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Sheet2-表格 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are 2 disease processes caused by Viridans strep and what species are responsible?

A

1) dental caries: Strep.mutans

2) bacterial endocarditis: Strep. Sanguis

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2
Q

What are 2 options for triple treatment of H.

pylori?

A

(1) bismuth (Pepto-Bismal),metronidazole, and tetracyclin or amoxicillin. OR
(2) metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin (#2 is more expensive)

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3
Q

What are 3 advantages/differences between VDRL and FTA-ABS?

A

FTA-ABS is

1) more specific
2) positive earlier in disease
3) remains positive longer than VDRL

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4
Q

What are 3 disease processes caused by Strep. pyogenes?

A

1) Pyogenic–pharyngitis,cellulitis, skin infection
2) Toxigenic–scarlet fever, TSS
3) Immunologic–rheumatic fever, acute
glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

What are 4 biological false positives for VDRL?

A

1) Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
2) Drugs
3) Rheumatic fever and rheumatic arthritis
4) Lupus and leprosy (=VDRL)

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6
Q

What are 4 clinical symptoms of ‘walking’ pneumonia?

A

1) insidious onset
2) headache
3) nonproductive cough
4) diffuse interstitial infiltrate

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7
Q

What are 4 clinical symptoms of TB?

A

1) fever
2) night sweats
3) weight loss
4) hemoptysis

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8
Q

What are 5 areas that can be affected by extrapulmonary TB?

A

1) CNS (parenchmal tuberculoma or meningitis)
2) Vertebral body (Pott’s disease)
3) Lymphadenitis
4) Renal
5) GI

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9
Q

What are the culture requirement for H. flu?

A

culture on chocolate agar with factor V (NAD) and X (hematin).
[Think: ‘Child has ‘flu’; mom goes to five (V) and dime (X) store to buy
chocolate.’]

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10
Q

What are the lab findings with Chlamydia?

A

cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa fluorescent antibody stains smear

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of RMSF? (3)

A

1) rash on palms and soles (migrating to wrists, ankles, then trunck)
2) headache
3) fever

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12
Q

What are the three stages of Lyme disease?

A

1) erythema chronicum migrans, flu-like symptoms
2) neurologic and cardiac manefestations
3) autoimmune migratory polyarthritis

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13
Q

What are the two forms of chlamydia?

A

1) Elementary body (small, dense): Enters cell via endocytosis
2) Initial or Reticulate body: Replicates in the cell by fission

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14
Q

What are the two forms of leprosy (or Hansen’s disease)?

A

1) lepromatous- failed cellmediated immunity, worse

2) tuberculoid- self-limited.

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15
Q

What are two drugs that could be used to treat ‘walking’ pneumonia?

A

tetracycline or erythromycin

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16
Q

What are two drugs that could treat Chlmydia?

A

erythromycin or tetracycline

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17
Q

What are two lab findings associated with ‘walking’ pneumonia?

A

1) X-ray looks worse than patient

2) High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)

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18
Q

What are usually associated with pseudomembraneous colitis?

A

Clostridium difficile; it kills enterocytes, usu. is overgrowth secondary to antibiotic use (esp. clindamycin or ampicillin)

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19
Q

What bacteria are G+, sporeforming, anaerobic bacilli?

A

Clostridia

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20
Q

What bacteria causes a malignant pustule (painless ulcer); black skin lesions that are vesicular papules covered by a blak eschar?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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21
Q

What bacteria exhibits a ‘tumbling’ motility, is found in unpasteurized milk, and causes meningitis in newborns?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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22
Q

What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-resistant?

A

Strep. agalactiae

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23
Q

What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-sensitive?

A

Strep. pyogenes

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24
Q

What bacteria is catalase+ and coagulase+?

A

Staph. aureus

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25
Q

What bacteria produces alpha-toxin, a hemolytic lecithinase that causes
myonecrosis or gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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26
Q

What bacterium causes Cellulitis?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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27
Q

What bacterium causes leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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28
Q

What bacterium causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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29
Q

What bacterium causes the Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

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30
Q

What bacterium causes Tularemia?

