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Shokry exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Type of anemia seen in piglets if they don’t have access to soil

A

microcytic anemia

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2
Q

This mineral is necessary for iron absorption

A

copper

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3
Q

In order for iron to get to bloodstream it must attach to

A

transferrin

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4
Q

In order for iron to get through the epithelial cell it must attach to

A

ferritin

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5
Q

Do heavy metals cross the BBB?

A

NO

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6
Q

Which drug given for microcytic anemia must by given PO?

A

ferrous

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7
Q

Which is less irritating, organic or inorganic iron?

A

organic is LESS irritating

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8
Q

Which is less irritating and astringent, ferrous or ferric?

A

ferrous is LESS irritating and astringent

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9
Q

What is the antidote for an overdose in microcytic anemia drugs?

A

chelating agent to bind to Fe and make an inactive glob

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10
Q

What drugs are used for microcytic anemia?

A

Iron carbohydrate complexes (iron dextran), ferrous chloride/phosphate/sulfate, copper sulfate, copper glycinate

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11
Q

What must be given with drugs for microcytic anemia and what is its side effect?

A

carbohydrate, can cause anaphylactic reaction

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12
Q

What drug is used for macrocytic anemia?

A

cobalt supplement in horses

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13
Q

What drugs are used for normocytic anemia?

A

erythropoetin(DOC) and epogen, give iron supplement, anabolic steroids possible but not suggested

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14
Q

What is one major side effect of epogen?

A

hypersensitivity, hypertension and increased BP

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15
Q

What drugs are used in immune mediated hemolytic anemia?

A

supportive treatment, blood transfusion, immunosuppressives, IV gamma globulin

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16
Q

What is often used in blood transfusions for animals suffering immune mediated hemolytic anemia?

A

hemoglobin glutamer - 200 bovine (oxyglobine)

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17
Q

What are the CSF drugs?

A

filgrastim (G-CSF) and sargramostim (GM-CSF)

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18
Q

Which CSF only stimulates neutrophils?

A

filgrastin

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19
Q

What is a side effect of using CSFs?

A

bone pain

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20
Q

How is epinephrine given as a local hemostatic?

A

topically only

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21
Q

What are the local hemostatic vasoconstrictor drugs?

A

epinephrine and clot-it-plus

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22
Q

What are the local hemostatic astringent drugs?

A

tannic acid and ferric chloride

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23
Q

What are the local hemostatic surgical drugs?

A

oxidized cellulose, gelatin sponge, and collagen

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24
Q

What are the local hemostatic physiological drugs?

A

thromboplastin, thrombin, fibronogen, and fibrin foam

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25
Q

A soft clot is made out of

A

fibrin

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26
Q

A hard clot is made out of

A

cross linked fibrin

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27
Q

Removes the thrombus

A

plasmin

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28
Q

Side effect of epinephrine and the reason you don’t want to use systemically

A

tachycardia

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29
Q

Method of action for Clot-it-plus

A

acts on a1 receptors and ester conformation of benzocaine (makes numb)

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30
Q

Application of astringents is

A

topical

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31
Q

Method of action for surgical hemostatics

A

speeds up clotting process by stimulating clotting process

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32
Q

Why do you not use physiological hemostatics systemically?

A

causes intravascular thrombosis

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33
Q

What are the systemic hemostatic drugs?

A

blood transfusion, FFF, vit K, protamine sulfate, aminocaproic acid, desmopressin (DDAVP)

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34
Q

What is the other name for vit K1 and where does it come from?

A

phytonadione from plant origin

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35
Q

What is the other name for Vit K2 and where does it come from?

A

menaquinone from bacteria in GI tract

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36
Q

What is the other name for vit K3 and where does it come from?

A

menadione, synthetic - weakest

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37
Q

What is the MOA of vit K?

A

stimulates formation of factors 2,7,9,10

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38
Q

What is vit K1 an antidote for?

A

warfarin poisoning but takes 24 hours to act

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39
Q

What is important for Vit K tx to be effective?

A

a functioning liver

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40
Q

What Vit can you not use in horses?

A

K3 causes renal failure

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41
Q

Is protamine sulfate acidic or basic?

A

strongly basic

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42
Q

What is protamine sulfate an antidote for?

A

heparin to prevent bleeding by chemical antagonism

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43
Q

What are symptoms of overdose in protamine sulfate?

A

increased bleeding

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44
Q

What are some important uses of aminocaproic acid?

A

antagonism of the fibrinolytic actions of thrombolytic agents, tx of degenerative myelopathy in german shepherds

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45
Q

What is a clinical use for desmopressin?

A

control bleeding in dobermans w/ VWD but only lasts 2 hours

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46
Q

What are the anticoagulant drugs?

A

heparin and warfarin

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47
Q

What is the method of action of heparin?

A

activates antithromin III resulting in inhibition of factors II, 9, 10, 11, 12

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48
Q

How id heparin administered?

A

IV or SC ONLY

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49
Q

Does heparin cross the placenta or get excreted in milk?

A

NO

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50
Q

Is heparin used in vivo or vitro?

A

BOTH

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51
Q

What is heparin’s safety margin like?

