Shokry exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Type of anemia seen in piglets if they don’t have access to soil
A
microcytic anemia
2
Q
This mineral is necessary for iron absorption
A
copper
3
Q
In order for iron to get to bloodstream it must attach to
A
transferrin
4
Q
In order for iron to get through the epithelial cell it must attach to
A
ferritin
5
Q
Do heavy metals cross the BBB?
A
NO
6
Q
Which drug given for microcytic anemia must by given PO?
A
ferrous
7
Q
Which is less irritating, organic or inorganic iron?
A
organic is LESS irritating
8
Q
Which is less irritating and astringent, ferrous or ferric?
A
ferrous is LESS irritating and astringent
9
Q
What is the antidote for an overdose in microcytic anemia drugs?
A
chelating agent to bind to Fe and make an inactive glob
10
Q
What drugs are used for microcytic anemia?
A
Iron carbohydrate complexes (iron dextran), ferrous chloride/phosphate/sulfate, copper sulfate, copper glycinate
11
Q
What must be given with drugs for microcytic anemia and what is its side effect?
A
carbohydrate, can cause anaphylactic reaction
12
Q
What drug is used for macrocytic anemia?
A
cobalt supplement in horses
13
Q
What drugs are used for normocytic anemia?
A
erythropoetin(DOC) and epogen, give iron supplement, anabolic steroids possible but not suggested
14
Q
What is one major side effect of epogen?
A
hypersensitivity, hypertension and increased BP
15
Q
What drugs are used in immune mediated hemolytic anemia?
A
supportive treatment, blood transfusion, immunosuppressives, IV gamma globulin
16
Q
What is often used in blood transfusions for animals suffering immune mediated hemolytic anemia?
A
hemoglobin glutamer - 200 bovine (oxyglobine)
17
Q
What are the CSF drugs?
A
filgrastim (G-CSF) and sargramostim (GM-CSF)
18
Q
Which CSF only stimulates neutrophils?
A
filgrastin
19
Q
What is a side effect of using CSFs?
A
bone pain
20
Q
How is epinephrine given as a local hemostatic?
A
topically only
21
Q
What are the local hemostatic vasoconstrictor drugs?
A
epinephrine and clot-it-plus
22
Q
What are the local hemostatic astringent drugs?
A
tannic acid and ferric chloride
23
Q
What are the local hemostatic surgical drugs?
A
oxidized cellulose, gelatin sponge, and collagen
24
Q
What are the local hemostatic physiological drugs?
A
thromboplastin, thrombin, fibronogen, and fibrin foam
25
A soft clot is made out of
fibrin
26
A hard clot is made out of
cross linked fibrin
27
Removes the thrombus
plasmin
28
Side effect of epinephrine and the reason you don't want to use systemically
tachycardia
29
Method of action for Clot-it-plus
acts on a1 receptors and ester conformation of benzocaine (makes numb)
30
Application of astringents is
topical
31
Method of action for surgical hemostatics
speeds up clotting process by stimulating clotting process
32
Why do you not use physiological hemostatics systemically?
causes intravascular thrombosis
33
What are the systemic hemostatic drugs?
blood transfusion, FFF, vit K, protamine sulfate, aminocaproic acid, desmopressin (DDAVP)
34
What is the other name for vit K1 and where does it come from?
phytonadione from plant origin
35
What is the other name for Vit K2 and where does it come from?
menaquinone from bacteria in GI tract
36
What is the other name for vit K3 and where does it come from?
menadione, synthetic - weakest
37
What is the MOA of vit K?
stimulates formation of factors 2,7,9,10
38
What is vit K1 an antidote for?
warfarin poisoning but takes 24 hours to act
39
What is important for Vit K tx to be effective?
a functioning liver
40
What Vit can you not use in horses?
K3 causes renal failure
41
Is protamine sulfate acidic or basic?
strongly basic
42
What is protamine sulfate an antidote for?
heparin to prevent bleeding by chemical antagonism
43
What are symptoms of overdose in protamine sulfate?
increased bleeding
44
What are some important uses of aminocaproic acid?
antagonism of the fibrinolytic actions of thrombolytic agents, tx of degenerative myelopathy in german shepherds
45
What is a clinical use for desmopressin?
control bleeding in dobermans w/ VWD but only lasts 2 hours
46
What are the anticoagulant drugs?
heparin and warfarin
47
What is the method of action of heparin?
activates antithromin III resulting in inhibition of factors II, 9, 10, 11, 12
48
How id heparin administered?
IV or SC ONLY
49
Does heparin cross the placenta or get excreted in milk?
NO
50
Is heparin used in vivo or vitro?