A

Francisella tularensis

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31
Q

What bacterium causes Undulant fever?

A

Brucella spp. (a.k.a. Brucellosis)

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32
Q

What bug causes atypical ‘walking’ pneumonia?

A

Mycoplama pneumoniae

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33
Q

What bug causes gastroenteritis and up to 90% of duodenal ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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34
Q

What bug causes Legionnaire’s disease?

A

Legionella pneumophila

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35
Q

What bug is associated with burn wound infections?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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36
Q

What bug is comma- or Sshaped and grows at 42C, and causes bloody diarrhea with fever and leukocytosis?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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37
Q

What bug that causes diarrhea is usually

transmitted from pet feces (e.g. puppies)?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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38
Q

What causes tetanus? (give bacteria and disease process)

A

Clostridium tetani: exotoxin produced blocks glycine release (inhibitory NT) from Renshaw cells in spinal cord

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39
Q

What causes the flu?

A

NOT H. flu -it is caused by influenza virus

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40
Q

What chemical is found in the core of spores?

A

dipicolinic acid

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41
Q

What coccobacillus causes vaginosis: greenish vaginal discharge with a fishy smell;
nonpainful?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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42
Q

What disease does Bordetella perussis cause? How?

A

Whooping cough: toxin permanently disables G-protein in respiratory mucosa (turns the ‘off’ off); ciliated epithelial cells are killed; mucosal cells are overactive

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43
Q

What disease does Vibrio cholerae cause? How?

A

Cholera: toxin permanently activates G-protein in intestinal mucosa (turns the ‘on’ on) causing rice-water diarrhea

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44
Q

What disease is caused by Borrelia?

A

Lyme Disease

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45
Q

What disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum? What pathophys. does it cause?

A

Botulism: associated with contaminated canned food, produces a preformed, heat labile toxin that inhibits ACh release—> flaccid paralysis.

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46
Q

What diseases (2) are caused by Treponema?

A
  • Syphilis (T. pallidum)

- Yaws (T. pertenue; not and STD)

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47
Q

What diseases can be caused by Staph. aureus?

A
  • Inflammatory disease: skin infections, organ abscess, pneumonia
  • Toxinmediated disease: Toxic Shock Syn., scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid onset food poisoning (enterotoxins)
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48
Q

What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, and C cause?

A

chronic infection, cause blindness in Africa (ABC= Africa / Blindness / Chronic

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49
Q

What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K cause? (3)

A
  • urethritis/ PID
  • neonatal pneumonia
  • neonatal conjuctivitis
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50
Q

What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1,L2, and L3 cause?

A

lymphogranuloma venereum (acute lymphadentis: positive Frei test)

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51
Q

What do RMSF, syphilis, and coxsackievirus A infection have in common?

A

rash on palm and sole is seen in each (coxasackievirus A =hand, foot, and mouth disease)

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52
Q

What does catalase do? Which bacteria have it?

A

It degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product of
PMNs.
- Staphlococci make catalase; Strep. do NOT.

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53
Q

What does the H-antigen represent?

A

H: flagellar antigen, found on motile specie

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54
Q

What does the K-antigen represent?

A

K: capsular, relates to virulence

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55
Q

What does the O-antigen represent?

A

O-antigen is the polysaccharide of endotoxin (found on all species)

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56
Q

What does VDRL detect? (It detects non-specific antibody that reacts with what?)

A

detects antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin

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57
Q

What drug of choice is used to treat Norcardia? Actinomyces? (Acronym: SNAP)

A

Sulfa for Norcarida, Actinomyces gets Penicillin

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58
Q

What enteric bacterial infection may be prolonged with antibiotic treatment?

A

Salmonellosis

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59
Q

What enzyme allows H. pylori to create an alkaline environment?

