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Microbiology & Immunology > Sheet1-表格 1 > Flashcards

Sheet1-表格 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

(T/F) The outer membrane for G+ and the cell membrane for G- act as major surface antigens

A

FALSE: they DO act a major surface antigens BUT the outer mb for G- and the cell membrane for G+

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2
Q

Are endotoxins heat stable?

A

yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.

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3
Q

Are endotoxins secreted from cells?

A

NO

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4
Q

Are endotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?

A

no, they don’t produce protective immune response

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5
Q

Are exotoxins heat stable?

A

no, destroyed rapidly at 60C (exception: Staphylococcal enterotoxin)

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6
Q

Are exotoxins secreted from cells?

A

YES

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7
Q

Are exotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?

A

Yes, TOXOIDS are used as vaccines

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8
Q

Describe the chemical composition of peptidoglycan.

A

Sugar backbone with crosslinked peptide side chains.

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9
Q

Describe the major components of a G- cell wall.

A
  • inner and outer lipid bilayer membranes
  • thin layer of peptidoglycan
  • periplasmic space
  • contains lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein and phospholipid
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10
Q

Describe the major components of a G+ cell wall.

A
  • one lipid bilayer membrane
  • thick layer of peptidoglycan
  • contains teichoic acid
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11
Q

Describe the process of conjugation.

A

DNA transfer from one bacterium to another.

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12
Q

Describe the process of transduction.

A

DNA transfer by a virus from one cell to another

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13
Q

Describe the process of transformation.

A

purified DNA is taken up by a cell

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14
Q

Does endotoxin induce an antigenic response?

A

no, not well

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15
Q

Does exotoxin induce an antigenic response?

A

Yes, induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins

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16
Q

Give two general functions of peptidoglycan

A
  • Gives rigid support

- Protects against osmotic pressure

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17
Q

How are Group A and Group B Strep primarily differentiated?

A
  • Group A are Bacitracin sensitive

- Group B are Bacitracin resistant

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18
Q

How are the pathogenic Neisseria species

differentiated?

A

on the basis of sugar fermentation

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19
Q

How are the species of Streptococcus primarily differentiated?

A

on the basis of their HEMOLYTIC capabilities

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20
Q

List the four phases of the bacterial growth curve.

A
  • Lag phase
  • log (exponential) phase
  • stationary phase
  • death phase
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21
Q

Name 2 G- rods that are considered slow lactose fermenters.

A

Citrobacter and Serratia

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22
Q

Name 3 G- rods that are considered fast lactose fermenters.

A

1) Klebsiella
2) E. coli
3) Enterobacter

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23
Q

Name 3 G- rods which are lactose nonfermenters and Oxidase(-)?

A

Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus

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24
Q

Name 4 bacteria that use IgA protease to colonize mucosal surfaces.

A

1) Strep. pneumoniae
2) Neisseria meningitidis
3) Neisseria gonorrhea
4) H. flu

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25
Q

Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G- ‘coccoid’ rods.

A

1) H. flu
2) Pasteruella
3) Brucella
4) Bordetella pertussis

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26
Q

Name 6 bacteria that don’t Gram’s stain well?

A
  • Treponema
  • Rickettsia
  • Mycobacteria
  • Mycoplasma
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • Chlamydia
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27
Q

Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G+ rods.

A

1) Clostridium (an anaerobe)
2) Coynebacterium
3) Listeria
4) Bacillus

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28
Q

Name 7 G+ bacteria species that make exotoxins.

A

1) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
2) Clostridium tetani
3) Clostridium botulinum
4) Clostridium perfringens
5) Bacillus anthracis
6) Staph. aureus
7) Strep. Pyogenes

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29
Q

Name 3 diseases caused by exotoxins.

A
  • Tetanus
  • botulism
  • diptheria
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30
Q

Name 3 G- bacteria species that make exotoxins.

A

1) E. coli
2) Vibrio cholerae
3) Bordetella pertussis

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31
Q

Name 3 Lactose－fermenting enterics.

A

Eschericia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter

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32
Q

Name 2 diseases caused by endotoxins.

A
  • Meningococcemia

- sepsis by G(-) rods

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33
Q

Name 2 type of Strep that exhibit alpha hemolysis?

