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Microbiology & Immunology > Sheet3-表格 1 > Flashcards

Sheet3-表格 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What disesase does Trichomonas Vaginalis cause?

A

Vaginitis: foul-smelling, greenish discharge; itching and burning

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2
Q

What do you tx P. Carinii with?

A

TMP-SMZ, or pentamidine, or dapsone

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3
Q

What do you use to culture cryptococcus?

A

Sabouraud’s Agar

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4
Q

What do you use to Diagnose E. Histolytica?

A

Serology and/or trophozoites or cysts in stool

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5
Q

What do you use to stain Cryptococcus?

A

India Ink

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6
Q

What do you use to tx cryptosporidium?

A

nothing

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7
Q

What do you use to Tx Giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

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8
Q

What do you use to tx T. Vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole

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9
Q

What do you used to dx P. Carinii?

A

Lung biopsy or lavage, methenamine silver stain

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10
Q

What do you used to Tx Candida Albicans?

A

Nystatin for superficial infection, Amphotericin B for systemic

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11
Q

What does Alba mean?

A

white

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12
Q

What does dimorphic mean?

A

fungi that are mold in the soil (low temp) and yeast in tissue (higher/body temp 37 C)

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13
Q

What is diagnostic for L. donovani?

A

Macrophages containing amastigotes

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14
Q

What is diagnostic of T. Vaginalis?

A

Trophozoites on wet mount

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15
Q

What is histoplasmosis associated with?

A

bird or bat droppings

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16
Q

What is the progression of S. Schenckii infection?

A

traumatic introduction into the skin, typically by a thorn (‘rose gardner’s’ disease) , causes local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis) . Little systemic illness.

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17
Q

What is the vector for L. donovani?

A

Sandfly

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18
Q

What is the vector for T. Cruzii?

A

Reduviid Bug

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19
Q

What is the vector for T. Gambiense and Rhodesiense?

A

Tsetse fly

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20
Q

What is used to dx African sleeping sickness?

A

Blood smear

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21
Q

What is used to dx T. Cruzii?

A

blood smear

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22
Q

What is used to dx toxoplasma?

A

serology and biopsy

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23
Q

What is used to treat D. Medinensis?

A

Niridazole

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24
Q

What is used to Treat E. Histolytica?

A

Metronidazole and Iodoquinol

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25
Q

What is used to tx african sleeping sickness?

A

Suramin for bloodborne disease or melaroprol for CNS penetration

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26
Q

What is used to tx Ancylostoma duodenale?

A

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

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27
Q

What is used to tx Ascaris Lumbricoides?

A

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

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28
Q

What is used to tx Clonorhis sinensis?

A

Praziquantel

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29
Q

What is used to tx E. Granulosus?

A

Albendazole

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30
Q

hug my baby~

A

kiss u~

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31
Q

What is used to tx E. Vermicularis?

A

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

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32
Q

What is used to tx L. Donovani?

A

Sodium Stibogluconate

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33
Q

What is used to tx Loa loa?

A

diethylcarbamazine

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34
Q

What is used to tx malaria?

A

Chloroquine ( primaquine for vivax, ovale) , sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine, mefloquine,
quinine

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35
Q

What is used to tx O. Volvulus?

A

Ivermectin

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36
Q

What is used to tx Paragonimus Wetermani?

A

Praziquantel

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37
Q

What is used to tx S. Stercoralis?

A

Ivermectin/thiabendazole

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38
Q

What is used to tx schistosoma?

A

Praziquantel

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39
Q

What is used to tx T. Canis?

A

diethylcarbamazine

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40
Q

What is used to tx T. Cruzii?

A

Nifurtimox

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41
Q

What is used to tx T. Spiralis?

A

Thiabendazole

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42
Q

What is used to tx taenia solium infection?

A

Praziquantel/niclosamide; albendazole for cysticercosis

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43
Q

What is used to tx toxoplasma?

A

sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

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44
Q

What is used to tx W. Bancrofti?

A

diethylcarbamazine

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45
Q

What patient population is susceptible to Mucor disease?

A

Ketoacidotic patients and Leukemic patients

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46
Q

What stain do you use for lung tissue when you are detecting P. Carinii?

A

silver

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47
Q

What state predisposes you to P. Carinii infection?

A

Immunosuppression

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48
Q

What test can be used to detect polysaccharide capsular antigen of Cryptococcus?

A

latex agglutination test

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49
Q

What types of infections can Candida Albicans cause?

A

systemic or superficial fungal in fections

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50
Q

When do you start prophylaxis in HIV patients?

A

when the CD4 drops below 200 cells/mL

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51
Q

Where do the mucor and rhizopus species fungi proliferate?

A

in the walls of blood vessels and cause infarction of distal tissue

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52
Q

Where is Blastomycosis endemic?

A

States east of the Mississippi River and Central America

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53
Q

Where is Coccidioidomycosis endemic?

A

SWUS, California (San Joaquin Valley or destert (desert bumps) ‘Valley fever’)

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54
Q

Where is Histoplasmosis endemic?

A

Mississippi and Ohio River valleys

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55
Q

Where is Paracoccioidomycosis endemic?

A

Rural Latin America

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56
Q

All viruses are haploid except _________?(1)

A

Retroviruses, which have two identical ssRNA molecules (diploid).

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57
Q

Bites from what 3 animals are more prone to rabies infection than a bite from a dog?

A

Bat, Raccoon, and Skunk

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58
Q

Define complementation?

A

When one of 2 viruses that infects the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein. The nonmutated virus ‘complements’ the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.

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59
Q

Define genetic drift.

A

Minor changes based on random mutations.

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60
Q

Define genetic shift.

A

Reassorment of viral genome (such as when human flu A virus recombines with swine flu A virus.)

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61
Q

Define phenotypic mixing?

A

When virus A acquires virus B coat proteins and acts like virus B but its progeny will
have virus A genome and coat.

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62
Q

Define reassortment?

A
  • When viruses with segmented genomes (eg. infl uenza virus) exchange segments.
  • High frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.
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63
Q

Define recombination?

A

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology.

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64
Q

Describe its incubation period and whether or not it has a carrier.

A
  • Short incubation period (3 weeks)

- No carriers

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65
Q

Describe its incubation period and whether or not it has a carrier.

A
  • Long incubation (3 months)

- has carriers

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66
Q

Describe the general concept of bacterial super infection which can occur with
influenza infection? S

A

A life-threatening illness where a bacterial infection is superimposed on an existing
viral infection.

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67
Q

Describe the genetic and physical properties of influenza virus?

A
  • Enveloped
  • ssRNA virus with segmented genome
  • prone to genetic changes
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68
Q

Describe the migration of rabies within the CNS.

A

It migrates in a retrograde fashion within the CNS up n. axons.

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69
Q

Describe the physical shape and duration of incubation for rabies.

A
  • Bullet-shaped capsid (illus. in book)

- long incubation period (wks. - 3 months)

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70
Q

Describe the technique and purpose for performing a Tzanck test?

A
  • assay for herpes

- make a smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells

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71
Q

Describe whether or not it has a carrier.

A

has carriers

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72
Q

Does HDV have carriers?

A

Yes

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73
Q

Explain the concept of a slow virus infection.

A

Virus exists in patient for months to years before it manifests as clinical disease.

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74
Q

From the following selection which classes are considered infectious and which aren’t:
dsDNA, ds RNA, (-)ssRNA, (+) ssRNA.

A
  • Infectious: dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV) and (+) ssRNA
  • Noninfectious: dsRNA and (-) ssRNA
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75
Q

HCV is a common form of hepatitis in what US population?

A

IV drug users

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76
Q

How does a Monospot test work?

A

It detects heterophil antibodies by agglutination to sheep RBC’s

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77
Q

How is RNA translated and processed in picornaviruses?

A

RNA is translated into one long polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into many small proteins.

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78
Q

How many segments and what sense is the RNA genome of influenza viruses?

A
  • 8 segments

- negative sense

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79
Q

How many serotypes do paramyxoviruses have except parainfluenza which has ___?