BOTH
51
What is heparin's safety margin like?
narrow, bleeding is main toxic effect
52
What is the MOA of warfarin?
inhibition of activation of factor 2,7,9,10 AND competitive antagonist of Vit K by inhibiting Vit K epoxide reductase
53
How long does it take warfarin to activate?
48hrs, given PO so slow absorption
54
How much warfarin binds to PP?
99%, loosely bounf to albumin, easily replaced
55
Does warfarin cross the placenta or get excreted in milk?
YES
56
Is warfarin used in vivo or in vitro?
in vivo only
57
Which drugs decrease the response of warfarin?
enzyme inducers like phenobarbitol
58
What are the thrombocytic agent drugs?
streptokinase, urokinase, tPA, anistreplase
59
What is the MOA of thrombolytic agents?
activate conversion of plasminogen to plasmin for fibrinolysis
60
Which thrombolytic agent is most effective?
tPA because it binds specifically to plasminogen bound to fibrin to dissolve a thrombus
61
What is an antagonist for thrombolytic agents?
aminocaproic acid
62
What are the anti platelet drugs?
aspirin, dipyridamole, abciximab, lepirudin, clopidogrel
63
What does low doses of aspirin do?
inhibit synthesis of TXA2 by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase - antitplatelet
64
What does high doses of aspirin do?
inhibits PG12 and TXA2 and can form a clot
65
Which anti platelet drug is used in cats to prevent thromboembolism?
clopidogrel (plavix)
66
What is the definition of diuretics?
drugs that increase rate of urine flow and rate of Na excretion (not cause urination)
67
What are the physiological diuretics?
water, sodium chloride
68
What are the cardiovascular diuretics?
digitalis, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, methylxanthine derivatives (caffeine/threobromine), NB
69
What are the osmotic diuretics?
mannitol, urea, glycerin/isosorbide
70
How is mannitol administered?
IV ONLY
71
What is the MOA of osmotic diuretics?
act on both LOH and PCT
72
What are osmotic diuretics used for?
cerebral edema, acute glaucoma, acute renal failure - NEVER R CHF or systemic edema
73
Which diuretics are most effective? Least effective?
```
most = loop diuretics(aLOH),
least = K sparing diuretics (CD & DCT)
```
74
What are the loop or high ceiling diuretics?
furosemide (lasix), bumetanide, ethacrynic acid
75
What are the thiazide diuretics?
hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide
76
Do loop diuretics work under conditions w/ decreased renal blood flow?
YES
77
Do thiazide diuretics work under conditions w/ decreased renal blood flow?
NO
78
Where do thiazide diuretics work?
on DCT - 2nd most effective
79
How are thiazide diuretics administered?
PO
80
How are loop diuretics administered?
PO or IV
81
What is the MOA for loop diuretics?
inhibit Na K2Cl symport on luminal membrane of aLOH inhibits paracellular reabsorption
82
What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?
inhibits the NaCl symporter in the DCT to inhibit tubular reabsorption of Na/Cl/K/Mg - also increases reabsorption of Ca
83
What are loop diuretics used for?
acute pulmonary edema, pulmonary congestion, generalized edema associated w/ CHF,chronic renal failure, and liver cirrhosis
84
Which diuretics would be used with an isotonic saline for hypercalcemia?
loop diuretics
85
Which drug is used for exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses?
furosemide
86
What are thiazide diuretics used for?
edema of CHF, liver cirrhosis, nephrogenic syndrome, acute glomerular nephritis, hypertension, nephrogenic DI, calcium nephroliathiasis, udder edema
87
What are some side effects of loop diuretics?
hypokalemia and systemic alkalosis, stimulates renin - angiotensin aldosterone system, hyperglycemia, systemic alkalosis
88
What are the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor drugs?
acetazolamide, dorzolamide, methazolamide, brinzolamide
89
What are the potassium sparing diuretics?
spironolactone (aldactone), triamterene, amiloride
90
Which potassium sparing drug is an aldosterone antagonist?
spironolactone
91
What is the MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
reversible inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, inhibits exchange of H for Na in PCT, lowers IOP
92
How is acetazolamide administered?