A
  • S. pneumoniae

- Viridans strep. (e.g. S. mutans)

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34
Q

Name 2 types of Strep. that are non-hemolytic (gamma hemolysis).

A
  • Enterococcus (E. faecalis)

- Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)

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35
Q

Name 2 types of Strep. that exhibit beta hemolysis.

A
  • Group A Strep. (GAS)

- Group B Strep. (GBS)

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36
Q

Teichoic acid induces what 2 cytokines?

A

TNF and IL-1

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37
Q

What are the effects of erythrogenic toxin?

A

it is a superantigen

=> causes rash of Scarlet fever

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38
Q

What are the effects of streptolysin O?

A
  • it is a hemolysin

- it is the antigen for ASO-antibody found in rheumatic fever

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39
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bacillus anthracis? (1)

A

one toxin in the toxin complex is an adenylate

cyclase

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40
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bordetella pertussis? (3)

A
  • Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation
  • causes whooping cough
  • inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis
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41
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium botulinum?

A
  • blocks release of acetylcholine: causes
    anticholenergic symptoms,
  • CNS paralysis; can cause ‘floppy baby’
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42
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium perfringens?

A

alpha toxin is a lecithinase - causes gas gangrene - get a double zone of hemolysis on
blood agar

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43
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium tetani?

A

blocks release of the inhibitory NT glycine; causes ‘lockjaw’

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44
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheria?
(3)

A

1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation
2) pharyngitis
3) ‘pseudomembrane’ in throat

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45
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by E. coli? (2)

A

this heat labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - causes watery diarrhea

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46
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Staph. aureus?

A

superantigen; induces IL-1 and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic Shock Syndrome; also causes food poisoning

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47
Q

What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Vibro cholerae? (3)

A
  • Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein
  • increases pumping of Cl and H2O into gut
  • causes voluminous rice-water diarrhea
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48
Q

What are the general clinical effects of endotoxin?(2)

A

fever, shock

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49
Q

What are 3 primary/general effects of endotoxin (especially lipid A)?

A

1) Acivates macrophages
2) Activates complement (alt. pathway)
3) Activates Hageman factor

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50
Q

What are 2 exotoxins secreted by Strep. pyogenes?

A

Erythrogenic toxin and streptolysin O

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51
Q

What are 2 functions of the pilus/fimbrae?

A
  • Mediate adherence of bacteria to the cell surface

- sex pilus forms attachment b/t 2 bacteria during conjugation

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52
Q

What are 2 species of Gram (-) cocci and how are they differentiated?

A

1) Neisseria memingitidis:maltose fermenter

2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae: maltose NONfementer

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53
Q

What bacteria produces a blue-green pigment?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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54
Q

What bacteria produces a red pigment?

A

Serratia marcescens (‘maraschino cherries are red’)

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55
Q

What bacteria produces a yellow pigment?

A

Staph. aureus (Aureus= gold in Latin)

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56
Q

What culture requirements do Fungi have?

A

Sabouraud’s agar

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57
Q

What culture requirements do Lactose-fermenting enterics have?

A

MacConkey’s agar (make pink colonies)

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58
Q

What culture requirements does B. pertussis have?

A

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

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59
Q

What culture requirements does C. diphtheriae have?

A

Tellurite agar

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60
Q

What culture requirements does H. flu have?

A

chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)

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61
Q

have a little rest~baby~~

A

I miss u ~~

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62
Q

What culture requirements does Legionella pneumophia have?

A

Charcol yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine

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63
Q

What culture requirements does N. gonorrhea have?

A

Thayer-Martin (VCN) media

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64
Q

What G- rod is a lactose nonfermenter and is Oxidase + ?

A

Pseudomonas

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65
Q

What is a function of the plasma membrane in bacterial cells.

A

site of oxidative and transport enzymes

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66
Q

What is a toxoid?

A

exotoxin treated with formaldehyde (or acid or

heat); retains antigenicity but loses toxicity

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67
Q

What is an acronym for remembering 6 bacteria that don’t Gram’s stain well?

A

TRMMLC: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color

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68
Q

What is meant by alpha, beta, and gamma hemolysis?

