Sheet3-表格 1 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
What disesase does Trichomonas Vaginalis cause?
A
Vaginitis: foul-smelling, greenish discharge; itching and burning
2
Q
What do you tx P. Carinii with?
A
TMP-SMZ, or pentamidine, or dapsone
3
Q
What do you use to culture cryptococcus?
A
Sabouraud’s Agar
4
Q
What do you use to Diagnose E. Histolytica?
A
Serology and/or trophozoites or cysts in stool
5
Q
What do you use to stain Cryptococcus?
A
India Ink
6
Q
What do you use to tx cryptosporidium?
A
nothing
7
Q
What do you use to Tx Giardiasis?
A
Metronidazole
8
Q
What do you use to tx T. Vaginalis?
A
Metronidazole
9
Q
What do you used to dx P. Carinii?
A
Lung biopsy or lavage, methenamine silver stain
10
Q
What do you used to Tx Candida Albicans?
A
Nystatin for superficial infection, Amphotericin B for systemic
11
Q
What does Alba mean?
A
white
12
Q
What does dimorphic mean?
A
fungi that are mold in the soil (low temp) and yeast in tissue (higher/body temp 37 C)
13
Q
What is diagnostic for L. donovani?
A
Macrophages containing amastigotes
14
Q
What is diagnostic of T. Vaginalis?
A
Trophozoites on wet mount
15
Q
What is histoplasmosis associated with?
A
bird or bat droppings
16
Q
What is the progression of S. Schenckii infection?
A
traumatic introduction into the skin, typically by a thorn (‘rose gardner’s’ disease) , causes local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis) . Little systemic illness.
17
Q
What is the vector for L. donovani?
A
Sandfly
18
Q
What is the vector for T. Cruzii?
A
Reduviid Bug
19
Q
What is the vector for T. Gambiense and Rhodesiense?
A
Tsetse fly
20
Q
What is used to dx African sleeping sickness?
A
Blood smear
21
Q
What is used to dx T. Cruzii?
A
blood smear
22
Q
What is used to dx toxoplasma?
A
serology and biopsy
23
Q
What is used to treat D. Medinensis?
A
Niridazole
24
Q
What is used to Treat E. Histolytica?
A
Metronidazole and Iodoquinol
25
What is used to tx african sleeping sickness?
Suramin for bloodborne disease or melaroprol for CNS penetration
26
What is used to tx Ancylostoma duodenale?
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
27
What is used to tx Ascaris Lumbricoides?
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
28
What is used to tx Clonorhis sinensis?
Praziquantel
29
What is used to tx E. Granulosus?
Albendazole
30
hug my baby~
kiss u~
31
What is used to tx E. Vermicularis?
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
32
What is used to tx L. Donovani?
Sodium Stibogluconate
33
What is used to tx Loa loa?
diethylcarbamazine
34
What is used to tx malaria?
Chloroquine ( primaquine for vivax, ovale) , sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine, mefloquine,
quinine
35
What is used to tx O. Volvulus?
Ivermectin
36
What is used to tx Paragonimus Wetermani?
Praziquantel
37
What is used to tx S. Stercoralis?
Ivermectin/thiabendazole
38
What is used to tx schistosoma?
Praziquantel
39
What is used to tx T. Canis?
diethylcarbamazine
40
What is used to tx T. Cruzii?
Nifurtimox
41
What is used to tx T. Spiralis?
Thiabendazole
42
What is used to tx taenia solium infection?
Praziquantel/niclosamide; albendazole for cysticercosis
43
What is used to tx toxoplasma?
sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
44
What is used to tx W. Bancrofti?
diethylcarbamazine
45
What patient population is susceptible to Mucor disease?
Ketoacidotic patients and Leukemic patients
46
What stain do you use for lung tissue when you are detecting P. Carinii?
silver
47
What state predisposes you to P. Carinii infection?
Immunosuppression
48
What test can be used to detect polysaccharide capsular antigen of Cryptococcus?
latex agglutination test
49
What types of infections can Candida Albicans cause?
systemic or superficial fungal in fections
50
When do you start prophylaxis in HIV patients?
when the CD4 drops below 200 cells/mL
51
Where do the mucor and rhizopus species fungi proliferate?
in the walls of blood vessels and cause infarction of distal tissue
52
Where is Blastomycosis endemic?
States east of the Mississippi River and Central America
53
Where is Coccidioidomycosis endemic?