PO
93
How are dorzolamide and brinzolamide administered?
topically, opthalmic
94
Which carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is used in udder edema?
acetazolamide
95
Which carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is used in chronic glaucoma?
dorzolamide
96
What is the MOA for spironolactone?
competitively blocks aldosterone receptors in DCT and CD causing excretion of Na/Cl and retention of K/H - acidosis
97
How is spironolactone administered?
given PO,
98
When is spironolactone contraindicated?
metabolized in liver - don't use in liver failure
99
What is spironolactone used for?
as a diuretic but not commonly on its own, not used in emergencies
100
What is the MOA for triamterene/amiloride?
blocks luminal Na channels of principle cells of late DCT & CD, excretes Na and retains K/H
101
When is triamterene contraindicated?
metabolized in liver - don't use in liver failure
102
When are triamterene and amiloride used?
tx of hypokalemia and hypomagnesia
103
What is a side effect of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and potassium sparing diuretics?
systemic acidosis
104
What is natural ADH (pitressin) used for?
diagnosis of diabetes insipidus - short DOA
105
What drugs are used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
thiazide diuretics
106
What drugs are used to treat central diabetes insipidus?
vasopressin (ADH), desmopressin (DDAVP), thiazide diuretics, chlorpropamide, restrict nacl intake
107
What is desmopressin?
synthetic vasopressin (ADH)
108
What are the B1 agonist drugs?
isoproterenol, epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine
109
Which B1 drug is most potent as a cardiac stimulant?
isoproterenol
110
Which B1 cardiac stimulant works on all adrenergic receptors?
epinephrine
111
Which B1 agonist cardiac stimulant is indicated for vasodilation?
isoproterenol
112
Which B1 agonist cardiac stimulant is the DOC for anaphylaxis?
epinephrine
113
Which B1 agonist cardiac stimulant is indicated in vasoconstriction and decrease bleeding?
norepinephrine
114
What is the MOA of dopamine?
increases blood flow to kidneys, vasoconstriction
115
What is the DOC as a cardiac stimulant when the heart is not contracting? Why?
dopamine (less tachycardias and arrhythmias)
116
What are two types of non-drug therapy for heart failure patients?
restricted salt diet, restricted exercise
117
What are the positive ionotropic drugs?
cardiac glycosides = digitalis glycosides (foxglove), digitoxin, digoxin, oaubain catecholamines = dopamine, dobutamine
118
What is the MOA of cardiac glycosides?
inhibits NaKATPase in myocardial cell membrane increasing Na available to exchange with Ca resulting in increase in intracellular Ca, + ionotropic effect, increases contractility, decreases HR
119
How are cardiac glycosides administered?
PO
120
What are the therapeutic uses for cardiac glycosides?
CHF, atrial arrhythmias in dogs
121
What is the most commonly used cardiac glycoside?
digoxin
122
What must be done to prevent digoxin toxicity?
monitor blood levels
123
Which positive ionotropic drugs are used only in emergencies?
dopamine and dobutamine
124
What effect do cardiac glycosides have at the kidney?
diuretic effect, increased CO = increase in GFR
125
What are the short term and long term side effects of cardiac glycosides?
```
acute = hyperkalemia leading to bradycardia
chronic = hypokalemia leading to tachycardia
```
126
What drug is used to treat cardiac glycoside induced bradyarrhythmias?
atropine
127
What drug is used to treat cardiac glycoside induced tachyarrhythmias?
potassium IV slow or digoxin immune FAB
128
What are the indicator drugs?
pimobendan, inamrinone, milrinone
129
What is the classification for inodilators?
+ ionotropes and vasodilators at both veins and arteries
130
What is the MOA of inodilators?
sensitization of cardiac contractile apparatus to Ca by enhancing interaction of Ca and troponin C
131
What are inodilators used for?
tx of CHF in dogs, or dilated cardiomyopathy
132
When are inodilators contraindicated?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
133
What are the ACE inhibitor drugs?
captopril, lisinopril, benazepril, enalapril
134
Which ACE inhibitor is excreted in bile?
benazepril
135
What is the MOA for ACE inhibitors?
inhibits angiotension converting enzyme preventing conversion of AT1->AT2 which is needed for aldosterone, vasodilator so heart is less stressed
136
What is the DOC of ACE inhibitors?
enalapril
137
What are the beta blocker drugs?
carvedilol, metoprolol, atenolol
138
What is the MOA of beta blockers?
decrease contractility of heart so doesn't pump as hard, nonselective B blocker and A1 blocker, inhibits endothelia release
139
What are beta blockers used for?
mild CHF, blocks harmful SNS can use in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
140
Class 1A
prolongs AP- sodium channel blocker
141
Class 1B
shortens AP- sodium channel blocker
142
Class 2
B blocker
143
Class 3
K channel blocker
144
Class 4
Ca channel blocker
145
What drugs are in class 1A?
quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
146
What is the DOC for atrial fibrillation in horses?
quinidine - also in cattle and lg breed dogs
147
Which 1A drug is more effective for ventricular arrhythmias?
procainamide
148
What drugs are in class 1B?
lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine, aprinidine
149
How is mexiletine administered?
