What is the MOA of alkylating agents?

A

form covalent bonds with the DNA, cross bridges between guanine

423
Q

What are the alkylating agent drugs?

A

cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, ifosfamide, carmustine

424
Q

What is a side effect of cyclophosphamide?

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

425
Q

How is cyclophosphamide activated?

A

in liver into active metabolites with antineoplastic effects

426
Q

What does cyclophosphamide used for?

A

broad spectrum

427
Q

What is isosfamide used for?

A

metastatic carcinoma and sarcoma in cats

428
Q

What precaution is taken with isosfamide?

A

give fluids with it to avoid urinary damage

429
Q

What is carmustine used for?

A

brain tumors - lipophillic (crosses BBB)

430
Q

What precaution should be taken with carmustine?

A

infuse slowly to prevent bone pain - severe bone suppression

431
Q

What drugs are platinum derivatives?

A

cisplatin, carboplatin

432
Q

What is the MOA of platinum derivatives?

A

interstrand bridges that denature DNA

433
Q

What is cisplatin used for?

A

carcinoma and sarcoma in dogs, sarcoids in cats

434
Q

What are some side effects of cisplatin?

A

nephrotoxic, emesis

435
Q

What precaution should be taken with cisplatin?

A

NOT IN CATS > fatal pulmonary edema

436
Q

What is carboplatin used for?

A

carcinoma and sarcoma in dogs

437
Q

What is a side effect of carboplatin?

A

nephrotoxic

438
Q

What precaution must be taken with carboplatin?

A

don’t give using IV sets with aluminum

439
Q

What is the MOA of doxorubricin?

A

stabilizes DNA topoisomerase 2 complex preventing replication

440
Q

What is doxorubicin used for?

A

broad spectrum

441
Q

What is a side effect of doxorubricin?

A

cumulative cardiotoxicity

442
Q

What is mitoxantrone used for?

443
Q

What is a side effect of mitoxantrone?

A

blue ring in sclera of eye, blue urine

444
Q

What is bleomyocin used for?

445
Q

What is a side effect of bleomycin?

A

use a local anesthetic before injection because it burns

446
Q

What are the cytotoxic antibiotics?

A

doxorubicin, mitoxantrone, bleomycin

447
Q

What are the antimetabolites?

A

folate anagonists = methotrexate

pyrimidine analogues = 5-fluorouracil and cytarabine

448
Q

What is methotrexate used for?

A

lymphoma or osteosarcoma

449
Q

What is methotrexate given with?

A

leucovorin AKA folonic acid

450
Q

What is 5-fluorouracil pro drug used for?

A

local treatment of skin lesions

451
Q

What are some side effects of 5-fluorouracil?

A

neurotoxic, TOXIC in CATS

452
Q

What is cytarabine used for?

453
Q

What are the plant alkaloid drugs?

A

vincristine and vinblastine

454
Q

What is the MOA of plant alkaloid drugs?

A

synchronize cells

455
Q

What are plant alkaloids used for?

A

TVT, lymphoma, mast cell tumors

456
Q

What does radioactive iodine do?

A

destroys thyroid gland

457
Q

What does mitotaine do?

A

cushings - cytotoxic effect to outer adrenal cortex

458
Q

What does piroxicam do?

A

non-selective NSAID, used in transitional cell carcinoma in dogs

459
Q

What is asparginase used for?

A

lymphoma and mast cell tumor

460
Q

What supportive therapy should be given with anticancer drugs?

A

analgesic, antiemetic, appetite stimulant, anabolic steroids

461
Q

What is the MOA of expectorants?

A

increases Amt of mucous so it can be coughed up

462
Q

What is the MOA of mucokinetics?

A

dilute the airway and make mucous more watery to use the mucocilliary escalator system and get rid of it

463
Q

What do theophylline and aminoplylline do?

A

increase beats of cilia, bronchodilator, anti inflammation, + ionotrope, vasodialate, CNS stimulation

464
Q

What do opioids do?

A

suppress cough center in medulla

465
Q

What does atropine do?

A

bronchodilatory, dries secretions

466
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

increase beta2 receptors, anti-inflammatory

467
Q

What does cromolyn sodium do?

A

mast cell stabilizer, prevents granulation by mast cell so histamine can’t cause constriction

468
Q

What is the MOA of theophylline/pentoxifylline?

A

nonselective inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme, inhibits leukotriene synthesis, stabilizes mast cells, non-selective adenosine receptors

469
Q

which drugs have chocolate toxicity in animals?

A

theobromine and caffeine

470
Q

How is theophyllene different in horses?

A

not good in COPD, narrow therapeutic index

471
Q

How is theophylline different in cattle?

A

poor bronchodilator

472
Q

How is pentoxifylline used in small animals?

A

dermatomyositis and vasculitis, FIP

473
Q

How is pentoxifylline used in horses?

A

navicular dz, laminitis, endotoxemia via reological effect

474
Q

What are some effects of doxapram?

A

CNS stimulation, increase minute ventilation, increases contractility of heart,

475
Q

What are the clinical uses of doxapram?

A

stimulate respiration due to hypoventilation

476
Q

What are some contraindications of doxapram?

A

must have clear airway, not a substitute for mechanical ventilation, seizures at large doses

Pharmacology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions