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Pharmacology > Shokry exam 2 > Flashcards

Shokry exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How do anti parasitic drugs inhibit the neuromuscular system?

A
  1. block nicotinic receptors at NMJ so ACh can’t bind
  2. depolarizing NM blockers by overstimulation
  3. bind to acetylcholinesterases to block them
  4. activate LAT1 and LAT2 at NMJ of nematodes
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2
Q

How do anti parasitic drugs inhibit the neuronal system?

A

bind to GABA for flaccid paralysis and to inhibit egg production

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3
Q

How long is the coccidia lifecycle?

A

1 week

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4
Q

When are preventatives used?

A

first 4-5 days of sexual schizogomy

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5
Q

When are treatments used?

A

last 6th or 7th day the oocyst is shed

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6
Q

What is amprolium used for?

A

prevent coccidia

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7
Q

When is decoquinate used for?

A

prevent coccidia

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8
Q

Which drug is approved for coccidia in laying hens?

A

amprolium

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9
Q

What are the ionophores?

A

monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin, narasin

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10
Q

What are ionophores used for?

A

to prevent coccidia, also growth promoters as feed additives

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11
Q

Which ionophore is approved in cattle, chickens and goats?

A

salinomycin

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12
Q

What is the MOA of sulfonamides?

A

inhibit PABA preventing formation of folic acid that parasite needs to live

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13
Q

What are sulfonamides used for?

A

prevent AND treat coccidia

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14
Q

When do sulfonamides act?

A

all 7 days of the life cycle

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15
Q

When are Robenidine, Nicarbazin, Arsanilic acid, and tetracyclines used?

A

as a feed additive for growth promotion and prevent coccidia

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16
Q

What is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

affects DNA synthesis of the parasite

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17
Q

What is the DOC for giardia? (meaning least effective)

A

metronidazole

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18
Q

What precautions must be taken when using metronidazole?

A

NOT preggos, NOT food animals

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19
Q

What are the benzimidazoles?

A

albendazole, fenbendazole

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20
Q

What is the MOA of benzimidazoles?

A

deprive parasite of energy

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21
Q

When are benzimidazoles used? When are the contraindicated?

A

for giardia as a last resort due to resistance, NOT in preggos

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22
Q

What is the DOC for amebiasis?

A

metronidazole

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23
Q

What drug can be used in preggos for amebiasis?

A

furazolidone

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24
Q

What drugs are used to treat balantidiasis?

A

metronidazole, tetracycline

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25
Q

Which drug can treat trichomoniasis in horses and dogs?

A

metronidazole

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26
Q

What is cloquinol used for?

A

diarrhea in horses due to trichomonas

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27
Q

What is carnidazole used for?

A

pigeon canker in pigeons not intended for human consumption - trichomonad columbae

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28
Q

What is the DOC for toxoplasmosis because it is MOST effective?

A

clindamycin

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29
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

inhibits protein synthesis via 50S ribosomal subunit - bacteriostatic

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30
Q

What are the organic arsenicals?

A

carbarsone, roxarsone, nitarsone (histostat)

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31
Q

What are organic arsenicals used for?

A

treat histomonas meleagridis in birds

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32
Q

What is imidocarb used for?

A

treatment of babesia in horses

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33
Q

What is oxytetracycline used for?

A

DOC to treat anaplasmosis

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34
Q

What is the MOA of oxytetracycline?

A

inhibits 30S ribosome subunit, bacteriostatic

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35
Q

What are nitazoxanide and ponazuril used for?

A

treatment of sarcocystis neurons in horses

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36
Q

What are paromomycin, azithromycin and nitazoxanide used for?

A

treatment of cryptosporidiosis

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37
Q

What is the MOA of clorsulon?

A

deprive parasite of energy

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38
Q

What is clorsulon used for?

A

treatment of facial hepatica in cattle

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39
Q

What is the MOA of albendazole?

A

binds to tubulin to decrease energy, inhibits formulin reductase

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40
Q

What life stages is albendazole active against?

A

adults only

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41
Q

What is albendazole used for?

A

broad spectrum of parasites in GI tract and lung of cattle and horses -NO preggos

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42
Q

What is dichlorophene used for?

A

for dogs treatment of taenia and dipyllidium

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43
Q

What is the MOA of praziquantel?

A

broad spectrum that damages the parasites integument

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44
Q

What is praziquantel used for in horses?

A

anoplocephala

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45
Q

What is the MOA of epsiprantel?

A

damages parasite integument, makes holes in skin

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46
Q

What is epsiprantel used for?

A

dogs and cats against taenia and dipyllidium

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47
Q

What does fenbendazole treat?

A

taenia pisiformis and other broad spectrum in dogs but NOT dipyllidium

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48
Q

What is profender a combination of?

A

emodepside and praziquantel (antinematodal and anticestodal)

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49
Q

What is profender used as?

A

spot on for cats

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50
Q

What is the MOA of profender?

A

act on LAT1 and LAT2 receptors to release PAF1 and PAF2 and cause paralysis of the nematode

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51
Q

What are endectocides used for?

A

nematodes and ectoparasites

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52
Q

What is the MOA of endectocides?

A

bind to GABA to induce paralysis and inhibit egg production

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53
Q

What does Ivermectin kill?

A

everything but flukes

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54
Q

What stage of heartworm is killed with ivermectin?

A

larvae

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55
Q

What is eprinomectin used in?

A

pur on for beef and dairy cattle, broad spectrum, lactating is ok

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56
Q

What is the name for revolution?

A

selamectin

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57
Q

What is milbemycin oxide used for?

A

prevention of heartworm, broad parasitic

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58
Q

What is moxidectin used for?

A

broad spectrum in cattle and horses, heartworm in dogs

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59
Q

What is advantage multi a combination of?

A

imidacloprid and moxidectin

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60
Q

What does advantage multi protect against?

A

heartworm and ectoparasite

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61
Q

What is the MOA of albendazole?

A

inhibits energy metabolism,

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62
Q

When is albendazole contraindicated?

A

teratogenic, NOT in first 45 days of pregnancy

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63
Q

What is albendazole used for?

A

broad spectrum anti parasitic for cows - not female dairy cattle of breeding age

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64
Q

What is the MOA of fenbendazole?

A

inhibits reproduction of parasite

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65
Q

When is fenbendazole used?

A

broad spectrum anti parasitic in dogs, horses, cattle, swine - NOT dipyllidium, only taenia pisiformis

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66
Q

What is oxybendazole used for in cattle?

A

moniezia benedini

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67
Q

What is the safety margin of febantel?

A

wide safety margin

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68
Q

What is the safety margin like for levasmisole?

A

narrow safety margin because it can act on host receptors

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69
Q

What does levasmisole act on?

A

GI roundworms and lungworms

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70
Q

What is the MOA of pyrantel and morantel?

A

depolarizing NMB, remain in GI tract, localized

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71
Q

What is pyrantel used for?

A

broad spectrum, kills horse tapeworm anoplocephala at high doses

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72
Q

What is morantel used for?

A

GI nematodes in cattle and goats - ok if lactating

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73
Q

Why is dichlorvos extra safe?

A

it doesn’t get absorbed, remains in GI tract

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74
Q

What is the MOA of piperazine?

A

competitive NMB (non-depolarizing)

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75
Q

Which drug is approved in chickens and turkeys?

A

piperazine

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76
Q

Which drug is an adulticidal treatment therapy for heartworm?

A

melarsomine IM (immiticide)

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77
Q

Which drug is the microfilaricidal treatment for heart worm?

A

ivermectin / milbemycin

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78
Q

What are the best prevention drugs for heartworm?

A

ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, moxidectin, selamectin

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79
Q

What are the classes of autocoids?

A

serotonin, peptides, histamine, prostaglandins

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80
Q

What drugs are serotonin agonists?

A

cisapride and fluoxetine

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81
Q

What is cisapride used for?

A

prokinetic, appetite stimulant

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82
Q

What is the MOA of fluoxetine?

A

serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor - increases serotonin levels in the brain

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83
Q

What is fluoxetine used for?

A

antidepressant for separation anxiety in dogs, aggression in cats

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84
Q

What autocoids are serotonin antagonists?

A

cyproheptadine, ondansetron, metoclopramide, mirtazapine

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85
Q

What is cyproheptadine used for?

A

appetite stimulant, tx of seratonin syndrome in dogs, pituitary pars intermedia in horses

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86
Q

What is ondansetron used for?

A

antiemetic, prevention and tx of chemotherapy induced vomiting

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87
Q

What is the MOA of metoclopramide?

A

5HT4 agonist to move GI tract and 5HT3 antagonist to prevent vomiting

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88
Q

What is metoclopramide used for?

A

anti-emetic, prokinetic, tx of agalactica in horses

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89
Q

What is mirtazapine used for?

A

appetite stimulant, anti-emetic, antidepressant

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90
Q

What is the MOA of maropitant citrate?

A

NK1 antagonist

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91
Q

What do you use maropitant citrate for?

A

motion sickness and vomiting from viral infections or anti-cancer therapy

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92
Q

What do you use ACE inhibitors for?

A

hypertension or heart failure to decrease preload

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93
Q

What are the angiotension-II receptor antagonists?

A

-artan

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94
Q

What are angiotension-II receptor antagonists used for?

A

hypertension

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95
Q

What does the H1 receptor do?

A

inflammation/anaphylaxis/allergies

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96
Q

What does the H2 receptor do?

A

gastric acid secretions

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97
Q

What does the H3 receptor do?

A

inhibits NT release of histamine

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98
Q

What does the H4 receptor do?

A

inflammation

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99
Q

What are the 1st generation H1 antagonists?

A

diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, hydroxyzine, trimeprazine, cyproheptadine

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100
Q

What are the second generation H1 antagonists?

A

terfenadine, astemizole, loratadine, fexofenadine

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101
Q

What is the difference between first and second generation H1 antagonists?

A

second generation do NOT cross the BBB so they are NOT sedating

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102
Q

What are the H2 antagonists?

A

cimetidine, nizatidine, ranitidine, famotidine

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103
Q

Which H antagonists are mostly enzyme inducers?

A

H1

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104
Q

What is diphenhydramine used for?

A

anti-emetic, antitussive, sedative

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105
Q

What side effect do first generation H1 antagonists have in cats?

A

paradoxical excitement

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106
Q

What are rinitidine and nizatidine used for?

A

prokinetics

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107
Q

Which H2 antagonist is used to treat equine melanoma?

A

cimetidine

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108
Q

What is a side effect of H2 antagonists?

A

hypersecretion

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109
Q

What is the most common side effect of prostaglandins?

A

abortions

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110
Q

What are the prostaglandin inhibitors?

A

COX inhibitors, phospholipase A2 inhibitors

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111
Q

What are the leukotriene inhibitors?

A

zafirlukast, zileuton

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112
Q

What are zafirlukast and zileuton used for?

A

prevention of bronchoconstriction in bronchial asthma

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113
Q

What is misoprosterol used for?

A

PO as an anti ulcer drug

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114
Q

What is the DOC for NSAID induced ulcers?

A

misoprosterol

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115
Q

What is fluprostenol used for?

A

repro synchronization, causes luteolysis

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116
Q

What is latanoprost (ravoprost or bimatoprost) used for?

A

open angle glaucoma

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117
Q

What is the MOA of latanoprost (ravoprost or bimatoprost)?

A

increase uveoscleral aqueous outflow

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118
Q

What is travoprost (luprositl) used for?

A

open angle glaucoma

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119
Q

What is etiproston used for?

A

synchronize estrus cycle

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120
Q

What is oxlacilinib (apequel) used for?

A

treatment of pruritus in dogs

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121
Q

What is the MOA of oxlacilinib?

A

JAK inhibitor

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122
Q

How do corticosteroids affect glucose metabolism?

A

antagonize insulin

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123
Q

What are the physiological effects of insulin?

A

anabolic and anti-catabolic for all nutrients, increases uptake of K into cells

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124
Q

What does insulin stimulate?

A

glycogenesis, lipogenesis, protein synthesis

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125
Q

What does insulin inhibit?

A

glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis

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126
Q

What stimulates insulin secretion?

A

high glucose, AA, fatty acids, ketones,

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127
Q

What inhibits insulin secretion?

A

somatostatin, low BG

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128
Q

What happens in primary DM(insulin dependent)?

A

lack of insulin from destruction of beta cells

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129
Q

How do you treat primary DM if not an emergency?

A

insulin replacement therapy, decrease caloric intake, high fiber diet

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130
Q

What happens in secondary DM(non-insulin dependent)?

A

insulin higher or lower than normal with hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance or lack of insulin receptor response

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131
Q

How do you treat secondary DM if not an emergency?

A

oral hypoglycemics, treat obesity, high fiber diet

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132
Q

How do you treat primary DM if in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

regular insulin IV, fluid therapy, correct systemic acidosis, high fiber diet

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133
Q

What are some adverse effects of insulin tx?

A

hypoglycemia and insulin shock, hypokalemia, hypersensitivity, insulin resistance

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134
Q

How do you treat hypoglycemia if you overdose insulin?

A

dextrose PO or IV, glucagon IM

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135
Q

What is glipizide used for?

A

oral hypoglycemic in non-insulin dependent DM

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136
Q

What is the somogyi overdosing of insulin?

A

insulin induced hyperglycemia, initial hypoglycemia leading to hyperglycemia w/i 24 hrs

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137
Q

What type of insulin should be used after a diabetic coma?

A

isophane insulin

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138
Q

When do you use regular human insulin, lispro or aspart?

A

IM,IV, SQ in emergency diabetic ketoacidosis, has a fast onset and short acting

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139
Q

When do you use isoprene, porcine insulin zinc suspension or vetsulin?

A

SQ in stable patients, longer onset but still short acting

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140
Q

When do you use protamine zinc, glargine, or detemir?

A

SQ in stable patients, best for cats since it has a long onset but is longer acting so it can be given just once a day

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141
Q

What drug is the only oral hypoglycemic?

A

glipizide, or glyburide

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142
Q

What is the MOA of glipizide/glyburide?

A

stimulate basal insulin secretion

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143
Q

What are some side effects of glizipizide/glyburide?

A

nausea, hypoglycemia

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144
Q

When should you not use glipizide/glyburide?

A

animals in renal or hepatic insufficiency or preggo

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145
Q

What is the MOA of acarbose?

A

competitively inhibit pancreatic a-amylase and a-glucosidases, decreases rate and amount of glucose absorption from the GI tract

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146
Q

What is acarbose used for?

A

antihyperglycemic in mild hyperglycemia in diabetics but NOT a hypoglycemic agent

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147
Q

What is the MOA of glucagon?

A

increases CAMP inhibiting release of insulin, glucagon, growth hormone, and GI hormones

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148
Q

What is glucagon used for?

A

insulin induced hypoglycemia if dextrose isn’t available, cardiac stimulate and tx of bovine ketosis

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149
Q

What is the MOA of somatostatin?

A

inhibits release of insulin, glucagon, growth hormone and GI hormones

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150
Q

What is somatostatin used for?

A

management of insulinomas and gastrinomas in dogs

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151
Q

What is diazoxide?

A

a nondiuretic thiazide thats insoluble in water

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152
Q

What is the MOA of diazoxide?

A

inhibits insulin release from beta cells and stimulates the release of catecholamines to increase BG

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153
Q

What is diazoxide used for?

A

PO to treat insulinomas

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154
Q

What species are insulinomas common in?

A

ferrets

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155
Q

What are antimicrobial drugs?

A

kill or inhibit growth and replication of microorganisms in living tissue

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156
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

natural substances secreted by live organisms to inhibit other species (can be synthetic and semisynthetic)

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157
Q

What are antiseptics?

A

nonselective, toxic chemicals that can be applied to skin to kill microorganisms but NOT given PO

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158
Q

What do broad spectrum antibiotics act against?

A

G+ AND G- bacteria

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159
Q

What do narrow spectrum antibiotics act against

A

G+ OR G- bacteria - not both

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160
Q

How do bactericidal drugs work?

A

kills the bacteria

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161
Q

How do bacteriostatic drugs work?

A

stop bacterial growth or replication (must have good immune system)

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162
Q

What are the possible MOAs of antibiotics?

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis, disruption of cell wall membranes, inhibition of protein synthesis, inhibition of DNA synthesis/function

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163
Q

Which MOA of antibiotics is least toxic?

A

inhibition of cell wall synthesis since mammalian cells don’t have a cell wall

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164
Q

What is a side effect of bacitracin?

A

nephrotoxic

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165
Q

How are drugs that disrupt the cell membranes administered?