A

narrow, bleeding is main toxic effect

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52
Q

What is the MOA of warfarin?

A

inhibition of activation of factor 2,7,9,10 AND competitive antagonist of Vit K by inhibiting Vit K epoxide reductase

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53
Q

How long does it take warfarin to activate?

A

48hrs, given PO so slow absorption

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54
Q

How much warfarin binds to PP?

A

99%, loosely bounf to albumin, easily replaced

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55
Q

Does warfarin cross the placenta or get excreted in milk?

A

YES

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56
Q

Is warfarin used in vivo or in vitro?

A

in vivo only

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57
Q

Which drugs decrease the response of warfarin?

A

enzyme inducers like phenobarbitol

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58
Q

What are the thrombocytic agent drugs?

A

streptokinase, urokinase, tPA, anistreplase

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59
Q

What is the MOA of thrombolytic agents?

A

activate conversion of plasminogen to plasmin for fibrinolysis

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60
Q

Which thrombolytic agent is most effective?

A

tPA because it binds specifically to plasminogen bound to fibrin to dissolve a thrombus

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61
Q

What is an antagonist for thrombolytic agents?

A

aminocaproic acid

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62
Q

What are the anti platelet drugs?

A

aspirin, dipyridamole, abciximab, lepirudin, clopidogrel

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63
Q

What does low doses of aspirin do?

A

inhibit synthesis of TXA2 by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase - antitplatelet

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64
Q

What does high doses of aspirin do?

A

inhibits PG12 and TXA2 and can form a clot

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65
Q

Which anti platelet drug is used in cats to prevent thromboembolism?

A

clopidogrel (plavix)

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66
Q

What is the definition of diuretics?

A

drugs that increase rate of urine flow and rate of Na excretion (not cause urination)

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67
Q

What are the physiological diuretics?

A

water, sodium chloride

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68
Q

What are the cardiovascular diuretics?

A

digitalis, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, methylxanthine derivatives (caffeine/threobromine), NB

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69
Q

What are the osmotic diuretics?

A

mannitol, urea, glycerin/isosorbide

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70
Q

How is mannitol administered?

A

IV ONLY

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71
Q

What is the MOA of osmotic diuretics?

A

act on both LOH and PCT

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72
Q

What are osmotic diuretics used for?

A

cerebral edema, acute glaucoma, acute renal failure - NEVER R CHF or systemic edema

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73
Q

Which diuretics are most effective? Least effective?

A 
most = loop diuretics(aLOH), 
least = K sparing diuretics (CD & DCT)
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74
Q

What are the loop or high ceiling diuretics?

A

furosemide (lasix), bumetanide, ethacrynic acid

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75
Q

What are the thiazide diuretics?

A

hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide

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76
Q

Do loop diuretics work under conditions w/ decreased renal blood flow?

A

YES

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77
Q

Do thiazide diuretics work under conditions w/ decreased renal blood flow?

A

NO

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78
Q

Where do thiazide diuretics work?

A

on DCT - 2nd most effective

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79
Q

How are thiazide diuretics administered?

A

PO

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80
Q

How are loop diuretics administered?

A

PO or IV

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81
Q

What is the MOA for loop diuretics?

A

inhibit Na K2Cl symport on luminal membrane of aLOH inhibits paracellular reabsorption

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82
Q

What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A

inhibits the NaCl symporter in the DCT to inhibit tubular reabsorption of Na/Cl/K/Mg - also increases reabsorption of Ca

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83
Q

What are loop diuretics used for?

A

acute pulmonary edema, pulmonary congestion, generalized edema associated w/ CHF,chronic renal failure, and liver cirrhosis

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84
Q

Which diuretics would be used with an isotonic saline for hypercalcemia?

A

loop diuretics

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85
Q

Which drug is used for exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses?

A

furosemide

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86
Q

What are thiazide diuretics used for?

A

edema of CHF, liver cirrhosis, nephrogenic syndrome, acute glomerular nephritis, hypertension, nephrogenic DI, calcium nephroliathiasis, udder edema

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87
Q

What are some side effects of loop diuretics?

A

hypokalemia and systemic alkalosis, stimulates renin - angiotensin aldosterone system, hyperglycemia, systemic alkalosis

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88
Q

What are the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor drugs?

A

acetazolamide, dorzolamide, methazolamide, brinzolamide

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89
Q

What are the potassium sparing diuretics?

A

spironolactone (aldactone), triamterene, amiloride

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90
Q

Which potassium sparing drug is an aldosterone antagonist?

A

spironolactone

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91
Q

What is the MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

reversible inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, inhibits exchange of H for Na in PCT, lowers IOP

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92
Q

How is acetazolamide administered?

A

PO

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93
Q

How are dorzolamide and brinzolamide administered?

A

topically, opthalmic

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94
Q

Which carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is used in udder edema?

A

acetazolamide

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95
Q

Which carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is used in chronic glaucoma?

A

dorzolamide

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96
Q

What is the MOA for spironolactone?

A

competitively blocks aldosterone receptors in DCT and CD causing excretion of Na/Cl and retention of K/H - acidosis

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97
Q

How is spironolactone administered?

A

given PO,

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98
Q

When is spironolactone contraindicated?