A

urease (cleaves urea to ammonia); used in urease breath test

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60
Q

What family includes E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, and
Proteus?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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61
Q

What family of bacteria uses the O-, K-, and H-antigen nomenclature?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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62
Q

What function does the capsule serve? (2: one for the bacterium, one other)

A

1) antiphagocytic

2) antigen in vaccines (Pneumovax, H. flu B, meningococcal vaccines)

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63
Q

What G+ anaerobe causes oral/facial abscesses with ‘sulfur granules’ that may
drain through sinus tracts in skin?

A

Acinomyces israelii

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64
Q

What G+ and also weakly acid fast aorobe found in soil causes pulmonary infections
in immunocompromised patients?

A

Norcardia asteroides

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65
Q

What general type of bacteria are normal flora in GI tract but pathogenic elsewhere?

A

Anaerobes

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66
Q

What general type of bacteria grow pink colonies on MacConkey’s agar?

A

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

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67
Q

What is a Ghon complex and in whom does it occur?

A
  • Occurs in Primary TB (usually a child)

- Ghon complex= draining Hilar nodes and Ghon focus, exudative parenchymal lesion (usu. in LOWER lobes of lung)

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68
Q

What is a lab diagnosis of diphtheria based on?

A

G+ rods with metachromatic granules; grows on tellurite agar. (Coryne=club shaped)

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69
Q

What is a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella observable in the lab?

A
  • Salmonella are motile;

- Shigella are nonmotile

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70
Q

What is a positive Quellung reaction?

A

if encapsulated bug is present, capsule SWELLS when specific anticapsular antisera are added.

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71
Q

What is notable about Chrmydia psittaci?

A

has an avian reservoir

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72
Q

What is one reason M. leparae infects skin and superficial nerves?

A

It likes cool temperatures

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73
Q

What is the classic symptom of Lyme Disease?

A

erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding ‘bull’s eye’ red rash with central clearing.

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74
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms associated with Rickettsiae?

A

1) headache
2) fever
3) rash (vasiculitis)

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75
Q

What is the common manifestation of secondary TB?

A

Fibrocaseous cavitary lesion usu. in APICIES of lung

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76
Q

What is the common site of infection for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

the apicies of the lung (which have the highest PO2)

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77
Q

What is the D.O.C. to treat Gardnerella vaginalis?

A

Metroidazole

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78
Q

What is the DOC for treating rickettsial infections?

A

tetracycline

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79
Q

What is the DOC for treatment of most rickettsial infections?

A

tetracycline

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80
Q

What is the DOC to treat Lyme Disease?

A

tetracycline

81
Q

What is the DOC to treat syphilis?

A

Penicillin G

82
Q

What is the drug of choice for H. flu meningitis? What DOC for prophylaxis in closecontacts?

A

Treat meningitis with CEFTRIAXONE; Rifampin for prophylaxis.

83
Q

What is the drug of choice for Legionaires’ disease?

A

Erythromycin

84
Q

What is the morphology of H. flu?

A

Small G(-) (coccobacillary) rod

85
Q

What is the morphology of H. pylori?

A

Gram (-) rod

86
Q

What is the primary drug used to treat leprosy?

A

dapsone (toxicity is hemolysis and methemoglobinemia)

87
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A

aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (e.g. piperacillin or ticarcillin)

88
Q

What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes endemic typhus?

A

R. typhi; from fleas

89
Q

What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes epidemic typhus?

A

R. prowazekii; from human body louse

90
Q

What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii; from inhaled aersols

91
Q

What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes Rocky Mountain
Spotted Fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii; from tick bite

92
Q

What is the toxin responsible for TSS is Staph. aureus?

A

TSST-1; it is a superantigen that binds to class II MHC and T-cell receptors—> polyclonal T-cell activation

93
Q

What is the unique component found in

Mycoplamsa bacterial membranes?

A

cholesterol

94
Q

What is the unique feature of Chlamydiae cell walls?

A

its peptidoglycan wall lacks muramic acid

95
Q

What is woolsorter’s disease?

A

inhalation anthrax; can cause life-threatening pneumonia

96
Q

What lab test assays for antirickettsial antibodies?

A

Weil-Felix reaction

97
Q

What Lancefield Antigen Group are enterococci in?