A
  • 1 - 4
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80
Q

Into what class RNA or DNA to all segmented viruses fall?

A

RNA

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81
Q

Killed vaccines induce what type of immunity?

A

Humoral, with no possibility of the virus reverting to virulence

82
Q

Live attenuated vaccines induce what type of

immunity?

A

Humoral and Cellular - with a risk of the virus reverting to virulence

83
Q

Mneumonic for rotavirus symptoms: ROTA

A

Right Out The Anus

84
Q

Mneumonic: Hep D:

A

Defective, Dependent on HBV

85
Q

Mneumonic: Hep E:

A

Enteric, Expectant mothers, Epidemics

86
Q

Mneumonic: Hep A:

A

Asymptomatic (usually)

87
Q

Mneumonic: Hep B:

A

Blood-borne

88
Q

Mneumonic: picoRNAvirus

A

pico = ‘small’ RNA viruses

89
Q

Name 2 common bacterial infections in AIDS pts.

A

TB, M. avium-intracellulare complex

90
Q

Name 2 common protozoan infections in AIDS pts.

A

Blood-borne pico = ‘small’ RNA viruses

91
Q

Name 3 members of the arborvirus family.

A

Flavivirus, Togavirus, and Bunyavirus

92
Q

Name 3 possible sequelae of measles infection?

A
  • SSPE
  • encephalitis
  • giant cell pneumonia (rare;found in immunocompromised persons)
93
Q

Name 4 common fungal infections in AIDS pts.

A
  • Thrush (Candida ablicans)
  • cryptococcosis (cryptococcal meningitis)
  • histoplasmosis
  • Pneumocystis pneumonia
94
Q

Name 4 common viral infections in AIDS pts.

A
  • HSV
  • VZV
  • CMV
  • progressive multifocal
    leukoencephalopathy (JC virus)
95
Q

Name 4 herpesviruses using the mneumonic: Get herpes in a CHEVrolet.

A
  • CMV
  • HSV
  • EBV
  • VZV
96
Q

Name 4 main segmented viruses using the mneumonic BOAR.

A
  • Bunyaviruses
  • Orthomyxoviruses (influenza virus)
  • Arenaviruses
  • Reoviruses
97
Q

Name eveloped DNA viruses (3). HPH

A
  • Hepadna
  • Pox
  • Herpes
98
Q

Name naked DNA viruses (3). PAP

A
  • Parvo
  • Adeno
  • Papova
    ‘You need to be naked for a PAP smear.’
99
Q

Name the 3 naked RNA viruses Naked CPR).

A
  • Calcivivirus
  • Picornavirus
  • Reovirus
100
Q

Name the characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions seen in neurons infected with rabies.

A

Negri bodies

101
Q

Name the DNA enveloped viruses (3).

A
  • Herpesviruses (herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2, VZV, CMV, EBV)
  • HBV
  • smallpox virus
102
Q

Name the DNA nucleocapsid viruses (2).

A

Adenovirus, Papillomaviruses

103
Q

Name the DNA viruses using the mneumonic ‘HHAPPPy viruses.’

A
  • Hepadnavirus
  • Herpesviruses
  • Adenovirus
  • Parvovirus
  • Papovavirus
  • Poxvirus
104
Q

Name the illness caused by rabies and 2 primary symptoms.

A

Encephalitis, fatal is not prevented, with seizures and hydrophobia.

105
Q

Name the members of the PaRaMyxovirus using the letters in bold (4 viruses).

A
  • Parainfluenza
  • RSV
  • Measles
  • Mumps
106
Q

Name the recombinant vaccine available (1).

A

HBV (antigen = recombinant HBsAg)

107
Q

Name the RNA enveloped viruses (9).

A
  • Influenza viruses
  • parainfluenza viruses
  • RSV
  • measles
  • mumps
  • rubella
  • rabies
  • HTLV
  • HIV
108
Q

Name the RNA nucleocapsid viruses (3).

A
  • Enteroviruses (poliovirus, coxsackievirus, echovirus, hepatitis A virus)
  • rhinovirus
  • reovirus
109
Q

Name the vaccines that are killed (4).