A

metabolized in liver - don’t use in liver failure

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99
Q

What is spironolactone used for?

A

as a diuretic but not commonly on its own, not used in emergencies

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100
Q

What is the MOA for triamterene/amiloride?

A

blocks luminal Na channels of principle cells of late DCT & CD, excretes Na and retains K/H

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101
Q

When is triamterene contraindicated?

A

metabolized in liver - don’t use in liver failure

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102
Q

When are triamterene and amiloride used?

A

tx of hypokalemia and hypomagnesia

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103
Q

What is a side effect of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and potassium sparing diuretics?

A

systemic acidosis

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104
Q

What is natural ADH (pitressin) used for?

A

diagnosis of diabetes insipidus - short DOA

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105
Q

What drugs are used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

thiazide diuretics

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106
Q

What drugs are used to treat central diabetes insipidus?

A

vasopressin (ADH), desmopressin (DDAVP), thiazide diuretics, chlorpropamide, restrict nacl intake

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107
Q

What is desmopressin?

A

synthetic vasopressin (ADH)

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108
Q

What are the B1 agonist drugs?

A

isoproterenol, epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

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109
Q

Which B1 drug is most potent as a cardiac stimulant?

A

isoproterenol

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110
Q

Which B1 cardiac stimulant works on all adrenergic receptors?

A

epinephrine

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111
Q

Which B1 agonist cardiac stimulant is indicated for vasodilation?

A

isoproterenol

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112
Q

Which B1 agonist cardiac stimulant is the DOC for anaphylaxis?

A

epinephrine

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113
Q

Which B1 agonist cardiac stimulant is indicated in vasoconstriction and decrease bleeding?

A

norepinephrine

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114
Q

What is the MOA of dopamine?

A

increases blood flow to kidneys, vasoconstriction

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115
Q

What is the DOC as a cardiac stimulant when the heart is not contracting? Why?

A

dopamine (less tachycardias and arrhythmias)

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116
Q

What are two types of non-drug therapy for heart failure patients?

A

restricted salt diet, restricted exercise

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117
Q

What are the positive ionotropic drugs?

A

cardiac glycosides = digitalis glycosides (foxglove), digitoxin, digoxin, oaubain catecholamines = dopamine, dobutamine

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118
Q

What is the MOA of cardiac glycosides?

A

inhibits NaKATPase in myocardial cell membrane increasing Na available to exchange with Ca resulting in increase in intracellular Ca, + ionotropic effect, increases contractility, decreases HR

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119
Q

How are cardiac glycosides administered?

A

PO

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120
Q

What are the therapeutic uses for cardiac glycosides?

A

CHF, atrial arrhythmias in dogs

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121
Q

What is the most commonly used cardiac glycoside?

A

digoxin

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122
Q

What must be done to prevent digoxin toxicity?

A

monitor blood levels

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123
Q

Which positive ionotropic drugs are used only in emergencies?

A

dopamine and dobutamine

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124
Q

What effect do cardiac glycosides have at the kidney?

A

diuretic effect, increased CO = increase in GFR

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125
Q

What are the short term and long term side effects of cardiac glycosides?

A 
acute = hyperkalemia leading to bradycardia
chronic = hypokalemia leading to tachycardia
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126
Q

What drug is used to treat cardiac glycoside induced bradyarrhythmias?

A

atropine

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127
Q

What drug is used to treat cardiac glycoside induced tachyarrhythmias?

A

potassium IV slow or digoxin immune FAB

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128
Q

What are the indicator drugs?

A

pimobendan, inamrinone, milrinone

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129
Q

What is the classification for inodilators?

A

+ ionotropes and vasodilators at both veins and arteries

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130
Q

What is the MOA of inodilators?

A

sensitization of cardiac contractile apparatus to Ca by enhancing interaction of Ca and troponin C

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131
Q

What are inodilators used for?

A

tx of CHF in dogs, or dilated cardiomyopathy

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132
Q

When are inodilators contraindicated?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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133
Q

What are the ACE inhibitor drugs?

A

captopril, lisinopril, benazepril, enalapril

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134
Q

Which ACE inhibitor is excreted in bile?

A

benazepril

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135
Q

What is the MOA for ACE inhibitors?

A

inhibits angiotension converting enzyme preventing conversion of AT1->AT2 which is needed for aldosterone, vasodilator so heart is less stressed

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136
Q

What is the DOC of ACE inhibitors?

A

enalapril

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137
Q

What are the beta blocker drugs?

A

carvedilol, metoprolol, atenolol

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138
Q

What is the MOA of beta blockers?

A

decrease contractility of heart so doesn’t pump as hard, nonselective B blocker and A1 blocker, inhibits endothelia release

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139
Q

What are beta blockers used for?

A

mild CHF, blocks harmful SNS can use in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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140
Q

Class 1A

A

prolongs AP- sodium channel blocker

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141
Q

Class 1B

A

shortens AP- sodium channel blocker

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142
Q

Class 2

A

B blocker

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143
Q

Class 3

A

K channel blocker

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144
Q

Class 4

A

Ca channel blocker

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145
Q

What drugs are in class 1A?

A

quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide

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146
Q

What is the DOC for atrial fibrillation in horses?