SWUS, California (San Joaquin Valley or destert (desert bumps) 'Valley fever')
54
Where is Histoplasmosis endemic?
Mississippi and Ohio River valleys
55
Where is Paracoccioidomycosis endemic?
Rural Latin America
56
All viruses are haploid except _________?(1)
Retroviruses, which have two identical ssRNA molecules (diploid).
57
Bites from what 3 animals are more prone to rabies infection than a bite from a dog?
Bat, Raccoon, and Skunk
58
Define complementation?
When one of 2 viruses that infects the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein. The nonmutated virus 'complements' the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.
59
Define genetic drift.
Minor changes based on random mutations.
60
Define genetic shift.
Reassorment of viral genome (such as when human flu A virus recombines with swine flu A virus.)
61
Define phenotypic mixing?
When virus A acquires virus B coat proteins and acts like virus B but its progeny will
have virus A genome and coat.
62
Define reassortment?
- When viruses with segmented genomes (eg. infl uenza virus) exchange segments.
- High frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.
63
Define recombination?
Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology.
64
Describe its incubation period and whether or not it has a carrier.
- Short incubation period (3 weeks)
| - No carriers
65
Describe its incubation period and whether or not it has a carrier.
- Long incubation (3 months)
| - has carriers
66
Describe the general concept of bacterial super infection which can occur with
influenza infection? S
A life-threatening illness where a bacterial infection is superimposed on an existing
viral infection.
67
Describe the genetic and physical properties of influenza virus?
- Enveloped
- ssRNA virus with segmented genome
- prone to genetic changes
68
Describe the migration of rabies within the CNS.
It migrates in a retrograde fashion within the CNS up n. axons.
69
Describe the physical shape and duration of incubation for rabies.
- Bullet-shaped capsid (illus. in book)
| - long incubation period (wks. - 3 months)
70
Describe the technique and purpose for performing a Tzanck test?
- assay for herpes
| - make a smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells
71
Describe whether or not it has a carrier.
has carriers
72
Does HDV have carriers?
Yes
73
Explain the concept of a slow virus infection.
Virus exists in patient for months to years before it manifests as clinical disease.
74
From the following selection which classes are considered infectious and which aren't:
dsDNA, ds RNA, (-)ssRNA, (+) ssRNA.
- Infectious: dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV) and (+) ssRNA
- Noninfectious: dsRNA and (-) ssRNA
75
HCV is a common form of hepatitis in what US population?
IV drug users
76
How does a Monospot test work?
It detects heterophil antibodies by agglutination to sheep RBC's
77
How is RNA translated and processed in picornaviruses?
RNA is translated into one long polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into many small proteins.
78
How many segments and what sense is the RNA genome of influenza viruses?
- 8 segments
| - negative sense
79
How many serotypes do paramyxoviruses have except parainfluenza which has ___?
- 1 - 4
80
Into what class RNA or DNA to all segmented viruses fall?
RNA
81
Killed vaccines induce what type of immunity?
Humoral, with no possibility of the virus reverting to virulence
82
Live attenuated vaccines induce what type of
| immunity?
Humoral and Cellular - with a risk of the virus reverting to virulence
83
Mneumonic for rotavirus symptoms: ROTA
Right Out The Anus
84
Mneumonic: Hep D:
Defective, Dependent on HBV
85
Mneumonic: Hep E:
Enteric, Expectant mothers, Epidemics
86
Mneumonic: Hep A:
Asymptomatic (usually)
87
Mneumonic: Hep B:
Blood-borne
88
Mneumonic: picoRNAvirus
pico = 'small' RNA viruses
89
Name 2 common bacterial infections in AIDS pts.
TB, M. avium-intracellulare complex
90
Name 2 common protozoan infections in AIDS pts.
Blood-borne pico = 'small' RNA viruses
91
Name 3 members of the arborvirus family.
Flavivirus, Togavirus, and Bunyavirus
92
Name 3 possible sequelae of measles infection?
- SSPE
- encephalitis
- giant cell pneumonia (rare;found in immunocompromised persons)
93
Name 4 common fungal infections in AIDS pts.
- Thrush (Candida ablicans)
- cryptococcosis (cryptococcal meningitis)
- histoplasmosis
- Pneumocystis pneumonia
94
Name 4 common viral infections in AIDS pts.