A

narrow therapeutic index - too toxic to be given anything other than topically

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166
Q

Which MOA of antibiotics is potentially carcinogenic?

A

inhibition of DNA synthesis/function

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167
Q

What precaution must be taken when giving nephrotoxic drugs?

A

never give 2 nephrotoxic drugs together

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168
Q

Which drugs damage renal tubular epithelial cells?

A

aminoglycosides, polymixins, tetracyclins, loop or osmotic diuretics with aminoglycosides

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169
Q

Which drugs damage CD and distal tubular structures?

A

sulfonamides (induce crystalluria)

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170
Q

Which antibiotics cause ototoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides

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171
Q

Which antibiotics cause CNS excitement in horses?

A

penicillin G

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172
Q

Which antibiotics can cause hypersensitivity reactions?

A

penicillin G

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173
Q

What are the two types of resistance?

A

acquired and intrinsic

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174
Q

What is acquired resistance?

A

bacteria mutates their DNA or acquires other DNA to survive

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175
Q

What is intrinsic resistance?

A

a bacteria doesn’t possess the structure the drug effects

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176
Q

What is a problem with pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

extremely resistant

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177
Q

What are the different ways to use antibiotics?

A

treatment, metaphylaxis, prophylaxis, growth promotion

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178
Q

What is the MOA of penicillins?

A

bacteriocidal, inhibits production of cell wall

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179
Q

What are the types of narrow based penicillins?

A

natural or semisynthetic

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180
Q

What are the types of broad based penicillins?

A

semisynthetic

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181
Q

Which penicillins are reserved for pseudomonas infections?

A

ticarcillin, piperacillin

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182
Q

What makes bacteria resistant to penicillin?

A

beta-lactamase

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183
Q

Are penicillins acidic or basic?

A

acidic

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184
Q

How do you get a synergistic effect with penicillins?

A

administer at the same time but DO NOT mix in the same bottle or they precipitate

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185
Q

What is the post antibiotic effect of penicillins?

A

some drugs can keep working even after administration has stopped

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186
Q

Do penicillins cross barriers?

A

NO - poor penetration to CSF

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187
Q

How are penicillins excreted?

A

kidneys, high concentration in urine (makes it good to treat UTI)

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188
Q

What are the adverse reactions to penicillin?

A

hypersensitivity in horses, clostridium overgrowth in GPs

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189
Q

How do penicillins interact with amino glycosides?

A

in vitro = antagonism, in vivo = synergism

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190
Q

How does giving probenecid with penicillins effect them?

A

blocks secretion -> longer DOA

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191
Q

Which drugs can be given with penicillins to increase its effect?

A

beta-lactamase

192
Q

What is penicillin G used for?

A

large animals mostly, G+ aerobes, anaerobes, and at high doses G- anaerobes

193
Q

How is penicillin V administered and in what species?

A

PO NOT in horses

194
Q

What are anti-pseudomonas penicillins combined with?

A

clavulanic acid or tazobactum

195
Q

What are the beta lactamase stable penicillins?

A

cloxacillin, dicloxacillin

196
Q

What are beta lactamase stable penicillins used for?

A

MRSA

197
Q

How does the oral bioavailability of ampicillin change when given with food?

A

it decreases

198
Q

When is ampicillin contraindicated?

A

PO in horses and ruminants, in cats with renal impairment

199
Q

When should amoxicillin not be used?

A

PO to horses and ruminants

200
Q

What should clavamox be saved for?

A

cases of known or likely B lactamase resistant infections

201
Q

What is the MOA of cephalosporins?

A

bactericidal by making a pore in the wall

202
Q

What do 1st generation cephalosporins cover?

A

G+ and G-

203
Q

What do 2nd generation cephalosporins cover?

A

G+, G-, anaerobes

204
Q

What do 3rd generation cephalosporins cover?

A

G-, anaerobes

205
Q

What do 4th generation cephalosporins cover?

A

G+, G-

206
Q

What are some dosage considerations for cephalosporins?

A

drug concentration above MIC for 50% of the dosing interval

207
Q

Which animals are cephalosporins well absorbed in?

A

small animals, poorly absorbed in horses

208
Q

Are cephalosporins protein bound?

A

variable depending on the drug

209
Q

Where are cephalosporins metabolized?

A

the liver

210
Q

Where are cyclosporine eliminated?

A

80% in the bile

211
Q

What are some side effects of cyclosporin?

A

clostridium overgrowth in Gpigs

212
Q

How do cyclosporine interact with amino glycosides?

A

antagonists in vitro, synergists in vivo

213
Q

How are cephadroxil and cephalexin administered?

A

PO

214
Q

What are cephadroxil and cephalexin used to treat?

A

dermal, urinary, respiratory

215
Q

What is cephazolin used for?

A

prophylaxis in orthopedic surgery

216
Q

How is cephapirin administered?

A

intramammary

217
Q

When is cephapirin contraindicated?

A

food producing animals

218
Q

What are cefoxitin and cefotetan used for?

A

anaerobic bacterial infections

219
Q

What is cefpodoxime proxetil used to treat?

A

skin infections

220
Q

What is cefixime used to treat?

A

UTI by G- bacterial

221
Q

How is cefotaxime administered?

A

injection

222
Q

What does cefotaxime protect against?

A

G+ and G-

223
Q

How is ceftazidime administered?

A

injectable

224
Q

What does ceftazidime protect against?

A

G- ONLY use for pseudomonas

225
Q

What is ceftiofur used for?

A

respiratory infections

226
Q

How is cefovecin administered?

A

SC

227
Q

What is cefovecin used for?