A

quinidine - also in cattle and lg breed dogs

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147
Q

Which 1A drug is more effective for ventricular arrhythmias?

A

procainamide

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148
Q

What drugs are in class 1B?

A

lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine, aprinidine

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149
Q

How is mexiletine administered?

A

PO

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150
Q

What is the IV DOC for ventricular arrhythmias in dogs?

A

lidocaine

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151
Q

What class 1B drug is used to treat digitalis-induced arrhythmias?

A

lidocaine and phenytoin

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152
Q

What class 1B drug is used in supra ventricular and ventricular arrhythmias?

A

phenytoin

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153
Q

What effect do class 1C drugs have on the action potential?

A

none

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154
Q

What is the DOC for hypertension and tachycardia in cats with hyperthyroidism?

A

beta blockers

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155
Q

When is propranolol contraindicated?

A

asthma patients

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156
Q

How is timolol applied?

A

topical to eye only

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157
Q

Which drugs are used to treat refractory ventricular tachycardia?

A

potassium channel blockers

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158
Q

Why are potassium channel blockers not commonly used?

A

narrow safety margin, can cause bradycardia

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159
Q

Which potassium channel blocker is a non-selective beta blocker?

A

sotalol

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160
Q

What are Ca channel blockers used to treat?

A

supraventriclar tachycardia and myocardial hypertrophy

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161
Q

Which class 4 drug is used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

162
Q

Which drugs are used to treat bradyarrhythmias in cats?

A

atropine, isoproterenol, epinephrine

163
Q

Which drugs are nonselective alpha agonists?

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

164
Q

Which drugs are selective alpha 1 agonists?

A

phenylephrine

165
Q

Which drugs are direct and indirect sympathomimetics?

A

sphedrin, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine

166
Q

Which vasodilator would you use for emergency hypertension in a blocked cat to relax smooth muscle?

A

phenoxybenzamine

167
Q

Which drug is good to manage hypertension in asthmatic animals?

168
Q

What drug is used for diabetic animals to lower BG levels with B1 blockers?

169
Q

Which ACE inhibitor is the DOC as a vasodilator due to its longer duration?

170
Q

Which ACE inhibitor is best for renal patients as a vasodilator?

A

benazepril

171
Q

Which ACE inhibitor has the most side effects as a vasodilator?

172
Q

How do ACE inhibitors affect glomerular pressure?

A

lower intraglomerular pressure decreasing GFR

173
Q

How do ACE inhibitors effect bradykinin?

A

increases bradykinin

174
Q

Serum levels of what must be monitored when using ACE inhibitors?

A

serum potassium - can cause cardiac depression

175
Q

Which drug is an angiotension II antagonist?

176
Q

What is Losarten used for?

A

antihypertensive

177
Q

What drugs are direct acting vasodilators?

A

hydralazine, nitrates, sodium nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate

178
Q

Which direct acting vasodilator only works on the arteries NOT the veins?

A

hydralazine

179
Q

What is the MOA of hydralazine?

A

inhibits Ca into smooth muscle of arteries to make them dilate

180
Q

Which direct acting vasodilator is given IV for emergency hypertension?

A

sodium nitroprusside

181
Q

What is the MOA for direct acting vasodilator nitrates?

A

formation of radical nitric oxide

182
Q

What drugs are used to treat angina?

A

direct acting vasodilators - nitrates

183
Q

Which direct acting vasodilator is NOT given PO?

A

nitroglycerin - 1st pass metabolism

184
Q

What are the Ca channel blockers?

A

verapamil, diltiazem, nifedipine, amlodipine

185
Q

What are Ca channel blockers (diphenyl alkylamines) used for?

A

supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

186
Q

What are benzodiazepines used for?

A

coronary vasodilation, increases nutrient to heart

187
Q

How do diuretics act as an antihypertensive drug?

A

help risk of heart edema

188
Q

How do beta blockers act as antihypertensive drugs?

A

slow rate and contraction

189
Q

What is the DOC for pheochromocytoma induced hypertension?

A

phenoxybenzamine

190
Q

In what type of shock do you see mental dullness?

A

ALL types of shock

191
Q

What are the main factors in effectively treating shock?

A

time and cause

192
Q

What is the goal of early treatment of shock?

A

effective tissue perfusion and oxygenation

193
Q

Which vasopressor is best to use in correcting hypotension during hypovolemic shock?

A

phenylephrine (less tachycardia than NE and Epi)

194
Q

What precaution do you need to take when using phenylephrine?

A

reflex bradycardia

195
Q

What can be FATAL when used in systolic and diastolic shock and in hyperemic shock caused by lung injury?

A

aggressive fluid therapy = pulmonary edema

196
Q

What is used for shock in lung injury?

A

diuretics to get rid of sodium and water

197
Q

When are glucocorticoids used in shock?

A

only anaphylactic shock but NOT DOC

198
Q

Which electrolyte is the main extracellular cation?

199
Q

Which electrolytes are the main extracellular anions?

A

Cl and HCO3

200
Q

Which electrolyte is the main intracellular cation?

201
Q

Which electrolyte is the main intracellular anion?