A

On a Blood agar plate:

  • alpha= complete; clear
  • beta= partial; green
  • gamma= no hemolysis; red
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69
Q

What is the chemical composition of a glycocalix?

A

polysaccharide

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70
Q

What is the chemical composition of bacterial

ribosomes?

A

RNA and protein in 30S and 50S subunits

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71
Q

What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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72
Q

What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?

A

polypeptide

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73
Q

What is the chemical composition of spores?

A

keratin-like coat - dipicolinic acid

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74
Q

What is the function and chemical composition of the flagellum?

A

for motility - made of protein

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75
Q

What is the function of a glycocalix?

A

mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (i.e. catheters)

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76
Q

What is the function of spores?

A

provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and

chemicals

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77
Q

What is the major chemical composition of the capsule?

A

Polysaccharide (*except Bacillus anthracis, which contains D-Glutamate)

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78
Q

What is the major function of the capsule?

A

antiphagocytic

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79
Q

What is the mode of action of endotoxin?

A

includes TNF and IL-1

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80
Q

What is the nature of the DNA transferred in conjugation?

A

Chromosomal or plasmid

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81
Q

What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transduction?

A

Any gene in generalized transduction; only certain genes in specialized transduction

82
Q

What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transformation?

A

Any DNA

83
Q

What is the periplasma? Where is it found?

A

the space between the inner and outer cell membranes found in G(-) bacteria.

84
Q

What is the primary test to subcatergorize G- rods?

A

are they Lactose Fermenters?

85
Q

What is the source of endotoxins?

A

cell wall of most G- bacteria (think N-dotoxin=gram Negative)

86
Q

What is the source of exotoxins?

A

certain species of some G+ and G- bacteria

87
Q

What is the unique chemical component of Gram (-) cell membranes?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

88
Q

What is the unique chemical component of Gram + cell membranes?

A

Teichoic acid

89
Q

What is used to stain Legionella?

A

Silver stain.

90
Q

What species is Group A Strep?

A

S. pyogenes

91
Q

What species is Group B Strep?

A

S. agalactiae

92
Q

What stain is amyloid and gives an apple-green birefringence in polarized light?

A

Congo red

93
Q

What stain is used for acid fast bacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

94
Q

What stain is used for Borrelia, Plasmodium,

trypanosomes, and Chlamydia?

A

Giemsa’s

95
Q

What stain is used for Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

India ink

96
Q

What stains gylcogen, mucopolysaccharides and is used to diagnose Whipple’s disease?

A

PAS (periodic acid Schiff)

97
Q

What test distinguishes Staph. and Strep?

A
  • Staph. are Catalase (+) and are in clusters

- Strep. are Catalase (-) and are in chains

98
Q

What test distinguishes Staph. aureus from Staph. epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus?

A
  • S. aureus is Coagulase (+)

- S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are Coagulase (-)

99
Q

What two things distinguish S. pneumoniae from Viridans Strep.?

A
  • S. pneumoniae: have Capsule; Optochin Sensitive

- Viridans strep: No capsule; Optochin Resistant

100
Q

What type of enzymes allows certain bacteria to colonize mucosal surfaces?

A

IgA proteases

101
Q

When endotoxin activates complement, what are the secondary effects?

A

C3a: hypotension, edema
C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis

102
Q

When endotoxin activates Hageman, what are the secondary effects?

A

coagulation cascade: DIC

103
Q

When endotoxin activates macrophages, what 3 cytokines are released and what are the secondary effects?

A
  • IL-1–fever
  • TNF–fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis
  • Nitric oxide–hypotension, shock
104
Q

Where are the genes for endotoxin located?

A

on the bacterial chromosome

105
Q

Where are the genes for exotoxin located?

A

on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage

106
Q

Where are the spores of Clostridium botulinum found?

A

canned food - honey

107
Q

Where is LPS found?

A

in the outer membrane of G (-) cell walls

108
Q

Which has a higher toxicity: exotoxin or endotoxin?

A

EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug!

for endotoxin, fatal dose is hundreds of micrograms

109
Q

Which type of Neisseria ferment Glucose only?