- HSV
- VZV
- CMV
- progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy (JC virus)
95
Name 4 herpesviruses using the mneumonic: Get herpes in a CHEVrolet.
- CMV
- HSV
- EBV
- VZV
96
Name 4 main segmented viruses using the mneumonic BOAR.
- Bunyaviruses
- Orthomyxoviruses (influenza virus)
- Arenaviruses
- Reoviruses
97
Name eveloped DNA viruses (3). HPH
- Hepadna
- Pox
- Herpes
98
Name naked DNA viruses (3). PAP
- Parvo
- Adeno
- Papova
'You need to be naked for a PAP smear.'
99
Name the 3 naked RNA viruses Naked CPR).
- Calcivivirus
- Picornavirus
- Reovirus
100
Name the characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions seen in neurons infected with rabies.
Negri bodies
101
Name the DNA enveloped viruses (3).
- Herpesviruses (herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2, VZV, CMV, EBV)
- HBV
- smallpox virus
102
Name the DNA nucleocapsid viruses (2).
Adenovirus, Papillomaviruses
103
Name the DNA viruses using the mneumonic 'HHAPPPy viruses.'
- Hepadnavirus
- Herpesviruses
- Adenovirus
- Parvovirus
- Papovavirus
- Poxvirus
104
Name the illness caused by rabies and 2 primary symptoms.
Encephalitis, fatal is not prevented, with seizures and hydrophobia.
105
Name the members of the PaRaMyxovirus using the letters in bold (4 viruses).
- Parainfluenza
- RSV
- Measles
- Mumps
106
Name the recombinant vaccine available (1).
HBV (antigen = recombinant HBsAg)
107
Name the RNA enveloped viruses (9).
- Influenza viruses
- parainfluenza viruses
- RSV
- measles
- mumps
- rubella
- rabies
- HTLV
- HIV
108
Name the RNA nucleocapsid viruses (3).
- Enteroviruses (poliovirus, coxsackievirus, echovirus, hepatitis A virus)
- rhinovirus
- reovirus
109
Name the vaccines that are killed (4).
- rabies
- influenza
- hepatitis A
- SalK=Killed
110
Name the vaccines that are live attenuated (6).
- MMR
- Sabin polio
- VZV
- yellow fever
111
Of these 3 markers (HBsAg, HBsAb, HBcAg), which ones are positive in each of the 4 phases below: (acute disease, window phase, complete recovery, chronic carrier).
- HBsAg, HBcAg
- HBcAg
- HBsAb, HBcAg
- HBsAg, HBcAg
112
On HIV, what is gp41 and gp120?
envelope protein
113
On HIV, what is p24? (illus. p. 205)
rectangular nucleocapsid protein
114
Roughly, what are the time periods for acute, latent, and immunodefi cient stages of HIV?
Acute: 1-3 months
Latent: 3 months-3 years
Immunodeficient.: 3 yrs.- death
(diagram p. 205 that follows serologic course).
115
Statement: HEV resembles HAV in:
course, severity, and incubation,
116
Use the mneumonic PERCH to name members of the Picornavirus family.
- Poliovirus
- Echovirus
- Rhinovirus
- Coxsackievirus
- Hepatitis A
117
Viral nucleic acids with (choose) same/different nucleic acids as host are infective alone; others require special enzymes (contained in intact virion.)
same
118
What 2 antigens are used to classify influenza?
Neuraminadase, Hemagglutinin
119
What age group is the primary target of
| paramyxoviruses?
children
120
What antiviral treatment is approved for influenza A (especially prophylaxis) but not for influenza B & C
Amantadine and Rimantadine
121
mua~~
kiss kiss~
122
What antiviral treatment is approved for influenza A and B?
Zanamivir
123
What are Councilman bodies and what are they pathomneumonic for?
acidophilic inclusions seen in the liver of those with yellow fever
124
What are the 3 C's of measles?
- Cough
- Coryza
- Conjunctivitis
125
What are the 4 C's of HCV.
Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carriers
126
What are the 4 most common diseases caused by prions?
```
- Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(CJD: rapid progressive dementia)
- kuru
- scrapie (sheep)
-'mad cow disease'
```
127
What are the causes of SSPE and PML in
| immunocompromised pts.
- Late sequelae of measles
| - Reactivation of JC virus
128
What are the common diseases (1) and routes of transmission(1) for HHV-8?
- high fever
- black vomitous
- jaundice
129
What are the common diseases (1) and routes of transmission(1) for HHV-8?