PO
150
What is the IV DOC for ventricular arrhythmias in dogs?
lidocaine
151
What class 1B drug is used to treat digitalis-induced arrhythmias?
lidocaine and phenytoin
152
What class 1B drug is used in supra ventricular and ventricular arrhythmias?
phenytoin
153
What effect do class 1C drugs have on the action potential?
none
154
What is the DOC for hypertension and tachycardia in cats with hyperthyroidism?
beta blockers
155
When is propranolol contraindicated?
asthma patients
156
How is timolol applied?
topical to eye only
157
Which drugs are used to treat refractory ventricular tachycardia?
potassium channel blockers
158
Why are potassium channel blockers not commonly used?
narrow safety margin, can cause bradycardia
159
Which potassium channel blocker is a non-selective beta blocker?
sotalol
160
What are Ca channel blockers used to treat?
supraventriclar tachycardia and myocardial hypertrophy
161
Which class 4 drug is used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
diltiazem
162
Which drugs are used to treat bradyarrhythmias in cats?
atropine, isoproterenol, epinephrine
163
Which drugs are nonselective alpha agonists?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
164
Which drugs are selective alpha 1 agonists?
phenylephrine
165
Which drugs are direct and indirect sympathomimetics?
sphedrin, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine
166
Which vasodilator would you use for emergency hypertension in a blocked cat to relax smooth muscle?
phenoxybenzamine
167
Which drug is good to manage hypertension in asthmatic animals?
atenolol
168
What drug is used for diabetic animals to lower BG levels with B1 blockers?
atenolol
169
Which ACE inhibitor is the DOC as a vasodilator due to its longer duration?
enalapril
170
Which ACE inhibitor is best for renal patients as a vasodilator?
benazepril
171
Which ACE inhibitor has the most side effects as a vasodilator?
captopril
172
How do ACE inhibitors affect glomerular pressure?
lower intraglomerular pressure decreasing GFR
173
How do ACE inhibitors effect bradykinin?
increases bradykinin
174
Serum levels of what must be monitored when using ACE inhibitors?
serum potassium - can cause cardiac depression
175
Which drug is an angiotension II antagonist?
Losartan
176
What is Losarten used for?
antihypertensive
177
What drugs are direct acting vasodilators?
hydralazine, nitrates, sodium nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate
178
Which direct acting vasodilator only works on the arteries NOT the veins?
hydralazine
179
What is the MOA of hydralazine?
inhibits Ca into smooth muscle of arteries to make them dilate
180
Which direct acting vasodilator is given IV for emergency hypertension?
sodium nitroprusside
181
What is the MOA for direct acting vasodilator nitrates?
formation of radical nitric oxide
182
What drugs are used to treat angina?
direct acting vasodilators - nitrates
183
Which direct acting vasodilator is NOT given PO?
nitroglycerin - 1st pass metabolism
184
What are the Ca channel blockers?
verapamil, diltiazem, nifedipine, amlodipine
185
What are Ca channel blockers (diphenyl alkylamines) used for?
supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
186
What are benzodiazepines used for?
coronary vasodilation, increases nutrient to heart
187
How do diuretics act as an antihypertensive drug?
help risk of heart edema
188
How do beta blockers act as antihypertensive drugs?
slow rate and contraction
189
What is the DOC for pheochromocytoma induced hypertension?
phenoxybenzamine
190
In what type of shock do you see mental dullness?
ALL types of shock
191
What are the main factors in effectively treating shock?
time and cause
192
What is the goal of early treatment of shock?
effective tissue perfusion and oxygenation
193
Which vasopressor is best to use in correcting hypotension during hypovolemic shock?
phenylephrine (less tachycardia than NE and Epi)
194
What precaution do you need to take when using phenylephrine?
reflex bradycardia
195
What can be FATAL when used in systolic and diastolic shock and in hyperemic shock caused by lung injury?
aggressive fluid therapy = pulmonary edema
196
What is used for shock in lung injury?
diuretics to get rid of sodium and water
197
When are glucocorticoids used in shock?
only anaphylactic shock but NOT DOC
198
Which electrolyte is the main extracellular cation?
Na
199
Which electrolytes are the main extracellular anions?
Cl and HCO3
200
Which electrolyte is the main intracellular cation?
K
201
Which electrolyte is the main intracellular anion?