A

Gonococci (Glucose= Gonococci)

110
Q

Which type of Neisseria ferment maltose and glucose?

A

Meningococci (MaltoseGlucose= MeninGococci)

111
Q

Which types of transfer can eukaryotic cells do?

A

only transformation

112
Q

Which types of transfer can prokaryotic cells do?

A

all 3: conjugation, transduction, and

transformation

113
Q

Why don’t Mycobacteria Gram’s stain well?

A

high lipid content cell wall requires acid-fast stain

114
Q

Why don’t Mycoplasma Gram’s stain well?

A

no cell wall

115
Q

love love love~~~

A

baby bear~~

116
Q

Why don’t Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and Legionella Gram’s stain well?

A

They are intracellular (Legionella is Mainly

intracellular)

117
Q

Why don’t Treponema Gram’s stain well?

A

too thin to be visualized (use darkfield microscopy and antibody staining)

118
Q

Name 5 species of bacteria that are transmitted to humans from animals.
(Acronym: BBugs From Your Pet.)

A
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Brucella spp.
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Yersinia pestis
  • Pasteurella multocida
119
Q

All Rickettsiae (except one genus) are transmitted by what type of vector?

A

arthropod (Coxiella is atypical: transmitted by

aeresol)

120
Q

Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen G? to ampicillin? to vancomycin?

A

G- bugs are resistant to PenG but may be susceptible to pen. derivative like ampicillin.
The G- outer mb inhibits entry of PenG and
vancomycin.

121
Q

Are Strep. pneumoniae sensitve to optochin? Are Viridans strep.?

A
  • Strep. pneumoniae is optochin-Sensitive

- Viridans streptococci is optochin-Resistant

122
Q

Are Strep. pyogenes Bacitracin-sensitive?

A

YES. both are catalase +

123
Q

Are Viridans strep. alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic?

A

alpha

124
Q

Because of drug resistance, what in an alternate treatment combination for leprosy?

A

rifampin with dapsone and clofazimine

125
Q

Besides the rash, what other body systems are affected by Lyme disease? (3)

A
  • joints
  • CNS
  • heart
126
Q

Describe lab-findings for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

A
  • Aerobic,
  • G(-) rod.
  • Non-lactose fermenting
  • Oxidase positive
  • Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment)
127
Q

Describe the disease associated with M. aviumintracellulare.

A

often resistant to multiple drugs; causes disseminated disease in AIDS.

128
Q

Describe the H. flu vaccine. When is it given?

A

contains type b capsulare polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other

protein.
- Given b/t 2m and 18m.

129
Q

Describe the typical findings with diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3)

A

1) Ferments lactose
2) watery diarrhea
3) no fever/leukocytosis

130
Q

Describe the typical findings with Vibro cholerae. (3)

A

1) Comma-shaped organisms
2) rice-water stools
3) no fever/leukocytosis

131
Q

Do Streptococcus pneumonia have catalase? Do Viridans Strep. have catalase?

A

YES. both are catalase +

132
Q

Enterococci are harder than non-enterococcal group D bacteria. What lab conditions
can they grow in?

A

6.5% NaCl (used as lab test)

133
Q

Following primary infection with TB, if pre-allergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination occurs, what follows?

A
  • dormant tubercle bacilli form in several organs

- REACTIVATION can occur in adult life

134
Q

Following primary infection with TB, if severe bacteremia occurs, what follows?

A

Miliary tuberculosis and possibly death

135
Q

Following primary infection with TB, if the lesion heals by fibrosis, what is the result?

A

Immunity and hypersensitivity -> tuberculin positive

136
Q

Following primary infection with TB, under what conditions would the lesion likely progress to lung disease?

A

HIV, malnutrition. This progressive lung disease can rarely lead to death.

137
Q

Following primary infection with TB, what are 4 possible courses the disease could take?

A

1) Heals by fibrosis
2) Progressive lung disease
3) Severe bacteremia
4) Preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination

138
Q

Give 3 examples of obligate anaerobes.

A
  • Clostridium
  • Bacteroides
  • Actinomyces
139
Q

Give 3 types of infection Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly responsible for.