- Kaposi's sarcoma (HIV pts.)
| - sexual contact
130
What are the common diseases (2) and routes of transmission(2) for EBV?
- infectious mono, Burkitt's lymphoma
| - resp. secretions, saliva
131
What are the common diseases (2) and routes of transmission(2) for HSV-2?
- herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes
| - sexual contact, perinatal
132
What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(1) for VZV?
- varicella zoster (shingles)
- encephalitis
- pneumonia
133
What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(2) for HSV-1?
- gingivostomatitis keratoconjunctivitis temporal lobe encephalitis herpes labialis
- respiratory secretions and saliva
134
What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(6) for CMV?
- congenital infection, mono, pneumonia
| - congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant
135
What are the general characteristics of a prion?
infectious agent that does not contain RNA or DNA, consists only of protein
136
What are the major viruses of the paramyxovirus family? (4)
- parainfluenza (croup)
- RSV
- Measles
- Mumps
137
What are the primary symptoms of the mumps virus? (MOP)
- aseptic Meningitis
- Orchitis
- Parotitis (mumps give you bumps = parotitis)
138
What are the primary viruses of the picornavirus family? (PERCH)
- Poliovirus
- Echovirus
- Rhinovirus
- Coxsackievirus
- Hepatitis A
139
What are two classic illness caused by arborviruses?
- dengue fever (break-bone fever)
| - yellow fever
140
What general form of encephalopathies do prions present as?
spongiform encephalopathies
141
What genetic property does segmentation afford viruses and how does this play into
flu epidemics?
- Segmentation allows reassorment to occur in RNA viruses
| - this contributes to antigenic shifts which cause most flu pandemics.
142
What group has a high mortality rate from HEV?
pregnant women
143
What hematologic finding is characteristic of mono?
abnormal circulating cytotoxic T cells (atypical
| lymphocytes)
144
What is HBcAb, and what does it indicate?
Antibody to HBcAg; IgM HBcAb indicates recent disease
145
What is HBcAg?
Antigen associated with core of HBV
146
What is HBeAb, and what does it indicate?
Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility
147
What is HBeAg, and what does it indicate?
it is a 2nd differrent antigen marker of HBV core; indicates transmissibility (HBeAg=Beware)
148
What is HBsAb, and what does it do?
Antibody to HBsAg; provides immunity to hepatitis B
149
What is HBsAg, and what does it indicate?
Antigen found on surface of HBV; continued presence indicates carrier state
150
What is IgM HAVAb, and what is it used to detect?
IgM antibody to HAV; best test to detect active hepatitis A
151
What is meant by the 'window period' in HBV infection, and what is positive in this period?
It is the period between disappearance of HBsAg and appearance of Anti-HBs; HBcAb is pos. during this period.
152
What is the classic vector for arborvirus?
Arthropods (mosquitos, ticks, etc.) ARBOR=Arthropod Borne
153
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in HIV?
synthesize dsDNA from RNA for integration into host genome.
154
What is the major mode of protection from influenza virus?
Killed viral vaccine which is reformulated each year and is given to those in high risk of
infection (elderly, health-workers, etc.)
155
What is the method behind ELISA/Western blot and during what period of HIV
infection are they often negative?
look for abs to viral proteins; false negatives common in first 1-2 months of infection
156
What is the mneumonic for remembering the Tzanck smear?
Tzanck heavens I don't have herpes.
157
What is the only DNA virus that is not double stranded?
Parvoviridae (ssDNA)
158
What is the only RNA virus that has dsRNA?
Reoviridae ['repeatovirus' (reovirus) is
| dsRNA]
159
What is the viral cause of the common cold?
- Rhinovirus, 100+ serotypes
| - Rhino has a Runny nose.
160
What neurologic infection can picornaviruses (except rhinoviruses and hepatitis A
viruses) cause?
Aseptic Meningitis
161
What physical finding is diagnostic for measles?
Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa)
162
What population should not receive a live vaccine?
Those who are immunocompromised and their close contacts.
163
What reproductive complication can mumps
| cause?
sterility; especially after puberty
164
What shape are all the DNA viruses? Which virus (1) is the exception?
- Icosahedral
| - Poxvirus (complex)
165
What test is used to make thepresumptive dx of HIV, and then, which test confirms the dx?