A

skin infections

228
Q

How does cefovecin act w. plasma proteins?

A

99% pp bound

229
Q

What is cefepime used for?

A

antipseudomonal

230
Q

What is the MOA of carbapenems and monobactams?

A

inhibit transpeptidation (production of cell wall) by covalently binding to penicillin binding proteins

231
Q

What spectrum are carbapenems?

A

broad spectrum

232
Q

What are carbapenems NOT effective against?

A

MRSA

233
Q

What are monobactams effective against?

A

aerobic and facultative G- –> pseudomonas, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter

234
Q

Are carbapenems and monobactams bactericidal or bacteristatic?

A

bactericidal - inhibit cell wall

235
Q

What are the dosage considerations for carbapenems and monobactams?

A

post-antibiotic effect G+ > G-

236
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams absorbed?

A

anything but PO -> poor absorption

237
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams distributed?

A

widely throughout body, can cross placenta

238
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams metabolized?

A

in renal tubules dehydropeptidase decreases activity of the enzyme

239
Q

Which carbapenem and monobactams are used together to slow the inactivation?

A

cilastatin and imipenem

240
Q

How are carbapenems and monobactams eliminated?

A

renal

241
Q

How so carbapenems and monobactams interact with amino glycosides?

A

in vitro = antagonism, in vivo = synergism

242
Q

What is aztreonam used for?

A

anaerobic and facultative G- bacterial infections, pseudomonas, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter, aeromonas salmonicida

243
Q

What is imipenem administered with?

A

cilastatin

244
Q

How is meropenem different from imipenem?

A

more soluble, better tolerated than imipenem

245
Q

Which drug is used for MRSA?

A

vancomysin

246
Q

What is the MOA of glycopeptides?

A

block cell wall from forming, bactericidal

247
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for glycopeptides?

A

G+ only, ONLY for bacteria that can be MRSA/beta-lactam resistant

248
Q

Which animals can not have glycopyrolates?

A

food producing animals

249
Q

What are some potential drug interactions with glycopeptides?

A

increased risk of nephrotoxic effects

250
Q

What is the MOA of bacitracin?

A

binds to isoprenyl phosphate and prevents synthesis of glycopeptide units

251
Q

What is bacitracin effective against?

A

mainly G+, especially clostridium

252
Q

How is bacitracin administered?

A

topically, poorly absorbed PO but used for GI sterilization

253
Q

What are some side effects of bacitracin?

A

nephrotoxicity if given systemically (not a concern if given topically or PO)

254
Q

What are some drug interactions of bacitracin?

A

divalent cations required for activity, often complexed with zinc

255
Q

What is bacitracin used for clinically in horses?

A

colitis X - C. difficile

256
Q

What is the MOA of polymixins?

A

cationic detergents that interact with phospholipid bacterial (and mammalian) cell membrane, bactericidal

257
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for polymyxins?

A

G- including pseudomonas aeruginosa

258
Q

What are some dosage considerations of polymixins?

A

no oral or topical absorption, to potentate action its given with bacitracin

259
Q

What are some side effects of polymyxins?

A

one of the most nephrotoxic drugs, neurotoxic

260
Q

What is polymyxin B used for?

A

skin, ophthalmic, otic, GI sterilization

261
Q

What is the MOA of tetracycline?

A

interfere with transfer of RNA by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, bactiriostatic

262
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of tetracycline?

A

broad based, all intracellular bacteria

263
Q

What are some factors of absorption of tetracyclines?

A

give 1 hr before food and NOT with Ca

264
Q

What is the distribution of tetracyclines?

A

very lipid soluble, distributed throughout body

265
Q

What is the metabolism like of tetracyclines?

A

not metabolized

266
Q

How are tetracyclines excreted?

A

bile via enterohepatic circulation

267
Q

What are some adverse effects or tetracyclines?

A

yellowing of teeth and bones, cessation of bone growth, cardiovascular collapse, IV doxy in horses is FATAL

268
Q

How do tetracyclines interact with penicillins?

A

in vivo = antagonism

269
Q

What is the DOC for hemobartonellosis in cats (mycoplasma hemofelis)?

A

doxycycline

270
Q

What is the DOC for ehrlichia canis?

A

doxycycline

271
Q

How is minocycline different from the other tetracyclines?

A

more lipid soluble, better in renal patients

272
Q

What is tetracycline used for?

A

URT infections

273
Q

What is oxytetracycline used for?

A

resp, GI, UT infections, dermatological immune mediated conditions, angular limb deformities in horses, lepto

274
Q

What is chlortetracycline used for?

A

growth promoter

275
Q

What is the MOA of amphenicols?

A

inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit peptide bond formation

276
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of amphenicols?

A

broad, bacteriostatic, very lipophilic so can get into cell walls easily

277
Q

Where is palmate hydrolyzed?

A

SI

278
Q

Where is succinate hydrolyzed?

A

plasma

279
Q

How are amphenicols absorbed?

A

absorbed well PO,

280
Q

When is chloral administration illegal?

A

PO in ruminants

281
Q

How are amphenicols distributed?

A

very lipid soluble, widely spread

282
Q

Where are amphenicols metabolized?

A

liver

283
Q

Where are amphenicols excreted?

A

tubular secretion

284
Q

What is chloramphenicol used for?

A

conjunctivitis in dogs and cats

285
Q

What is a side effect of florfenicol?

A

testicular atrophy

286
Q

What is the MOA of macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

bind to 50S ribosomal subunit

287
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

narrow, mainly G-

288
Q

What does clindamycin act against?

A

anaerobes

289
Q

how are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins distributed?

A

widely throughout body, very lipophilic = no preggo or food animals

290
Q

Where are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins metabolized?