A
  • rabies
  • influenza
  • hepatitis A
  • SalK=Killed
110
Q

Name the vaccines that are live attenuated (6).

A
  • MMR
  • Sabin polio
  • VZV
  • yellow fever
111
Q

Of these 3 markers (HBsAg, HBsAb, HBcAg), which ones are positive in each of the 4 phases below: (acute disease, window phase, complete recovery, chronic carrier).

A
  • HBsAg, HBcAg
  • HBcAg
  • HBsAb, HBcAg
  • HBsAg, HBcAg
112
Q

On HIV, what is gp41 and gp120?

A

envelope protein

113
Q

On HIV, what is p24? (illus. p. 205)

A

rectangular nucleocapsid protein

114
Q

Roughly, what are the time periods for acute, latent, and immunodefi cient stages of HIV?

A

Acute: 1-3 months
Latent: 3 months-3 years
Immunodeficient.: 3 yrs.- death
(diagram p. 205 that follows serologic course).

115
Q

Statement: HEV resembles HAV in:

A

course, severity, and incubation,

116
Q

Use the mneumonic PERCH to name members of the Picornavirus family.

A
  • Poliovirus
  • Echovirus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coxsackievirus
  • Hepatitis A
117
Q

Viral nucleic acids with (choose) same/different nucleic acids as host are infective alone; others require special enzymes (contained in intact virion.)

A

same

118
Q

What 2 antigens are used to classify influenza?

A

Neuraminadase, Hemagglutinin

119
Q

What age group is the primary target of

paramyxoviruses?

A

children

120
Q

What antiviral treatment is approved for influenza A (especially prophylaxis) but not for influenza B & C

A

Amantadine and Rimantadine

121
Q

mua~~

A

kiss kiss~

122
Q

What antiviral treatment is approved for influenza A and B?

A

Zanamivir

123
Q

What are Councilman bodies and what are they pathomneumonic for?

A

acidophilic inclusions seen in the liver of those with yellow fever

124
Q

What are the 3 C’s of measles?

A
  • Cough
  • Coryza
  • Conjunctivitis
125
Q

What are the 4 C’s of HCV.

A

Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carriers

126
Q

What are the 4 most common diseases caused by prions?

A 
- Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 
(CJD: rapid progressive dementia) 
- kuru 
- scrapie (sheep) 
-'mad cow disease'
127
Q

What are the causes of SSPE and PML in

immunocompromised pts.

A
  • Late sequelae of measles

- Reactivation of JC virus

128
Q

What are the common diseases (1) and routes of transmission(1) for HHV-8?

A
  • high fever
  • black vomitous
  • jaundice
129
Q

What are the common diseases (1) and routes of transmission(1) for HHV-8?

A
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma (HIV pts.)

- sexual contact

130
Q

What are the common diseases (2) and routes of transmission(2) for EBV?

A
  • infectious mono, Burkitt’s lymphoma

- resp. secretions, saliva

131
Q

What are the common diseases (2) and routes of transmission(2) for HSV-2?

A
  • herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes

- sexual contact, perinatal

132
Q

What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(1) for VZV?

A
  • varicella zoster (shingles)
  • encephalitis
  • pneumonia
133
Q

What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(2) for HSV-1?

A
  • gingivostomatitis keratoconjunctivitis temporal lobe encephalitis herpes labialis
  • respiratory secretions and saliva
134
Q

What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(6) for CMV?

A
  • congenital infection, mono, pneumonia

- congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant

135
Q

What are the general characteristics of a prion?

A

infectious agent that does not contain RNA or DNA, consists only of protein

136
Q

What are the major viruses of the paramyxovirus family? (4)

A
  • parainfluenza (croup)
  • RSV
  • Measles
  • Mumps
137
Q

What are the primary symptoms of the mumps virus? (MOP)

A
  • aseptic Meningitis
  • Orchitis
  • Parotitis (mumps give you bumps = parotitis)
138
Q

What are the primary viruses of the picornavirus family? (PERCH)

A
  • Poliovirus
  • Echovirus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coxsackievirus
  • Hepatitis A
139
Q

What are two classic illness caused by arborviruses?