A

Group D

98
Q

What Lancefield Antigen Group are Viridans strep in?

A

They are non-typealbe. They do not have a C-carbohydrate on their cell wall to be classified by.

99
Q

What level of disinfection is required to kill spores?

A

autoclaving; they are highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals

100
Q

What populations are most likely to get Mycoplama pneumoniae infection?

A
  • patients younger than age 30
  • military recruits
  • prisons
101
Q

What rickettsial disease is atypical in that it has no rash, no vector, negative Weil-Felix reaction, and its causative organism can survive outside for a long time?

A

Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)

102
Q

What species are associated with food poisoning in contaminated seafood?

A

Vibrio parahaemolytica and Virbrio vulnificus

103
Q

What species causes diphtheria?

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

104
Q

What species is associated with food poisoning in improperly canned foods (bulging cans)?

A

Clostridium botulinum

105
Q

What species is associated with food poisoning in meats, mayonnaise, and custard?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (this food poisoning usu. starts quickly and ends quickly)

106
Q

What species is associated with food poisoning in poultry, meat, and eggs?

A

Salmonella

107
Q

What species is associated with food poisoning in reheated meat dishes?

A

Clostridium perfringens

108
Q

What species is associated with food poisoning in reheated rice?

A

Bacillus cereus (‘Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious!’)

109
Q

What species is associated with food poisoning in undercooked meat and unpasteurized juices?

A

E. coli 0157-H7

110
Q

What species of Mycobacteria causes pulmonary, TB-like symptoms?

A

M. kansasii

111
Q

What strain of Haemophilus influenza causes most invasive disease?

A

capsular type b

112
Q

What symptoms are associated with M.

scrofulaceum

A

cervical lymphadenitis in kids

113
Q

What test differentiates Viridans from S. pneumoniae?

A

Viridans are resistant to optochin; S. pneu. are sensitive to optochin

114
Q

What two bugs secrete exotoxins that act via ADP ribosylation of G-proteins, permanently activating adenyl cyclase (resulting in increased cAMP)?

A
  • Vibrio cholerae

- Bordetella pertussis

115
Q

What two genera of G+ rods form long branching filaments resembling fungi?

A

Acinomyces and Nocardia

116
Q

What type of bacteria are difficult to culture, produce gas in tissue (CO2 and H2), and are generally foulsmelling?

A

Anaerobes

117
Q

What type of bacteria is associated with rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell, and splenectomy?

A

Pneumoccocus

118
Q

What type of E. coli are associated with bloody diarrhea?

A

enterohemmoragic/enteroinvasive E. coli

119
Q

What type of immunologic response is elicited by a Salmonella infection?

A

monocyte response

120
Q

What types of infection can chlamydia cause? (4)

A
  • arthritis
  • conjunctivitis
  • pneumonia
  • nongonococcal urethritis
121
Q

What virulence factor of Staph. aureus binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis?

A

Protein A

122
Q

What virulence factor of Strep. pyogenes also serves as an antigen to which the host makes antibodies?

A

M-protein

123
Q

What will likely be visible under the microscope in the case of Gardnerella vaginallis infection?

A

Clue cell, or vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria

124
Q

Where are Viridans strep. found (reservoir)?

A

normal flora of oropharynx

125
Q

Where are when is Lyme disease common?

A

common in northeast US in summer months

126
Q

Which disease/toxin causes lymphocytosis? (Cholera or Pertussis)

A

Pertussis toxin: by inhibiting chemokine receptors

127
Q

Which has an animal reservoir? (Salmonella or Shigella)

A

Salmonella: poultry, meat, eggs

128
Q

Which is more specific for syphilis: VDRL or FTA-ABS?

A

FTA-ABS is more specific

129
Q

Which is more virulent? (Salmonella or Shigella)

A

Shigella (10^1 organisms)
vs.
Salmonella (10^5 organisms)

130
Q

Which is motile? (Salmonella or Shigella)

A

Salmonella (think: salmon swim)

131
Q

Which species of chlamydia causes and atypical pneumonia? How is it transmitted?