A

liveer

291
Q

How are macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins eliminated?

A

bile

292
Q

What are some side effects to macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

reaction at injection site, cariotoxicity

293
Q

What are some drug interactions of macrocodes, lincosamides and pleuromutilins?

A

erythromycin inhibits microsomal enzymes, increases half lives

294
Q

What is erythromycin used for?

A

URI, rhodococcus equi, growth promotion, mastitis, respiratory disease

295
Q

What is tylosin used for?

A

URI, liver abscesses, pneumonia

296
Q

What are tilmicosin and tularthromycin used for?

A

metaphylaxisis in newly arrived feedlot cattle

297
Q

What is oleandomycin used for?

A

growth promotion

298
Q

What is azithromycin used for?

A

rhodococcus equi

299
Q

What is lincomycin used for?

A

growth promoter in chicken

300
Q

What is pirlamycin used for?

A

intrammammary for mastitis in cattle

301
Q

What is clindamycin used for?

A

osteomyelitis, skin, wound and periodontal infections

302
Q

What is the MOA of streptogramins?

A

type A (75%) changes conformation of 50S ribosomal subunit which potentiates action of type B (25%) - bactericidal

303
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of streptogramins?

A

mainly G- aerobes and anaerobes, including MRSA

304
Q

What is virginiamycin used for?

A

growth promoter in swine, in chickens a growth promoter and necrotic enteritis

305
Q

What is the MOA of amino glycosides?

A

bind 30S ribosomal subunit and prevent tRNA attachment - bactericidal

306
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of amino glycosides?

A

G- aerobes including pseudomonas, see a post antibiotic effect and synergism with penicillin

307
Q

How are amino glycosides absorbed?

A

poorly PO, usually IM or SC

308
Q

How are amino glycosides distributed?

A

mainly to ECF

309
Q

How are amino glycosides metabolized?

A

NO metabolism

310
Q

How are amino glycosides eliminated?

A

glomerular filtration

311
Q

What are some side effects of amino glycosides?

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

312
Q

When is gentamycin used?

A

urinary, respiratory or skin in dogs, cats, or IU in horses for endometritis, metritis, pyometra

313
Q

What is one caution with neomycin?

A

do NOT use systemically, chance of toxicity is much higher

314
Q

When is dihydrostreptomycin used?

A

mastitis in cows and lepto in other species

315
Q

What is spectinomycin used for?

A

bovine respiratory disease

316
Q

What precaution must be taken with spectinomycin?

A

residues in food animals

317
Q

What is the MOA of sulfonamides?

A

competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA

318
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for sulfonamides?

A

broad, bacteriostatic OR bactericidal with DHFR

319
Q

What is the resistance like for sulfonamides?

A

inactivated in pus (PABA)

320
Q

What is the absorption of sulfonamides like?

A

high PO except sulfasalazine

321
Q

What is the distribution of sulfonamides like?

A

all tissues

322
Q

What is the metabolism of sulfonamides like?

A

faster in herbivores than in carnivores and omnivores

323
Q

How are sulfonamides eliminated?

A

glomerular filtration and tubular secretion

324
Q

What are some side effects of sulfonamides?

A

crystalluria, hematuria, renal tubule blockage, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, diarrhea

325
Q

What is sulfasalazine used for?

A

colitis in horses

326
Q

What is pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine used for?

A

equine protozoal myeloencephalitis

327
Q

What is the MOA of DHER inhibitors?

A

inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

328
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of DHER inhibitors?

A

broad

329
Q

What is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?

A

inhibit DNA gyrase to result in failure of DNA super helix formation

330
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of fluoroquinolones?

A

aerobic G-

331
Q

What are fluoroquiolones inactivated by?

A

pus, cations, low pH

332
Q

Which species has the slowest absorption of fluoroquinolones?

A

horses

333
Q

Where are fluoroquinolones NOT distributed to?

A

CNS, eye

334
Q

How is difloxacin excreted?

A

in bile

335
Q

What are some side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

decreases growth in young, blindness, CNS excitement

336
Q

What are some clinical uses of fluoroquinolones?

A

skin and soft tissue pyoderma, bone infections,

337
Q

What precaution must be taken with baytril in cattle?

A

do not deviate from usage directions, illegal

338
Q

What species are nitroimidazoles used in?

A

NOT food animals — banned

339
Q

What is the MOA of nitromidizoles?

A

damages DNA and DNA repair enzymes

340
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of nitromidazoles?

A

broad

341
Q

What is the resistance of nitromidizoles?

A

cross resistance - banned in food animals

342
Q

How does food affect the absorption of nitromidizoles?

A

increases

343
Q

What are some side effects of nitromidizoles?

A

carcinogenic, neurotoxicosis

344
Q

What can be given to decrease the neurotoxicosis of itromidizoles?

A

diazepam

345
Q

What are nitromidazoles used for in small animals?

A

bacterial infections, protozoal infections, IBD

346
Q

What are nitromidazoles used for in horses?

A

anaerobic bacterial infections

347
Q

What are nitromidazoles used for in pigeons?

A

trichomoniasis

348
Q

What species are nitrofurans used in?

A

NOT food animals bc carcinogenic

349
Q

How are nitrofurans used in horses?

A

spray into wounds or oral

350
Q

When are nitrofurans most active?

A

in acid urine

351
Q

How is nitrofurantoin administered?

A

PO

352
Q

How are most nitrofurans administered?

A

topicallly

353
Q

What is nitrofurantoin used for?

A

UTI

354
Q

What is nitrofurazone used for?

A

skin wounds

355
Q

What is furazolidine used for?