ELISA (sensitive w/ high false + and low threshold); Western blot (specifi c, high false - rate with high threshold)
166
What tests are gaining popularity for monitoring drug tx efficacy in HIV?
PCR/viral load tests
167
What type of genome does HIV have?
diploid RNA
168
What type of nucleic acid structure does rotavirus have?
segmented dsRNA
169
What type of transcription occurs and what type of polymerase does it possess?
- Reverse transcription
- the virion contains an RNA
- dependent DNA polymerase
170
What type of virus is HAV and how is it transmitted?
- RNA picornavirus
- fecal
- oral route
171
What type of virus is HBV and how is it transmitted?
- DNA hepadnavirus
- parenteral, sexual, and maternal
- fetal routes
172
What type of virus is HCV and how is it transmitted?
- RNA flavivirus
| - via blood and resembles HBV in its course and severity
173
What type of virus is HDV and what is special about its envelope?
- delta agent, it is a defective virus
| - requires HBsAg as its envelope
174
What type of virus is HEV and how is it transmitted?
- RNA calicivirus
| - enteric transmission; causes water-borne epidemics
175
What variant of dengue fever is found in Southeast Asia?
hemorrhagic shock syndrome
176
What virus causes and what are the classic symptoms of mononucleosis?
- EBV
- fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis,
lymphadenopathy (esp. posterior auricular nodes)
177
What virus causes yellow (=flavi) fever, and what is its vector and reservoirs (2)?
- flavivirus
- Aedes mosquitos
- monkey or human reservoir
178
What virus is the most common global cause of infantile gastroenteritis and acute diarrhea (in the US).
Rotavirus
179
Where do enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes, and what virus is the exception to
this rule?
- Plasma membrane
| - Herpesviruses which acquire their envelope from the nuclear membrane
180
Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate, and which virus is the exception to this
rule?
- Nucleus
- exception:
poxvirus in cytoplasm (carries DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
181
Where in the cell do RNA viruses replicate, and what 2 viruses are the exception to
this rule?
- Cytoplasm
| - exception: influenza virus and retroviruses
182
Which marker tests are appropriate for each phase of hepatitis infection:
Incubation, Prodrome/acute
illness, Early Convalescence,
Late Convalescence.
- HBsAg
- HBsAg (Anti-HBc)
- Anti-HBc
- Anti-HBs (anti-HBc)
183
Which two DNA viruses don't have a linear genome? (they're circular)
Papovaviruses and Hepadnaviruses
184
Which two hepatitis viruses follow the fecal-oral route?
A and E; 'The vowels hit your bowels.'
185
Which two hepatitis viruses predispose to hepatocellular carcinoma?
HBV and HCV
186
Why is mono called the 'kissing disease?'
- Peak incidence occurs during peak kissing years 15-20 yo
| - (saliva transmission)
187
3 main roles of Ig binding to bacteria
- opsonization
- neutralization
- complement activation
188
A defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or similar enzymes is indicative of what immune deficiency disease?
Chronic granulomatous disease
189
After exposure to what 4 things are preformed
| (passive) antibodies given?
Tetanus toxin, Botulinum toxin, HBV, or Rabies.
190
All nucleated cells have what class of MHC proteins?
class I MHC proteins
191
Anaphylaxis, asthma, or local wheal and flare are possible manifestations of which type
of hypersensitivity?
Type I
192
Anti-gliadin autoantibodies are associated with what disease?
Celiac disease
193
Anti-Scl-70 autoantibodies are associated with what disease?
diffuse Scleroderma
194
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Rh disease
(erythroblastosis fetalis), and Goodpasture's syndrome are examples of what kind of
hypersensitivity reaction?
type II hypersensitivity
195
Class I major histocompatibilty complex
| consists of …
1 polypeptide, with B2-microglobulin
196
Class II major histocompatibilty complex
| consists of …
2 polypeptides, an a and a B chain
197
Cytotoxic T cells have CD(?), which binds to class (?) MHC on virus-infected cells.
CD8 binds to class I MHC
198
Define acute transplant rejection.
Cell-mediated due to cytotoxic T lymphocytes
| reacting against foreign MHCs. Occurs weeks after transplantation.
199
Define adjuvant.
Adjuvants are nonspecific stimulators of the immune response but are not immunogenic by themselves.
200
Define chronic transplant rejection.
Antibody-mediated vascular damage (fibrinoid necrosis)--irreversible. Occurs months to years after transplantation.