202
Q

Water moves across capillary membranes from ___ osmotic pressure to ___ osmotic pressure

A

LOW –> HIGH

203
Q

Which type of fluids replaces the extracellular volume?

A

replacement crystalloids

204
Q

Which type of fluids replaces the intracellular volume?

A

maintenance crystalloids

205
Q

Which type of fluids are contraindicated in dehydration?

A

hypertonic solutions

206
Q

What type of fluids are the DOC for cerebral edema?

A

hypertonic solutions

207
Q

What is the fluid of choice for hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock?

208
Q

What MUST you do before giving an animal fluids?

A

make sure they can urinate

209
Q

What is the rate of administration of fluids in severe shock?

A

large = 40-60mL/kg/hr

cat 5-10mL/kg/hr

210
Q

What is the rate of maintenance fluids?

A

65mL/kg/24hr for mature animals

130mL for immature animals

211
Q

What is the MOA for dopamine in shock?

A

increased blood flow to the kidneys, vasodilation increases tissue perfusion at low doses - vasoconstriction at high doses to resolve diastolic cardiogenic shock

212
Q

What is the DOC for vasodilatory shock?

213
Q

What is the DOC for treatment of sinus bradycardia?

214
Q

What are some side effects of atropine?

A

cyclopegia in horses, sticky saliva in ruminantes, hypersalivation in cats

215
Q

What are some benefits of glycopyrrolate?

A

doesn’t cross BBB, causes less tachycardia than atropine

216
Q

Which drug is an opioid antagonist?

217
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

reversal of opioid induced respiratory or CNS depression or reversal of hypovolemic shock

218
Q

Which drug would you use if you gave too much apomorphine?

219
Q

What is the MOA of NSAIDS?

A

inhibit prostaglandins via inhibition of COX enzymes

220
Q

What do you use NSAIDS for?

A

anaphylactic shock to decrease inflammation

221
Q

What is the DOC for acute systemic anaphylactic shock?

A

epinephrine

222
Q

When is epinephrine contraindicated?

A

hypovolemic hemorrhagic shock - has a vasodilatory effect at skeletal muscle

223
Q

When do you use dopamine at a HIGH dose?

A

diastolic shock treatment

224
Q

When do you use dopamine at a LOW dose?

A

systolic shock treatment

225
Q

What is the DOC for vasodilatory shock?

A

dopamine at high doses

226
Q

What are the appetite stimulants?

A

NE, dopamine, GABA, endorphins, pancreatic polypeptides, palatable food

227
Q

What are the inhibitors of appetite?

A

serotonin, calcitonin, cholecystokinin (CCK), CRH

228
Q

What is the other name for diazepam and how is it administered?

A

valium, IV

229
Q

What is oxazepam and how is it administered?

A

metabolite of diazepam, given PO

230
Q

What is the MOA of diazepam?

A

stimulates GABA receptors and inhibits satiety center

231
Q

What species are diazepam and oxazepam more effective in?

232
Q

What is the MOA of cyproheptadine?

A

inhibits satiety center by blocking serotonin receptors and H1

233
Q

What species is cyproheptadine more effective in?

A

cats and humans NOT dogs

234
Q

What precaution should be taken when FF hydrogen peroxide as an emetic?

A

aspiration pneumonia

235
Q

What species is syrup of ipecac toxic in?

236
Q

What is the MOA of apomorphine?

A

stimulates dopamine receptors indirectly stimulating CRTZ and directly stimulating the emetic center

237
Q

What is apomorphine used for at large doses?

A

analgesic at opioid receptors

238
Q

What species is apomorphine used in?

A

dogs, not cats

239
Q

How is apomorphine administered?

A

all routes, even crushed pill into eye

240
Q

What is the most effective emetic?

A

apomorphine

241
Q

What does overdose of apomorphine cause? How do you treat it?

A

respiratory depression, treat with naloxone

242
Q

What is the MOA of xylazine?

A

alpha 2 agonist sedative side effect to induce vomiting

243
Q

How is xylazine administered? In what species?

A

IM or IV in cats

244
Q

What is the MOA of antihistamines?

A

inhibits the vestibular apparatus to treat motion sickness

245
Q

What is the MOA of antimuscarinics?

A

block muscarinic receptors to treat motion sickness

246
Q

What is the MOA of neurokinin antagonists?

A

blocks neurokinin 1 receptors preventing substance P from binding to stop motion sickness and vomiting from anticancer drugs, and viruses

247
Q

What species is maropitant citrate used in?

A

ONLY in dogs

248
Q

What is the MOA of phenothiazine derivatives and butyrophenone derivatives?

A

block dopamine receptors and inhibit CRTZ and emetic center for NON motion sickness vomiting - broad spectrum

249
Q

What is the MOA of serotonin inhibitors?

A

serotonin antagonist to prevent chemotherapy vomiting, antagonize apomorphine induced emesis, and a prokinetic to increase intestinal motility

250
Q

When do you not want to use serotonin inhibitors?

A

with a foreign body

251
Q

What is the MOA of mirtazapine?

A

antagonist of 5HT 2 and 3

252
Q

What is mirtazapine used for?

A

antidepressant and antiemetic

253
Q

What is the MOA of pro kinetics?