A

1) burn wound infection
2) nosocomial pneumonia
3) pneumonia with cystic fibrosis

140
Q

Give 4 examples of encapsulated bacteria.

A

1) Strep. pneumoniae
2) Haemophilus Influenza (especially b)
3) Neisseria memingitidis
4) Klebsiella pneumoniae

141
Q

H. Flu causes what? (4)

A
  • Epiglottitis
  • Meningitis
  • Otitis media
  • Pneumonia (haEMOPhilus)
142
Q

How are Borrelia visualized?

A

using aniline dyes (Wright’s or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy

143
Q

How are Mycobacteria visualized in the lab?

A

acid-fast stain =Ziehl-Neelson

144
Q

How are Treponema visualized?

A

by dark-field microscopy

145
Q

How can secondary tuberculosis in the lung occur?(2)

A

1) Reinfection of partially immune hypersensitized hosts (usu. adults)
=> exogenous source
2) Reactivation of dormant tubercle bacilli in immunocompromised or debilitated hosts
=> endogenous source

146
Q

How can you remember that Viridans strep are resistant to optochin?

A

they live in the mouth and are not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN

147
Q

How does primary syphilis present?

A

with a painless chancre (localized disease; 2-10 wks).

148
Q

How does secondary syphilis present?

A 
disseminated disease (1-3m later) with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular
rash, condylomata lata (genital lesions)
149
Q

How does tertiary syphilis present?

A

gummas (granulomas), aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson pupil

150
Q

How does the bacterium cause the disease?

A

via exotoxin encoded by beta-prophage; exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

151
Q

How does the rash with typhus differ from the rash with RMSF?

A
  • typhus: maculopapillary rash BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves peripherally
  • RMSF: maculaes progressing to petichiae BEGIN ON HANDS & FEET and move inward.
152
Q

How is Brucellosis/Undulant fever transmitted?

A

dairy products, contact with animals

153
Q

How is Cellulitis transmitted?

A

Animal bite; cats, dogs

154
Q

How is H. flu transmitted?

A

aerosol

155
Q

How is Legionnaires’ disease diagnosed in lab?

A
  • use silver stain (doesn’t Gram stain well)

- culture with charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine.

156
Q

How is Legionnaires’ disease transmitted?

A

aeresol transmission from envirnomental water source habitat (NO human-to-human transmission).

157
Q

How is Lyme disease transmitted?

A

Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that live of deer and mice

158
Q

How is Shigella spread?

A

food, fingers, feces, and flies

159
Q

How is the Plague transmitted?

A

Flea bite; rodents, especially prairie dogs

160
Q

How is Tuleremia transmitted?

A

Tick bite; rabbits, deer

161
Q

Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or G-? What is its morphology?

A

It is a G+, spore-forming rod

162
Q

Is there an animal reservoir for leprosy?

A

Yes, armadillos in the US

163
Q

List 5 findings associated with rheumatic fever. (Hint: PECCS)

A
  • Polyarthritis
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Chorea
  • Carditis
  • Subcutaneous nodules
164
Q

List the ‘ABCDEFG’ of diphtheria.

A
  • ADP ribosylation
  • Betaprophage
  • Corynebacterium
  • Diphtheria
  • Elongation
  • Factor 2
  • Granules
165
Q

Name 2 alpha-hemolytic bacteria.

A
  • Strep. pneumoniae

- Viridans streptococci

166
Q

Name 2 bugs that cause diarrhea but NOT fever and leukocytosis?

A

E. coli and Vibro cholerae

167
Q

Name 2 disease processes that can be caused by enterococci

A

1) UTI

2) subacute endocarditis

168
Q

Name 2 species of enterococci.

A
  • Enterococcus faecalis

- Enterococcus faecium

169
Q

Name 2 symptoms of diphtheria.

A
  • pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grayish white membrane)

- lymphadenopathy

170
Q

Name 3 spore forming bacteria.

A
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • C. tetani
171
Q

Name 4 beta-hemolytic bacteria.

A

1) Staph. aureus
2) Strep. pyogenes (GAS)
3) Strep. agalactiae (GBS)
4) Listeria monocytogenes

172
Q

Name 4 lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria.