A
  • C. pneumonia

- transmitted via aerosol

132
Q

Which two species of chlamydia infect only

humans?

A
  • C. trachomatis

- C. pneumoniae

133
Q

Why are anaerobes susceptible to oxygen?

A

they lack catalase and/or oxidase and are susceptible to oxidative damage

134
Q

Why does TB usually infect the upper lobes of the lung?

A

M.tuberculosis is an aerobe; there is more oxygen at the apicies

135
Q

Why must rickettsia and chlamydia always be intracellular?

A

they can’t make their own ATP

136
Q

Are most fungal spores asexual?

A

yes

137
Q

Are most P. Carinii infections symptomatic?

A

no, most of are asymptomatic

138
Q

Are the above mentioned systemic mycoses dimorphic?

A

yes, except coccioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue

139
Q

How do the S. Schenckii yeast appear in the pus?

A

Cigar-shaped budding yeast

140
Q

How do you diagnose cryptosporidium?

A

cysts on acid fast stain

141
Q

How do you diagnose giardiasis?

A

Trophozoites or cysts in stool

142
Q

How do you get P. Carinii?

A

Inhalation

143
Q

How do you treat systemic mycoses?

A

fluconazole or ketoconazole for local infection,

amphotericin B for systemic infection

144
Q

How do you Tx S. Schenckii?

A

Itraconazole or Potassium Iodide

145
Q

How does Aspergillus appear microscopically?

A

Mold with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree angle) , they are NOT dimorphic

146
Q

How does Mucor species appear microscopically?

A

It is a mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles>90 degrees

147
Q

How does Paracocciodioidomycosi

A

Captain’s wheel’ appearance (like on a sailboat)

148
Q

How is Clonorchis sinensis transmitted and what disease results?

A

undercooked fish; causes inflammation of the biliary tract

149
Q

How is Schistosoma transmitted and what disease results?

A

snails are host; cercariae penetrate skin of humans; causes granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of the spleen and liver

150
Q

How is Ancylostoma Duodenale transmitted and what disease results?

A

Larvae penetrate skin of feet; intestinal infection can cause anemia

151
Q

How is Ascaris Lumbricoides transmitted and what disease results?

A

Eggs are visible in feces; intestinal infection

152
Q

How is cryptosporidium transmitted?

A

Cysts in Water

153
Q

How is Dracunculus medinensis transmitted and what disease results?

A

In drinking water; sink inflammation and ulceration

154
Q

How is E. granulosis transmitted and what disease results?

A

Eggs in dog feces cause cysts in liver; causes anaphylaxis if echinococcal antigens released from cysts

155
Q

How is E. Histolytica transmitted?

A

Cysts in Water

156
Q

How is Enterobius Vermicularis transmitted and what disease results?

A

food contaminated with eggs; intestinal infections; causes anal pruritus

157
Q

How is giardia transmitted?

A

Cysts in Water

158
Q

How is Loa loa transmitted and what disease results?

A

Transmitted by deer fly; causes swelling the in the skin (can see worm crawling in conjunctiva)

159
Q

How is malaria dx?

A

Blood smear

160
Q

How is malaria transmitted?

A

mosquito (Anopheles)

161
Q

How is Onchocerca volvulus transmitted and what

A

transmitted by female blackflies; causes river

blindness

162
Q

How is Paragonimus Westermani transmitted and what disease results?

A

Undercooked crab meat; causes inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung

163
Q

How is Sporothrix schenckii appear under the scope?

A

Dimorphic fugus that lives on vegetation

164
Q

How is Strongyloides Stercoralis transmitted and what disease results?

A

larvae in soil penetrate the skin; intestinal infection

165
Q

How is T. Canis transmitted and what disease results?

A

food contaminated with eggs; causes granulomas (if in retina=blindness)

166
Q

How is T. Solium transmitted and what disease results?

A

undercooked pork tapeworm; causes mass lesions in the brain, cysticercosis

167
Q

How is T. Vaginalis transmitted?

A

sexually

168
Q

How is Toxo transmitted?