A

stimulate GI tract motility

254
Q

What are anti ulcer drugs used for in dogs and cats?

A

tx of helicobacter infection

255
Q

What is the function of cytoprotective drugs?

A

protect mucosa

256
Q

What is an example of systemic antacids?

A

sodium bicarbonate (tums)

257
Q

What is the DOA for systemic antacids?

258
Q

What is the MOA for systemic antacids?

A

causes rebound effects due to liberation of carbon dioxide and gastric distention (neutralize and burp up)

259
Q

How do non-systemic antacids work?

A

act locally in stomach, bind to food and chemically neutralize HCl

260
Q

What are some examples of non-systemic antacids?

A

aluminum, magnesium and calcium salts

261
Q

What are the adsorbent drugs?

A

aluminum hydroxide, aluminum salts, calcium carbonate

262
Q

What is misoprostol used for?

A

treat NSAID induced gastric ulcers

263
Q

What is the MOA of misoprosterol?

A

increases mucous and sodium bicarb secretion to heal ulcers

264
Q

What are some side effects of misoprosterol?

A

stimulates uterine contraction, diarrhea

265
Q

What is the MOA of sucralfate?

A

binds to ulcer site and protects it against acid, pepsin and bile

266
Q

What is sucralfate used for?

A

treatment and prevention of GI ulceration and NSAID induced ulcers

267
Q

What is the MOA for anticholinergics?

A

reduce food induced gastric secretion

268
Q

What does pirenzepine act on?

A

M1 antagonist

269
Q

What are the H2 receptor antagonists?

A

cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine

270
Q

What is the MOA of H2 receptor antagonists?

A

competitively block parietal cells in stomach to inhibit gastric acid and pepsin secretions

271
Q

What are the most effective anti-ulcer drugs?

A

proton pump inhibitors

272
Q

What is the MOA of proton pump inhibitors?

A

irreversibly inhibit H, K, ATPase proton pump which inhibits HCl production

273
Q

What are the proton pump inhibitor drugs?

A

omeprazole, lansoprazole

274
Q

What precaution must be taken with omeprazole?

A

enzyme inhibitor - watch drug-drug interactions

275
Q

What is the MOA of metaclopramide?

A

central and peripheral dopamine antagonist, serotonin antagonist

276
Q

What is metoclopramide used for?

A

increase gastric motility and peristalsis in duodenum/jejunum, increase gastric emptying, decrease intestinal transit, potent antiemetic

277
Q

What are some side effects of metoclopramide?

A

behavior side effects, crosses BBB

278
Q

What is the MOA of domperidone?

A

central and peripheral D antagonist -NO cholinergic activity

279
Q

What is one benefit of domperidone compared to metoclopramide?

A

less behavior side effects, does not cross BBB

280
Q

What is the MOA of cisapride?

A

acts as serotonin 4 agonist in enteric neurons

281
Q

What is cisapride used for?

A

pro kinetic effect on entire GI tract and colon in horses - doesn’t stimulate secretion

282
Q

What is a side effect of erythromycin?

A

induces diarrhea from increased motility

283
Q

What is a use for lidocaine?

A

prokinetic for tx of colic

284
Q

What is the MOA of tertiary compounds and quaternary?

A

non selectively blocks all muscarinic receptors in GI tract

285
Q

What are uses of tertiary compounds and quaternary?

A

inhibits motility and secretion, used as antispasmodic in colic tx

286
Q

Which tertiary compound is NOT recommended for diarrhea?

A

atropine, glycopyrolate, aminopentamide

287
Q

Which tertiary compound is contraindicated in horses?

288
Q

What is the DOC for diarrhea?

A

loperamide (imodium)

289
Q

What is the MOA of loperamide?

A

inhibits propulsive motility, increases segmental motility (won’t puch foraward, mixes)

290
Q

Why is loperamide the DOC?

A

doesn’t cross BBB, faster onset, longer duration

291
Q

When is loperamide contraindicated?

A

diarrhea caused by bacterial infections

292
Q

Which drug is a very effective adsorbent?

A

activated charcoal

293
Q

What species is bismuth subsalicylate (pep to-bismol) toxic to?

294
Q

What is the MOA of cholestyramines?

A

binds to bile acids and end toxins, decreases absorption of fat and fat soluble compounds

295
Q

What is the DOC for inflammatory bowel disease?

A

sulfasalazine

296
Q

What is the MOA of sulfasalazine?

A

inhibit intestinal secretion

297
Q

What is decussate sodium used for?

A

bloat in ruminants

298
Q

What is associated with chronic use of mineral oil?

A

granulomatous lesions

299
Q

What type of enemas should not be used on cats?

A

phosphate containing enemas

300
Q

What is the MOA of cholinergic drugs?

A

cause contraction of GB

301
Q

What oral drugs can be given to close the esophageal groove?

A

copper sulfate or sodium bicarbonate

302
Q

What can be given in cases of rumen bloat?

A

surfactants, poloxalene, docusate sodium, vegetable oil

303
Q

What is the MOA for drugs that stop rumen bloat?

A

decrease surface tension causing release of gas from rumen fluid

304
Q

What are the cholinergics given for rumen atony?