P04
202
Water moves across capillary membranes from ___ osmotic pressure to ___ osmotic pressure
LOW --> HIGH
203
Which type of fluids replaces the extracellular volume?
replacement crystalloids
204
Which type of fluids replaces the intracellular volume?
maintenance crystalloids
205
Which type of fluids are contraindicated in dehydration?
hypertonic solutions
206
What type of fluids are the DOC for cerebral edema?
hypertonic solutions
207
What is the fluid of choice for hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock?
blood
208
What MUST you do before giving an animal fluids?
make sure they can urinate
209
What is the rate of administration of fluids in severe shock?
large = 40-60mL/kg/hr
| cat 5-10mL/kg/hr
210
What is the rate of maintenance fluids?
65mL/kg/24hr for mature animals
| 130mL for immature animals
211
What is the MOA for dopamine in shock?
increased blood flow to the kidneys, vasodilation increases tissue perfusion at low doses - vasoconstriction at high doses to resolve diastolic cardiogenic shock
212
What is the DOC for vasodilatory shock?
dopamine
213
What is the DOC for treatment of sinus bradycardia?
atropine
214
What are some side effects of atropine?
cyclopegia in horses, sticky saliva in ruminantes, hypersalivation in cats
215
What are some benefits of glycopyrrolate?
doesn't cross BBB, causes less tachycardia than atropine
216
Which drug is an opioid antagonist?
naloxone
217
What is naloxone used for?
reversal of opioid induced respiratory or CNS depression or reversal of hypovolemic shock
218
Which drug would you use if you gave too much apomorphine?
naloxone
219
What is the MOA of NSAIDS?
inhibit prostaglandins via inhibition of COX enzymes
220
What do you use NSAIDS for?
anaphylactic shock to decrease inflammation
221
What is the DOC for acute systemic anaphylactic shock?
epinephrine
222
When is epinephrine contraindicated?
hypovolemic hemorrhagic shock - has a vasodilatory effect at skeletal muscle
223
When do you use dopamine at a HIGH dose?
diastolic shock treatment
224
When do you use dopamine at a LOW dose?
systolic shock treatment
225
What is the DOC for vasodilatory shock?
dopamine at high doses
226
What are the appetite stimulants?
NE, dopamine, GABA, endorphins, pancreatic polypeptides, palatable food
227
What are the inhibitors of appetite?
serotonin, calcitonin, cholecystokinin (CCK), CRH
228
What is the other name for diazepam and how is it administered?
valium, IV
229
What is oxazepam and how is it administered?
metabolite of diazepam, given PO
230
What is the MOA of diazepam?
stimulates GABA receptors and inhibits satiety center
231
What species are diazepam and oxazepam more effective in?
cats
232
What is the MOA of cyproheptadine?
inhibits satiety center by blocking serotonin receptors and H1
233
What species is cyproheptadine more effective in?
cats and humans NOT dogs
234
What precaution should be taken when FF hydrogen peroxide as an emetic?
aspiration pneumonia
235
What species is syrup of ipecac toxic in?
cats
236
What is the MOA of apomorphine?
stimulates dopamine receptors indirectly stimulating CRTZ and directly stimulating the emetic center
237
What is apomorphine used for at large doses?
analgesic at opioid receptors
238
What species is apomorphine used in?
dogs, not cats
239
How is apomorphine administered?
all routes, even crushed pill into eye
240
What is the most effective emetic?
apomorphine
241
What does overdose of apomorphine cause? How do you treat it?
respiratory depression, treat with naloxone
242
What is the MOA of xylazine?
alpha 2 agonist sedative side effect to induce vomiting
243
How is xylazine administered? In what species?
IM or IV in cats
244
What is the MOA of antihistamines?
inhibits the vestibular apparatus to treat motion sickness
245
What is the MOA of antimuscarinics?
block muscarinic receptors to treat motion sickness
246
What is the MOA of neurokinin antagonists?
blocks neurokinin 1 receptors preventing substance P from binding to stop motion sickness and vomiting from anticancer drugs, and viruses
247
What species is maropitant citrate used in?
ONLY in dogs
248
What is the MOA of phenothiazine derivatives and butyrophenone derivatives?
block dopamine receptors and inhibit CRTZ and emetic center for NON motion sickness vomiting - broad spectrum
249
What is the MOA of serotonin inhibitors?
serotonin antagonist to prevent chemotherapy vomiting, antagonize apomorphine induced emesis, and a prokinetic to increase intestinal motility
250
When do you not want to use serotonin inhibitors?
with a foreign body
251
What is the MOA of mirtazapine?
antagonist of 5HT 2 and 3
252
What is mirtazapine used for?
antidepressant and antiemetic
253
What is the MOA of pro kinetics?