A
  • dengue fever (break-bone fever)

- yellow fever

140
Q

What general form of encephalopathies do prions present as?

A

spongiform encephalopathies

141
Q

What genetic property does segmentation afford viruses and how does this play into
flu epidemics?

A
  • Segmentation allows reassorment to occur in RNA viruses

- this contributes to antigenic shifts which cause most flu pandemics.

142
Q

What group has a high mortality rate from HEV?

A

pregnant women

143
Q

What hematologic finding is characteristic of mono?

A

abnormal circulating cytotoxic T cells (atypical

lymphocytes)

144
Q

What is HBcAb, and what does it indicate?

A

Antibody to HBcAg; IgM HBcAb indicates recent disease

145
Q

What is HBcAg?

A

Antigen associated with core of HBV

146
Q

What is HBeAb, and what does it indicate?

A

Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility

147
Q

What is HBeAg, and what does it indicate?

A

it is a 2nd differrent antigen marker of HBV core; indicates transmissibility (HBeAg=Beware)

148
Q

What is HBsAb, and what does it do?

A

Antibody to HBsAg; provides immunity to hepatitis B

149
Q

What is HBsAg, and what does it indicate?

A

Antigen found on surface of HBV; continued presence indicates carrier state

150
Q

What is IgM HAVAb, and what is it used to detect?

A

IgM antibody to HAV; best test to detect active hepatitis A

151
Q

What is meant by the ‘window period’ in HBV infection, and what is positive in this period?

A

It is the period between disappearance of HBsAg and appearance of Anti-HBs; HBcAb is pos. during this period.

152
Q

What is the classic vector for arborvirus?

A

Arthropods (mosquitos, ticks, etc.) ARBOR=Arthropod Borne

153
Q

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in HIV?

A

synthesize dsDNA from RNA for integration into host genome.

154
Q

What is the major mode of protection from influenza virus?

A

Killed viral vaccine which is reformulated each year and is given to those in high risk of
infection (elderly, health-workers, etc.)

155
Q

What is the method behind ELISA/Western blot and during what period of HIV
infection are they often negative?

A

look for abs to viral proteins; false negatives common in first 1-2 months of infection

156
Q

What is the mneumonic for remembering the Tzanck smear?

A

Tzanck heavens I don’t have herpes.

157
Q

What is the only DNA virus that is not double stranded?

A

Parvoviridae (ssDNA)

158
Q

What is the only RNA virus that has dsRNA?

A

Reoviridae [‘repeatovirus’ (reovirus) is

dsRNA]

159
Q

What is the viral cause of the common cold?

A
  • Rhinovirus, 100+ serotypes

- Rhino has a Runny nose.

160
Q

What neurologic infection can picornaviruses (except rhinoviruses and hepatitis A
viruses) cause?

A

Aseptic Meningitis

161
Q

What physical finding is diagnostic for measles?

A

Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa)

162
Q

What population should not receive a live vaccine?

A

Those who are immunocompromised and their close contacts.

163
Q

What reproductive complication can mumps

cause?

A

sterility; especially after puberty

164
Q

What shape are all the DNA viruses? Which virus (1) is the exception?

A
  • Icosahedral

- Poxvirus (complex)

165
Q

What test is used to make thepresumptive dx of HIV, and then, which test confirms the dx?

A

ELISA (sensitive w/ high false + and low threshold); Western blot (specifi c, high false - rate with high threshold)

166
Q

What tests are gaining popularity for monitoring drug tx efficacy in HIV?

A

PCR/viral load tests

167
Q

What type of genome does HIV have?

A

diploid RNA

168
Q

What type of nucleic acid structure does rotavirus have?

A

segmented dsRNA

169
Q

What type of transcription occurs and what type of polymerase does it possess?

A
  • Reverse transcription
  • the virion contains an RNA
  • dependent DNA polymerase
170
Q

What type of virus is HAV and how is it transmitted?

A
  • RNA picornavirus
  • fecal
  • oral route
171
Q

What type of virus is HBV and how is it transmitted?