A

bethanechol, neostigmine

305
Q

What are the bitters given for rumen atony?

A

ginger, capsicum, methyl salicylate

306
Q

How do you treat urea poisoning?

A

acetic acid or vinegar 5% followed by a large amount of cold water

307
Q

What is used to treat bovine ketosis?

A

glucose 50% IV bolus, parenteral glucocorticoids

308
Q

What is used to prevent ketosis?

A

oral propylene glycol or ammonium lactate, or sodium proproinate + rations producing a high level of propionate acid

309
Q

What is the parenteral calcium treatment for hypocalcemia?

A

calcium gluconate or borogluconate solution IV slowly, IM or SQ then added to saline infusion

310
Q

What is dihydrotachysterol (DHT) used for?

A

vitamin D analog to stimulate absorption of Ca and decrease its excretion in hypocalcemia

311
Q

What are the treatments for hypercalcemia?

A

normal saline, furosemide, glucocorticoids, calcitonin, pamidronate disodium, plicamycin, sodium bicarbonate IV

312
Q

What is the DOC to treat hypothyroidism?

A

levothyroxine (T4)

313
Q

What is the MOA of levothyroxine?

A

T4 metabolized to T3 and allows for intracellular auto regulation

314
Q

Which is more potent, T4 or T3?

A

T3 is 2x more potent than T4, may cause thyroxicosis

315
Q

When is lithyronine used instead of levothyroxine?

A

dogs with intestinal malabsorption or animals treated with glucocorticosteroids

316
Q

What drugs decrease serum T4 and T3?

A

glucocorticoids, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, phenylbutazone, salicylates, quinidine, mitotane, general anesthetics

317
Q

What is the DOC to treat toxicosis from hypothyroid drugs?

A

beta blockers for tachycardia - also withdraw treatments and activated charcoal of accidental ingestion

318
Q

What is myxyedema coma in dogs?

A

hypothyroid dogs whose levels dropped too low

319
Q

What drug us used to treat myxyedema coma in dogs?

A

L-thyroxine sodium IV or SQ

320
Q

What are the antithyroid agents?

A

thioureylens, methimazole, propylthiouracil

321
Q

What is the DOC for hyperthyroid?

A

methimazole

322
Q

What is the MOA of antithyroid agents?

A

inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormones by inhibiting organification and coupling which lowers T4 levels

323
Q

Why is methimazole the DOC for hyperthyroid?

A

it doesn’t cause immune mediated events

324
Q

What drug is used to reduce the size of the thyroid gland before surgery?

325
Q

What are the antithyroid (goitrogenic) plants?

A

brassica (cabbage & turnips have goitrin)

broccoli and rapeseed have thiocyanate

326
Q

What is the treatment of choice for cats with hyperthyroid?

A

radioactive iodine

327
Q

Which steroids does the cortex produce?

A

mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, sexual steroids

328
Q

Which steroids does the medulla produce?

A

catecholamines

329
Q

Which glucocorticoids have a short DOA?

A

hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone, prednisolone, prednisone

330
Q

Which glucocorticoids have a medium duration of action?

A

triacinolone

331
Q

Which glucocorticoids have a long DOA?

A

betamethasone, dexmethazone

332
Q

How do glucocorticoids effect insulin?

A

antagonist to insulin -> increases gluconeogenesis, enhances lipolysis, increases protein catabolism

333
Q

How do glucocorticoids effect water and electrolytes?

A

increase GFR, make them PU/PD, decreases Ca

334
Q

What factors of glucocorticoids determine their DOA?

A

the base compound and the excipient

335
Q

What are the two types of base compounds and their factors?

A

salt (water soluble, IV or IM) esters (insoluble, SQ IM)

336
Q

Are glucocorticoids bound to plasma proteins?

A

yes, highly bound

337
Q

What is hCG used for in large animals?

A

follicular cysts in cows, induce ovulation in mares, stimulate testosterone secretion

338
Q

What is hCG used for in small animals?

A

follicular cysts in dogs, induce ovulation in cats, cryptorchism in cats

339
Q

How do glucocorticoids effect the blood?

A

see a stress leukogram with decrease in cortisol and T3 and T4

340
Q

How to glucocorticoids effect the skin?

A

calcification and thinning/weakening of skin

341
Q

What do glucocorticoids do to the appetite?

A

increase appetite

342
Q

What do glucocorticoids do to repro?

A

inhibit sperm/ovulation, teratogenic, induce abortion

343
Q

What do glucocorticoids do at the GI tract?

A

cause ulceration by increased gastric secretion but no mucous secretion

344
Q

What do glucocorticoids do at the hepatic system?

A

increase fat absorption, liver enzymes, lead to pancreatitis

345
Q

What makes a glucocorticoid rapidly hydrolyze and release its base?

A

plasma and synovial fluid

346
Q

When are glucocorticoids contraindicated?

A

immunosuppression, DM, growth, pregnancy

347
Q

What are some drug interactions with glucocorticoids?

A

cause microsomal enzyme inductions, NSAIDS increase gastric ulcer potential, potentiate other drugs to induce seizures

348
Q

What are some side effects of short term glucocorticoids?