stimulate GI tract motility
254
What are anti ulcer drugs used for in dogs and cats?
tx of helicobacter infection
255
What is the function of cytoprotective drugs?
protect mucosa
256
What is an example of systemic antacids?
sodium bicarbonate (tums)
257
What is the DOA for systemic antacids?
short
258
What is the MOA for systemic antacids?
causes rebound effects due to liberation of carbon dioxide and gastric distention (neutralize and burp up)
259
How do non-systemic antacids work?
act locally in stomach, bind to food and chemically neutralize HCl
260
What are some examples of non-systemic antacids?
aluminum, magnesium and calcium salts
261
What are the adsorbent drugs?
aluminum hydroxide, aluminum salts, calcium carbonate
262
What is misoprostol used for?
treat NSAID induced gastric ulcers
263
What is the MOA of misoprosterol?
increases mucous and sodium bicarb secretion to heal ulcers
264
What are some side effects of misoprosterol?
stimulates uterine contraction, diarrhea
265
What is the MOA of sucralfate?
binds to ulcer site and protects it against acid, pepsin and bile
266
What is sucralfate used for?
treatment and prevention of GI ulceration and NSAID induced ulcers
267
What is the MOA for anticholinergics?
reduce food induced gastric secretion
268
What does pirenzepine act on?
M1 antagonist
269
What are the H2 receptor antagonists?
cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine
270
What is the MOA of H2 receptor antagonists?
competitively block parietal cells in stomach to inhibit gastric acid and pepsin secretions
271
What are the most effective anti-ulcer drugs?
proton pump inhibitors
272
What is the MOA of proton pump inhibitors?
irreversibly inhibit H, K, ATPase proton pump which inhibits HCl production
273
What are the proton pump inhibitor drugs?
omeprazole, lansoprazole
274
What precaution must be taken with omeprazole?
enzyme inhibitor - watch drug-drug interactions
275
What is the MOA of metaclopramide?
central and peripheral dopamine antagonist, serotonin antagonist
276
What is metoclopramide used for?
increase gastric motility and peristalsis in duodenum/jejunum, increase gastric emptying, decrease intestinal transit, potent antiemetic
277
What are some side effects of metoclopramide?
behavior side effects, crosses BBB
278
What is the MOA of domperidone?
central and peripheral D antagonist -NO cholinergic activity
279
What is one benefit of domperidone compared to metoclopramide?
less behavior side effects, does not cross BBB
280
What is the MOA of cisapride?
acts as serotonin 4 agonist in enteric neurons
281
What is cisapride used for?
pro kinetic effect on entire GI tract and colon in horses - doesn't stimulate secretion
282
What is a side effect of erythromycin?
induces diarrhea from increased motility
283
What is a use for lidocaine?
prokinetic for tx of colic
284
What is the MOA of tertiary compounds and quaternary?
non selectively blocks all muscarinic receptors in GI tract
285
What are uses of tertiary compounds and quaternary?
inhibits motility and secretion, used as antispasmodic in colic tx
286
Which tertiary compound is NOT recommended for diarrhea?
atropine, glycopyrolate, aminopentamide
287
Which tertiary compound is contraindicated in horses?
atropine
288
What is the DOC for diarrhea?
loperamide (imodium)
289
What is the MOA of loperamide?
inhibits propulsive motility, increases segmental motility (won't puch foraward, mixes)
290
Why is loperamide the DOC?
doesn't cross BBB, faster onset, longer duration
291
When is loperamide contraindicated?
diarrhea caused by bacterial infections
292
Which drug is a very effective adsorbent?
activated charcoal
293
What species is bismuth subsalicylate (pep to-bismol) toxic to?
cats
294
What is the MOA of cholestyramines?
binds to bile acids and end toxins, decreases absorption of fat and fat soluble compounds
295
What is the DOC for inflammatory bowel disease?
sulfasalazine
296
What is the MOA of sulfasalazine?
inhibit intestinal secretion
297
What is decussate sodium used for?
bloat in ruminants
298
What is associated with chronic use of mineral oil?
granulomatous lesions
299
What type of enemas should not be used on cats?
phosphate containing enemas
300
What is the MOA of cholinergic drugs?
cause contraction of GB
301
What oral drugs can be given to close the esophageal groove?
copper sulfate or sodium bicarbonate
302
What can be given in cases of rumen bloat?
surfactants, poloxalene, docusate sodium, vegetable oil
303
What is the MOA for drugs that stop rumen bloat?
decrease surface tension causing release of gas from rumen fluid
304
What are the cholinergics given for rumen atony?
bethanechol, neostigmine
305
What are the bitters given for rumen atony?