A

skin wounds NOT in food animals

356
Q

What is the MOA of novobiocin?

A

binds to DNA gyrase to inhibit DNA repair and transcription

357
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of novobiocin?

A

broad

358
Q

What should novobiocin not be mixed with?

A

macrolides

359
Q

How does food effect the absorption of novobiocin?

A

decreases

360
Q

What is the distribution of novobiocin like?

A

poor

361
Q

How is novobiocin eliminated?

A

bile

362
Q

What are some side effects of novobiocin?

A

GI distrubances, skin rashes

363
Q

What is novobiocin used for in dogs?

A

kennel cough

364
Q

What is the MOA of rifampin?

A

inhibit B subunit of DNA dependent RNA polymerase

365
Q

What does rifampin work against?

A

broad, rhodococcus, fungi

366
Q

How does food effect absorption of rifampin?

A

decreases

367
Q

What is the PP binding like in rifampin?

A

75-95%

368
Q

How is rifampin eliminated?

A

in bile

369
Q

What are some side effects of rifampin?

A

teratogenic, hepatitis, enterocolitis

370
Q

What is rifampin used for in foals?

A

rhodococcal pneumonia

371
Q

What is rifampin used for in dogs and cats?

A

fungal infections

372
Q

What is rifampin used for in birds?

A

mycobacteria infection

373
Q

What are the most common skin infections from?

A

dermatophytes, yeasts

374
Q

What is the MOA of griseofulvin?

A

disrupts the mitotic spindle stopping replication

375
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for griseofulvin?

A

organisms causing dermatophytosis and inhibits fungi growth

376
Q

What formulation of griseofulvin has a better oral bioavailability?

A

ultramicrosized (1u) > microsized (4u)

377
Q

What is the distribution of griseofulvin?

A

doesn’t get eliminated, deposited in skin, hair, nails

378
Q

What type of metabolism is seen with griseofulvin?

A

1st pass, induction of cytochrome p450

379
Q

How is griseofulvin eliminated?

A

inactive metabolites ONLY thru urine

380
Q

What are some side effects of griseofulvin?

A

GI disturbances, bone marrow suppression, teratogenic

381
Q

Why should griseofulvin be avoided in the food chain?

A

don’t know its withholding time

382
Q

What is the MOA of polyenes?

A

bind to ergosterol, disrupt phospholipids, K leaks into the cell

383
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of polyenes?

A

broad spectrum fungicidal

384
Q

What is the absorption of polyenes?

A

very poor

385
Q

What is the distribution of polyenes?

A

slowly released from lipid membranes = long 1/2 life

386
Q

What are some side effects of polyenes?

A

most nephrotoxic drug available -DO NOT combine with other nephrotoxic drugs

387
Q

What are some drug interactions with polyenes?

A

see additive hypokalemia with thyazide and loop diuretics

388
Q

When are polyenes used clinically?

A

only in serious fungal infections

389
Q

What is the MOA of the azoles?

A

inhibit CYP51A affecting the membrane

390
Q

What is the distribution of azoles?

A

does NOT reach the CNS

391
Q

How are azoles eliminated?

A

inactive metabolites in bile

392
Q

What are some side effects of azoles?

A

inhibition of P-glycoproteins and P450 enzymes, teratogenic, cats more sensitive

393
Q

What are some uses of azoles?

A

hyperA, systemic mycosis

394
Q

Does fluconazole get into the CNS?

A

YES

395
Q

How is fluconazole eliminated?

A

active drug in urine

396
Q

What is fluconazole used for?

A

dermatophytes and systemic mycosis - u sully given with amphotericin B

397
Q

How is the absorption of itraconazole effected by food?

A

100% absorption after a meal

398
Q

How is itraconazole distributed?

A

widely, spends 4weeks in skin and nails after tx

399
Q

How is itrakonazole eliminated?

A

in bile and urine

400
Q

What is itrakonazole used for?

A

dermatophytosis, systemic mycosis, cutaneous leishmaniasis

401
Q

How is vorakonazole absorbed?

A

100% from GI - no food needed

402
Q

What species is vorakonazole used in?

A

birds

403
Q

What is terbinafine used for?

A

hepatic toxicosis in dogs, facial dermatitis and pruritus in cats

404
Q

What is lufenurin used for?

A

tx of flea infestations, higher doses as an anti fungal by inhibiting chitin synthesis, endometritis in mares

405
Q

What precaution should be taken with lufenurin?

A

can cause repro issues in horses

406
Q

What is flucytosine converted to?

A

5-fluorouracil

407
Q

What is a side effect of flucytosine?

A

goes to the bone marrow - give it with amphotericin B

408
Q

What is iodide used for?

A

sporotrichiosis, nasal fungal granulomas, abortion and infertility

409
Q

What is clotrimazole used for?

A

otitis extern associated with malassezia, off label for nasal aspergillosis

410
Q

What is miconazole used for?

A

dermatophytosis

411
Q

What is enilconaole used for?

A

clean equipment, not animals

412
Q

What is nystatin used for?

A

crop mycosis, antibiotic and antiinflammatory

413
Q

How is nystatin administered?

A

topical only - systemic toxicity

414
Q

What is natamycin used for?

A

guttural pouch mycosis, dermatophytes, keratomycosis

415
Q

How is natamycin administered?

A

topical, systemic toxicity

416
Q

What is the induction phase of anticancer drugs?

A

high dosage over a short period of time in order to induce remission

417
Q

What is the maintenance phase of anticancer drugs?

A

lower dosage over longer period of time stay in remission and delay regrowth

418
Q

What is beneficial about combing anti-cancer drugs?