A

abortion, gastric ulcers, laminitis, fetal abnormalities

349
Q

What species are less sensitive to glucocorticoids and need a higher dose?

A

birds and cats

350
Q

Why should glucocorticoids be tapered?

A

so body can start making its own cortisol

351
Q

What drugs are used in Addisons disease?

A

fludrocortisone, desoxycorticosterone pivalate

352
Q

What is the DOC during an addisonian crisis?

A

dexamethasone - won’t alter ACTH stim

353
Q

What is the DOC for Addison’s tx?

A

desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP)

354
Q

What electrolytes should be monitored while on treatment for Addison’s?

A

Na and K levels

355
Q

What drugs are used for hyperadrenocorticism?

A

mitotante, trilostane, ketoconazole, seleginine, pergolide

356
Q

What is the MOA of mitotante?

A

cytotoxic effect on zone fasiculata and reticularis

357
Q

How is militant administered?

A

PO in oily food to increase bioavailability

358
Q

What is the MOA of trilostane?

A

competitive inhibitor of steroid synthesis

359
Q

What species does ketoconazole act on as a tx for hyperA?

360
Q

What is the MOA of ketoconazole as a tx for hyperA?

A

inhibits CYP450 enzyme - reduction in cholesterol and cortisol synthesis

361
Q

What type of hyperA does seleginine treat?

A

pituitary dependant in dogs

362
Q

What is the MOA of hyperA?

A

inhibits MAO-B, increases dopamine, decreases ACTH, decreases cortisol

363
Q

What does pergolide treat?

A

pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction in horses

364
Q

What is the MOA of pergolide?

A

dopamine agonist, decrease ACTH, decrease cortisol

365
Q

What are the gonadotropins?

A

hCG, LH, FSH, eCG, PMSG

366
Q

What drug is used for follicular cysts in cattle and dogs?

A

hCG or GnRH

367
Q

What drug is used to induce ovulation in mares and cats?

368
Q

What drug is used to stimulate testosterone secretion to check for a testicle OR for cryptorchids?

369
Q

Which drug is used to induce ovulation in mares via ovuplant?

A

deslorelin acetate

370
Q

What are testosterone esters used for in large animals?

A

teaser to ID cow in estrus, growth promoters

371
Q

What are testosterone esters used for in small animals?

A

suppress estrus, pseudopregnancy

372
Q

What are anabolic steroids used for in animals?

A

appetite stimulant but NOT growth promotion

373
Q

What is zeranol used for in large animals?

A

growth promotion of cattle and sheep

374
Q

What is estradiol vale rate used for in large animals?

A

estrus synchronization

375
Q

What are estrogens used for in small animals?

A

prostate hypertrophy, can be used for misstating but not recommended

376
Q

What are some side effects of using estrogen?

A

feminization, pyometra, bone marrow suppression

377
Q

What are the progestins and what species are they for?

A 
megesterol acetate (btches)
melengesterol acetate (cattle)
hydroxyprogesterone caproate (cat)
altrenogest (mare)
378
Q

What are progesterones used for in large animals?

A

synchronization, growth promoters, premature labor

379
Q

What are progesterones used for in small animals?

A

contraception and suppression of estrus NOT mismating

380
Q

What drugs are used for behavioral problems and urination of male cats?

A

hydroxyprogesterone caproate, medroxyprogesterone acetate

381
Q

What are some adverse effects of progesterone?

A

pyometra, decreased cortisol levels, delay partition, masculinization of female fetuses

382
Q

What is the DOC for abortion in cattle?

A

prostaglandins

383
Q

What are prostaglandins used for in lg animals?

A

abortion, destory CL to get same cycle

384
Q

What are prostaglandins used for in small animals?

A

uterine infections, mismatching

385
Q

What drug can be used to offset side effects of prostaglandins?

386
Q

What is the DOC for increasing milk production in large animals?

A

somatotropin, GH

387
Q

What are some adverse effects of somatotropin?

A

mastitis, hyperglycemia

388
Q

What is the DOC for mare and dog partition?

389
Q

What are the uterine stimulant drugs?

A

estrogen and oxytocin

390
Q

What is the DOC for partition in cattle?

A

glucocorticoids

391
Q

What do tocolytics do?

A

inhibit uterine or oxytocin induced myometrial uterine contractions

392
Q

What receptors do affect in treating agalactica?

A

dopamine antagonists

393
Q

What are prolactin inhibitors used for?

A

mismatching, pseudopregnancy

394
Q

Which prolactin inhibitor is more effective?

A

cabergoline

395
Q

What drugs are used for benign prostrate hypertrophy in dogs?

A

megestrol acetate, finasteride, GnRH antagonists and agonists at high dose, castration

396
Q

Which dopamine agonists can be used in pseudopregnancy due to prolactin inhibition?

A

bromocriptine and cabergoline

397
Q

What is the DOC to expel placenta in cattle?

398
Q

What is the DOC for abortion in cattle at first 150 days?

A

PGF2a + dexmethazone

399
Q

What is the DOC for abortion in cattle at 5-8 months?

A

PGF2a + dexmethazone

400
Q

What is the DOC for abortion in cattle in last month of pregnancy?

A

demethazone OR PGF2a ALONE

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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