A
  • DNA hepadnavirus
  • parenteral, sexual, and maternal
  • fetal routes
172
Q

What type of virus is HCV and how is it transmitted?

A
  • RNA flavivirus

- via blood and resembles HBV in its course and severity

173
Q

What type of virus is HDV and what is special about its envelope?

A
  • delta agent, it is a defective virus

- requires HBsAg as its envelope

174
Q

What type of virus is HEV and how is it transmitted?

A
  • RNA calicivirus

- enteric transmission; causes water-borne epidemics

175
Q

What variant of dengue fever is found in Southeast Asia?

A

hemorrhagic shock syndrome

176
Q

What virus causes and what are the classic symptoms of mononucleosis?

A
  • EBV
  • fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis,
    lymphadenopathy (esp. posterior auricular nodes)
177
Q

What virus causes yellow (=flavi) fever, and what is its vector and reservoirs (2)?

A
  • flavivirus
  • Aedes mosquitos
  • monkey or human reservoir
178
Q

What virus is the most common global cause of infantile gastroenteritis and acute diarrhea (in the US).

A

Rotavirus

179
Q

Where do enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes, and what virus is the exception to
this rule?

A
  • Plasma membrane

- Herpesviruses which acquire their envelope from the nuclear membrane

180
Q

Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate, and which virus is the exception to this
rule?

A
  • Nucleus
  • exception:
    poxvirus in cytoplasm (carries DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
181
Q

Where in the cell do RNA viruses replicate, and what 2 viruses are the exception to
this rule?

A
  • Cytoplasm

- exception: influenza virus and retroviruses

182
Q

Which marker tests are appropriate for each phase of hepatitis infection:
Incubation, Prodrome/acute
illness, Early Convalescence,
Late Convalescence.

A
  • HBsAg
  • HBsAg (Anti-HBc)
  • Anti-HBc
  • Anti-HBs (anti-HBc)
183
Q

Which two DNA viruses don’t have a linear genome? (they’re circular)

A

Papovaviruses and Hepadnaviruses

184
Q

Which two hepatitis viruses follow the fecal-oral route?

A

A and E; ‘The vowels hit your bowels.’

185
Q

Which two hepatitis viruses predispose to hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV and HCV

186
Q

Why is mono called the ‘kissing disease?’

A
  • Peak incidence occurs during peak kissing years 15-20 yo

- (saliva transmission)

187
Q

3 main roles of Ig binding to bacteria

A
  • opsonization
  • neutralization
  • complement activation
188
Q

A defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or similar enzymes is indicative of what immune deficiency disease?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

189
Q

After exposure to what 4 things are preformed

(passive) antibodies given?

A

Tetanus toxin, Botulinum toxin, HBV, or Rabies.

190
Q

All nucleated cells have what class of MHC proteins?

A

class I MHC proteins

191
Q

Anaphylaxis, asthma, or local wheal and flare are possible manifestations of which type
of hypersensitivity?

A

Type I

192
Q

Anti-gliadin autoantibodies are associated with what disease?

A

Celiac disease

193
Q

Anti-Scl-70 autoantibodies are associated with what disease?

A

diffuse Scleroderma

194
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Rh disease
(erythroblastosis fetalis), and Goodpasture’s syndrome are examples of what kind of
hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type II hypersensitivity

195
Q

Class I major histocompatibilty complex

consists of …

A

1 polypeptide, with B2-microglobulin

196
Q

Class II major histocompatibilty complex

consists of …

A

2 polypeptides, an a and a B chain

197
Q

Cytotoxic T cells have CD(?), which binds to class (?) MHC on virus-infected cells.

A

CD8 binds to class I MHC

198
Q

Define acute transplant rejection.

A

Cell-mediated due to cytotoxic T lymphocytes

reacting against foreign MHCs. Occurs weeks after transplantation.

199
Q

Define adjuvant.

A

Adjuvants are nonspecific stimulators of the immune response but are not immunogenic by themselves.

200
Q

Define chronic transplant rejection.

A

Antibody-mediated vascular damage (fibrinoid necrosis)–irreversible. Occurs months to years after transplantation.

Microbiology & Immunology (4 decks)

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