A

they can stop replication of cells more quickly at different stages

419
Q

Which cells are more susceptible to anti-cancer drugs?

A

continuously dividing ones - bone marrow, GI, hair follicle

420
Q

What are some side effects of anticancer drugs?

A

bine marrow suppression, alopecia

421
Q

How is the dose of anticancer drugs calculated?

A

using body surface area - due to narrow therapeutic index

422
Q

What is the MOA of alkylating agents?

A

form covalent bonds with the DNA, cross bridges between guanine

423
Q

What are the alkylating agent drugs?

A

cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, ifosfamide, carmustine

424
Q

What is a side effect of cyclophosphamide?

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

425
Q

How is cyclophosphamide activated?

A

in liver into active metabolites with antineoplastic effects

426
Q

What does cyclophosphamide used for?

A

broad spectrum

427
Q

What is isosfamide used for?

A

metastatic carcinoma and sarcoma in cats

428
Q

What precaution is taken with isosfamide?

A

give fluids with it to avoid urinary damage

429
Q

What is carmustine used for?

A

brain tumors - lipophillic (crosses BBB)

430
Q

What precaution should be taken with carmustine?

A

infuse slowly to prevent bone pain - severe bone suppression

431
Q

What drugs are platinum derivatives?

A

cisplatin, carboplatin

432
Q

What is the MOA of platinum derivatives?

A

interstrand bridges that denature DNA

433
Q

What is cisplatin used for?

A

carcinoma and sarcoma in dogs, sarcoids in cats

434
Q

What are some side effects of cisplatin?

A

nephrotoxic, emesis

435
Q

What precaution should be taken with cisplatin?

A

NOT IN CATS > fatal pulmonary edema

436
Q

What is carboplatin used for?

A

carcinoma and sarcoma in dogs

437
Q

What is a side effect of carboplatin?

A

nephrotoxic

438
Q

What precaution must be taken with carboplatin?

A

don’t give using IV sets with aluminum

439
Q

What is the MOA of doxorubricin?

A

stabilizes DNA topoisomerase 2 complex preventing replication

440
Q

What is doxorubicin used for?

A

broad spectrum

441
Q

What is a side effect of doxorubricin?

A

cumulative cardiotoxicity

442
Q

What is mitoxantrone used for?

A

broad

443
Q

What is a side effect of mitoxantrone?

A

blue ring in sclera of eye, blue urine

444
Q

What is bleomyocin used for?

A

SSC

445
Q

What is a side effect of bleomycin?

A

use a local anesthetic before injection because it burns

446
Q

What are the cytotoxic antibiotics?

A

doxorubicin, mitoxantrone, bleomycin

447
Q

What are the antimetabolites?

A

folate anagonists = methotrexate

pyrimidine analogues = 5-fluorouracil and cytarabine

448
Q

What is methotrexate used for?

A

lymphoma or osteosarcoma

449
Q

What is methotrexate given with?

A

leucovorin AKA folonic acid

450
Q

What is 5-fluorouracil pro drug used for?

A

local treatment of skin lesions

451
Q

What are some side effects of 5-fluorouracil?

A

neurotoxic, TOXIC in CATS

452
Q

What is cytarabine used for?

A

lymphoma

453
Q

What are the plant alkaloid drugs?

A

vincristine and vinblastine

454
Q

What is the MOA of plant alkaloid drugs?

A

synchronize cells

455
Q

What are plant alkaloids used for?

A

TVT, lymphoma, mast cell tumors

456
Q

What does radioactive iodine do?

A

destroys thyroid gland

457
Q

What does mitotaine do?

A

cushings - cytotoxic effect to outer adrenal cortex

458
Q

What does piroxicam do?

A

non-selective NSAID, used in transitional cell carcinoma in dogs

459
Q

What is asparginase used for?

A

lymphoma and mast cell tumor

460
Q

What supportive therapy should be given with anticancer drugs?

A

analgesic, antiemetic, appetite stimulant, anabolic steroids

461
Q

What is the MOA of expectorants?

A

increases Amt of mucous so it can be coughed up

462
Q

What is the MOA of mucokinetics?

A

dilute the airway and make mucous more watery to use the mucocilliary escalator system and get rid of it

463
Q

What do theophylline and aminoplylline do?

A

increase beats of cilia, bronchodilator, anti inflammation, + ionotrope, vasodialate, CNS stimulation

464
Q

What do opioids do?

A

suppress cough center in medulla

465
Q

What does atropine do?

A

bronchodilatory, dries secretions

466
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

increase beta2 receptors, anti-inflammatory

467
Q

What does cromolyn sodium do?

A

mast cell stabilizer, prevents granulation by mast cell so histamine can’t cause constriction

468
Q

What is the MOA of theophylline/pentoxifylline?

A

nonselective inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme, inhibits leukotriene synthesis, stabilizes mast cells, non-selective adenosine receptors

469
Q

which drugs have chocolate toxicity in animals?

A

theobromine and caffeine

470
Q

How is theophyllene different in horses?

A

not good in COPD, narrow therapeutic index

471
Q

How is theophylline different in cattle?

A

poor bronchodilator

472
Q

How is pentoxifylline used in small animals?

A

dermatomyositis and vasculitis, FIP

473
Q

How is pentoxifylline used in horses?

A

navicular dz, laminitis, endotoxemia via reological effect

474
Q

What are some effects of doxapram?

A

CNS stimulation, increase minute ventilation, increases contractility of heart,

475
Q

What are the clinical uses of doxapram?

A

stimulate respiration due to hypoventilation

476
Q

What are some contraindications of doxapram?

A

must have clear airway, not a substitute for mechanical ventilation, seizures at large doses

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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