ginger, capsicum, methyl salicylate
306
How do you treat urea poisoning?
acetic acid or vinegar 5% followed by a large amount of cold water
307
What is used to treat bovine ketosis?
glucose 50% IV bolus, parenteral glucocorticoids
308
What is used to prevent ketosis?
oral propylene glycol or ammonium lactate, or sodium proproinate + rations producing a high level of propionate acid
309
What is the parenteral calcium treatment for hypocalcemia?
calcium gluconate or borogluconate solution IV slowly, IM or SQ then added to saline infusion
310
What is dihydrotachysterol (DHT) used for?
vitamin D analog to stimulate absorption of Ca and decrease its excretion in hypocalcemia
311
What are the treatments for hypercalcemia?
normal saline, furosemide, glucocorticoids, calcitonin, pamidronate disodium, plicamycin, sodium bicarbonate IV
312
What is the DOC to treat hypothyroidism?
levothyroxine (T4)
313
What is the MOA of levothyroxine?
T4 metabolized to T3 and allows for intracellular auto regulation
314
Which is more potent, T4 or T3?
T3 is 2x more potent than T4, may cause thyroxicosis
315
When is lithyronine used instead of levothyroxine?
dogs with intestinal malabsorption or animals treated with glucocorticosteroids
316
What drugs decrease serum T4 and T3?
glucocorticoids, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, phenylbutazone, salicylates, quinidine, mitotane, general anesthetics
317
What is the DOC to treat toxicosis from hypothyroid drugs?
beta blockers for tachycardia - also withdraw treatments and activated charcoal of accidental ingestion
318
What is myxyedema coma in dogs?
hypothyroid dogs whose levels dropped too low
319
What drug us used to treat myxyedema coma in dogs?
L-thyroxine sodium IV or SQ
320
What are the antithyroid agents?
thioureylens, methimazole, propylthiouracil
321
What is the DOC for hyperthyroid?
methimazole
322
What is the MOA of antithyroid agents?
inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormones by inhibiting organification and coupling which lowers T4 levels
323
Why is methimazole the DOC for hyperthyroid?
it doesn't cause immune mediated events
324
What drug is used to reduce the size of the thyroid gland before surgery?
iodide
325
What are the antithyroid (goitrogenic) plants?
brassica (cabbage & turnips have goitrin)
| broccoli and rapeseed have thiocyanate
326
What is the treatment of choice for cats with hyperthyroid?
radioactive iodine
327
Which steroids does the cortex produce?
mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, sexual steroids
328
Which steroids does the medulla produce?
catecholamines
329
Which glucocorticoids have a short DOA?
hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone, prednisolone, prednisone
330
Which glucocorticoids have a medium duration of action?
triacinolone
331
Which glucocorticoids have a long DOA?
betamethasone, dexmethazone
332
How do glucocorticoids effect insulin?
antagonist to insulin -> increases gluconeogenesis, enhances lipolysis, increases protein catabolism
333
How do glucocorticoids effect water and electrolytes?
increase GFR, make them PU/PD, decreases Ca
334
What factors of glucocorticoids determine their DOA?
the base compound and the excipient
335
What are the two types of base compounds and their factors?
salt (water soluble, IV or IM) esters (insoluble, SQ IM)
336
Are glucocorticoids bound to plasma proteins?
yes, highly bound
337
What is hCG used for in large animals?
follicular cysts in cows, induce ovulation in mares, stimulate testosterone secretion
338
What is hCG used for in small animals?
follicular cysts in dogs, induce ovulation in cats, cryptorchism in cats
339
How do glucocorticoids effect the blood?
see a stress leukogram with decrease in cortisol and T3 and T4
340
How to glucocorticoids effect the skin?
calcification and thinning/weakening of skin
341
What do glucocorticoids do to the appetite?
increase appetite
342
What do glucocorticoids do to repro?
inhibit sperm/ovulation, teratogenic, induce abortion
343
What do glucocorticoids do at the GI tract?
cause ulceration by increased gastric secretion but no mucous secretion
344
What do glucocorticoids do at the hepatic system?
increase fat absorption, liver enzymes, lead to pancreatitis
345
What makes a glucocorticoid rapidly hydrolyze and release its base?
plasma and synovial fluid
346
When are glucocorticoids contraindicated?
immunosuppression, DM, growth, pregnancy
347
What are some drug interactions with glucocorticoids?
cause microsomal enzyme inductions, NSAIDS increase gastric ulcer potential, potentiate other drugs to induce seizures
348
What are some side effects of short term glucocorticoids?
abortion, gastric ulcers, laminitis, fetal abnormalities
349
What species are less sensitive to glucocorticoids and need a higher dose?
birds and cats
350
Why should glucocorticoids be tapered?
so body can start making its own cortisol
351
What drugs are used in Addisons disease?
fludrocortisone, desoxycorticosterone pivalate
352
What is the DOC during an addisonian crisis?
dexamethasone - won't alter ACTH stim
353
What is the DOC for Addison's tx?
desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP)
354
What electrolytes should be monitored while on treatment for Addison's?