A

cysts in meat or cat feces

169
Q

How is Trichinella Spiralis transmitted and what disease results?

A

undercooked meat, usually pork; inflammation of muscle, periorbital edema

170
Q

How is Wucheria transmitted and what disease results?

A

female mosquito; causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)

171
Q

In what cells do you find histoplasmosis?

A

macrophages

172
Q

Is Pneumocystis Carinii a yeast?

A

Yes, but originally classified as a Protozoa

173
Q

Microscopically how does Candida appear?

A

budding yeast with pseudohyphae, germ tube

formation at 37 degrees C)

174
Q

Name 3 Trematodes (Flukes) .

A

Schistosoma, Clonorchis sinensis, Paragonimus Westermani

175
Q

Name 4 opportunistic fungal infections.

A

Candida Albicans, Aspergillus fumigatus, Cryptococcus Neoformans, Mucor and Rhizopus species

176
Q

Name 4 systemic mycoses.

A

Coccidiomycosis, Histoplasmosis, Paracoccidioidomycosis, Blastomycosis

177
Q

Name two asexual spores transmitted by inhalation.

A

Hisoplasmosis and Coccidiodomycosis

178
Q

Name two Cestodes (Tapeworms) .

A

Taenia Solium, and Echinococcus Ganulosus

179
Q

What agar is used to culture for systemic mycoses?

A

Sabouraud’s Agar

180
Q

What are Conidia?

A

asexual fungal spores (ex. Blastoconidia, and

arthroconidia)

181
Q

What are some common Candida infections?

A

Thrush in Immunocompromised pts (neonates, patients on steroids, diabetics and AIDS pts) , endocarditis in IV drug users, vaginitis (high pH, Diabetes, post-antibiotic), diaper rash, disseminated candidiasis (to any organ)

182
Q

What are some infections caused by cryptococcus?

A

Cryptococcal meningitis, cryptococcosis

183
Q

u r the best~!

A

u r my dear love~!

184
Q

What are the 10 Nematodes (roundworms) we are concerned with?

A

Ancylostoma duodenale (hookworm) , Ascaris Lumbricoides, Enterobius Vermicularis (pinworm), Strongyloides stercoralis, Trichinella Spiralis, Dracunculus Medinensis, Loa loa, Onchocerca Volvulus, Toxocara Canis, Wucheria Bancrofti

185
Q

What are the 4 B’s of Blastomycosis?

A

Big, Broad-Based, Budding

186
Q

What are the diseases caused by Cryptosporidium?

A

Severe diarrhea in AIDS, Mild disease (watery diarrhea) in non-HIV

187
Q

What are the diseases caused by Toxoplasma?

A

Brain Abscess in HIV and birth defects

188
Q

What are the infections caused by aspergillus?

A

Ear fungus, Lung cavity Aspergilloma (‘fungus ball’), invasive aspergillosis.

189
Q

What can systemic mycoses mimic?

A

TB (granuloma formation)

190
Q

What disease are caused by Entamoeba Histolytica?

A

Amebiasis: bloody diarrhea, dysentery, liver abscess, RUQ pain

191
Q

What disease does Mucor species cause?

A

Mucormycosis

192
Q

What disease does Pneumocystis carinii cause?

A

Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia

193
Q

What disease does Sporothrix Schenckii cause?

A

Sprotricosis

194
Q

What disease does Trypanosoma Cruzi casue?

A

Chaga’s Disease (heart disease)

195
Q

What disease is caused by Giardia Lamblia?

A

Giardiasis: bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling diarrhea

196
Q

What disease is caused by Leishmanina donovani?

A

Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kalaazar)

197
Q

What disease is caused by P. Carinii?

A

Diffuse interstitial pneumonia in HIV

198
Q

What disease is caused by the plasmodium species (vivax, ovale, malariae, falciparum) ?

A

Malaria: cyclic fever, headache, anemia,

splenomegaly

199
Q

What disease is caused by Trypanosma Gambiense and Rhodesiense?

A

African Sleeping sickness

Microbiology & Immunology (4 decks)

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