A
  • Klebsiella
  • E. coli
  • Enterobacter Citrobacter (think Lactose is KEE for first 3 listed)
173
Q

Name 4 obligate aerobic bacteria.

A
  • Norcardia
  • Pserudomonas aeruginosa
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Bacillus
174
Q

Name 5 bugs that cause watery diarrhea.

A

1) Vibrio cholerae
2) enterotoxigenic E. coli
3) viruses (rotavirus)
4) protozoa (Cryptosporidium
5) Giardia

175
Q

Name 6 bugs that cause bloody diarrhea.

A

1) Salmonella
2) Shigella
3) Campylobacter jejuni
4) enterohemorrhagic/enteroinvasive E.coli
5) Yersinia enterocilitica
6) Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan)

176
Q

Name 7 faculatative intracellular bacteria.

A

1) Mycobacterium
2) Brucella
3) Francisella
4) Listeria
5) Yersinia
6) Legionella
7) Salmonella

177
Q

Name 3 genera of spirochetes.

A
  • Borrelia (big size)
  • Leptospira
  • Treponema (think: BLT; B is big)
178
Q

Name 2 lab tests used to detect syphilis?

A

VDRL and FTA-ABS

179
Q

Name 2 non-lactose fermenting bacteria that invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea.

A

Salmonella and Shigella

180
Q

Name 2 obligate intracellular bacteria.

A

Rickettsia and Chlamydia (Hint: ‘stay inside when its Really Cold.’)

181
Q

RMSF is endemic to what part of the US?

A

the East Coast (in spite of the name)

182
Q

Spore are formed by certain species of what type of bacteria?

A

Gram+ rods, usually in soil; form spores only when nutrients are limited

183
Q

T/F Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites that cause mucosal infections.

A

TRUE

184
Q

T/F Chlamys means cloak.

A

TRUE (intracellular)

185
Q

T/F Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative and are glucose fermenters.

A

TRUE

186
Q

T/F H. pylori infection is a risk factor for peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma.

A

TRUE

187
Q

T/F Penicillin is not an effective treatment against Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

A

TRUE Mycoplama are naturally resistant b/c they have no cell wall.

188
Q

T/F Pseudomonas produces both endotoxin and exotoxin.

A

TRUE:

  • endotoxin -> fever, shock
  • exotoxin -> inactivates EF-2
189
Q

T/F Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites and need CoA and NAD.

A

TRUE

190
Q

T/F Some enterococci are resistant to PenG.

A

FALSE: ALL enterococci are naturally resistant to Pen/cephlosporins.

191
Q

T/F Spores have no metabolic activity.

A

TRUE

192
Q

T/F: S. aureus food poisoning is due to the ingestion of bacteria that rapidly secrete toxin once they enter the GI tract.

A

FALSE: rapid onset of S. aureus food poisoning is due to injestion of PREFORMED
toxin

193
Q

hug hug~!

A

mua~~

194
Q

The Weil-Felix reaction usually tests positive for what two diseases? Negative for what? Cross reacts with what?

A
  • Positive: typhus and RMSF

- Negative: Q fever -Crossreacts: with Proteus antigen

195
Q

Think COFFEe for Enterobacteriaceae. What

does that stand for?

A
  • Capsular
  • O-antigen
  • Flagellar antigen
  • Ferment glucose
  • Enterobacteriaceae
196
Q

What’s a pneumonic for remembering 4 obligate aerobes?

A
  • Nagging Pests Must Breath (=Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Bacillus
197
Q

What (6) infections can Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?

A
  • burn-wound infections
  • Pneumonia (esp. in cystic fibrosis)
  • Sepsis (black skin lesions)
  • External Otitis (swimmer’s ear)
  • UTI
  • hot tub folliculitis
198
Q

What 2 bugs can cause bloody diarrhea, fever, and leukocytosis, but do not ferment lactose?

A

Salmonella and Shigella

199
Q

What animals carry Lyme disease?

A

The Ixodes tick transmits it.

  • Deer are required for tick life cycle.
  • Mice are important resservoirs.
200
Q

What anitbody class is necessary for an immune response to encapsulated bacteria?

A

IgG2.

Microbiology & Immunology (4 decks)

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