Na and K levels
355
What drugs are used for hyperadrenocorticism?
mitotante, trilostane, ketoconazole, seleginine, pergolide
356
What is the MOA of mitotante?
cytotoxic effect on zone fasiculata and reticularis
357
How is militant administered?
PO in oily food to increase bioavailability
358
What is the MOA of trilostane?
competitive inhibitor of steroid synthesis
359
What species does ketoconazole act on as a tx for hyperA?
dogs
360
What is the MOA of ketoconazole as a tx for hyperA?
inhibits CYP450 enzyme - reduction in cholesterol and cortisol synthesis
361
What type of hyperA does seleginine treat?
pituitary dependant in dogs
362
What is the MOA of hyperA?
inhibits MAO-B, increases dopamine, decreases ACTH, decreases cortisol
363
What does pergolide treat?
pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction in horses
364
What is the MOA of pergolide?
dopamine agonist, decrease ACTH, decrease cortisol
365
What are the gonadotropins?
hCG, LH, FSH, eCG, PMSG
366
What drug is used for follicular cysts in cattle and dogs?
hCG or GnRH
367
What drug is used to induce ovulation in mares and cats?
hCG
368
What drug is used to stimulate testosterone secretion to check for a testicle OR for cryptorchids?
hCG
369
Which drug is used to induce ovulation in mares via ovuplant?
deslorelin acetate
370
What are testosterone esters used for in large animals?
teaser to ID cow in estrus, growth promoters
371
What are testosterone esters used for in small animals?
suppress estrus, pseudopregnancy
372
What are anabolic steroids used for in animals?
appetite stimulant but NOT growth promotion
373
What is zeranol used for in large animals?
growth promotion of cattle and sheep
374
What is estradiol vale rate used for in large animals?
estrus synchronization
375
What are estrogens used for in small animals?
prostate hypertrophy, can be used for misstating but not recommended
376
What are some side effects of using estrogen?
feminization, pyometra, bone marrow suppression
377
What are the progestins and what species are they for?
```
megesterol acetate (btches)
melengesterol acetate (cattle)
hydroxyprogesterone caproate (cat)
altrenogest (mare)
```
378
What are progesterones used for in large animals?
synchronization, growth promoters, premature labor
379
What are progesterones used for in small animals?
contraception and suppression of estrus NOT mismating
380
What drugs are used for behavioral problems and urination of male cats?
hydroxyprogesterone caproate, medroxyprogesterone acetate
381
What are some adverse effects of progesterone?
pyometra, decreased cortisol levels, delay partition, masculinization of female fetuses
382
What is the DOC for abortion in cattle?
prostaglandins
383
What are prostaglandins used for in lg animals?
abortion, destory CL to get same cycle
384
What are prostaglandins used for in small animals?
uterine infections, mismatching
385
What drug can be used to offset side effects of prostaglandins?
atropine
386
What is the DOC for increasing milk production in large animals?
somatotropin, GH
387
What are some adverse effects of somatotropin?
mastitis, hyperglycemia
388
What is the DOC for mare and dog partition?
oxytocin
389
What are the uterine stimulant drugs?
estrogen and oxytocin
390
What is the DOC for partition in cattle?
glucocorticoids
391
What do tocolytics do?
inhibit uterine or oxytocin induced myometrial uterine contractions
392
What receptors do affect in treating agalactica?
dopamine antagonists
393
What are prolactin inhibitors used for?
mismatching, pseudopregnancy
394
Which prolactin inhibitor is more effective?
cabergoline
395
What drugs are used for benign prostrate hypertrophy in dogs?
megestrol acetate, finasteride, GnRH antagonists and agonists at high dose, castration
396
Which dopamine agonists can be used in pseudopregnancy due to prolactin inhibition?
bromocriptine and cabergoline
397
What is the DOC to expel placenta in cattle?
PGF2A
398
What is the DOC for abortion in cattle at first 150 days?
PGF2a + dexmethazone
399
What is the DOC for abortion in cattle at 5-8 months?
PGF2a + dexmethazone
400
What is the DOC for abortion in cattle in last month of pregnancy?
demethazone OR PGF2a ALONE
