Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3007 Final > Sexually Transmitted & Blood Born Infections (STBBI) > Flashcards

Sexually Transmitted & Blood Born Infections (STBBI) Flashcards

1
Q

What are STBBI’s?

A
  • Infections that are spread through insertive and receptive sexual practices (vaginal, anal, or oral) with someone who is carrying the infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Genital Herpes and HPV are transmitted through

A

Intimate skin-to-skin contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HIV and Hep B are carried and transmitted through

A

The blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Reportable diseases

A
  • Some STBBI’s are reportable or notifiable diseases
  • The Public Health Agency of Canada (PHAC) stipulates which are reportable nationally
  • Each province/territory can add diseases in their own jurisdiction
  • Partner notification, contact tracing, testing, and treatment differ among jurisdiction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does VD stand for?

A
  • Venereal diseases
  • In the 1970s the term was changed to STD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does venereal refer to?

A

of or relating to sexual pleasure or interpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The term STI became preferred in which year?

A

2006 in Canada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blood-Borne Infections (BBI) refer to

A

Infections that can be carried and transmitted through the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

STBBI stands for

A

Both STIs and BBIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Healthy Public Policy - Historically

A
  • Prior to antibiotics, bacterial STBBIs were untreatable
  • At one point, a public policy was implemented to test men and women for syphilis prior to marriage
  • An anti-VD campaign emerged in the 1920s that targeted education and treatment
  • To help, municipalities sent their PH nurses to TO to train with the city’s VD division for 3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A significant catalyst for change in the 1980s was

A

The appearance of AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Current Healthy Public Policy

A
  • Screening for HIV, syphilis, chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and hepatitis B at the first prenatal visit
  • BBI screening with blood products (blood safety)
  • Immunization partnership fund
  • Public health surveillance (HIV/AIDS, gonorrhoea, Hep B+C, syphilis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Blood Safety Contribution Program (BSCP)?

A
  • A program that monitor errors and adverse events associate with blood/blood product transfusions (provincial and territorial)
  • Also includes transplantation of cells, tissues, and organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Canadian Blood Services is mandated to provide…

A
  • Safe, secure, and affordable blood and blood component systems
  • Has been managing Canada’s blood system since 1998 and has not been any recorded instances of BBIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When did the Blood Services policy change?

A
  • When over 1000 Canadians became infected with HIV from blood transfusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When were strict Blood Surveillance guidelines implemented?

A

1985

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the categories of STBBIs?

A
  • Bacterial, viral or ectoparasitic infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What puts individuals at risk for STBBIs?

A
  • A person who already has an STBBI is at risk for more
  • All insertive and receptive sexual practices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most commonly reported bacterial STIs

A
  • Chlamydia, gonorrhoea and syphilis which are primarily transmitted through unprotected vaginal/anal sex
  • Infection can also pass from mother to newborn baby during delivery
  • Very common for people to be asymptomatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chlamydia is caused by which bacteria?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (C.trachomatis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of Chlamydia appear?

A
  • Within 1-3 weeks after unprotected sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where can women and men contract chlamydia?

A
  • Women may contract chlamydia in the cervix, rectum, and throat
  • Men in the urethra, rectum, and throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rates of Chlamydia in Canada have been…

A
  • Rising steadily since 1997
  • Estimated 127 million cases globally in 2018
  • Affects sexually active youth and young adults, especially women ages 15-24 in Canada
  • Females accounted for the majority of cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chlamydia can lead to what in Women?

A
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  • Tubal factor infertility
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Premature birth
  • Eye infection + pneumonia in baby
  • 70% of women have no symptoms/are unaware of their condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Effects of Pelvic-inflammatory disease

A
  • Abdo. pain, fever, internal abscesses, long-term pelvic pain + scarring of fallopian tubes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Symptoms of Chlamydia (Women)

A
  • Cervicitis: mucopurulent endocervical discharge, easily induced endocervical bleeding
  • Urethritis: pyuria, dysuria, urinary frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Chlamydia can lead to what in Men?

A
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum which is caused by C.trachomatis
  • LGV can cause proctitis (inflammation of the lining of the rectum)
  • 50% of men are unaware and have no symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Symptoms of Chlamydia (Men)

A
  • Urethritis: discharge from penis, typically mucoid or watery
  • Burning sensation when urinating (dysuria)
  • Burning or itching at the tip of penis
  • Epididymitis: unilateral testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rectal Chlamydia symptoms (both men/women)

A
  • Rectal pain
  • Bleeding
  • Discharge
  • Mucous with stools
  • Painful BM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Occular Chlamydia symptoms

A
  • Appears after 2-6 weeks
  • Chlamydial conjunctivitis (pink/red eye)
  • Mucous discharge
  • Crusting of eyelashes
  • Tearing
  • Photophobia
  • Foreign body sensation
  • Decreased vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Recommended treatment of Chlamydia

A

Non-LGV Strains
- Azithromycin single dose
- Doxycycline 100mg BID x7days
LGV Strains
- Doxycycline 100mg BID x21days

32
Q

Gonorrhea is caused by the bacteria…

A
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea
  • Often referred to as the clap or drip
33
Q

Symptoms for gonorrhoea develop?

A

Within 2 weeks of infection

34
Q

Gonorrhea has been notifiable since _____ and is the _____ most commonly reported bacterial STI in Canada

A

1924 and is the 2nd most common

35
Q

Symptoms of gonorrhea in Women

A
  • Unusual vaginal discharge that may be thin, watery and green or yellow in colour
  • Dysuria
  • Pain or tenderness in the lower abdomen
  • Bleeding between periods, heavier periods, and bleeding after sex
36
Q

Symptoms of gonorrhea in Men

A
  • Unusual discharge from tip that may be white, yellow, or green
  • Dysuria
  • Inflammation of the foreskin
  • Pain or tenderness in the testicles
37
Q

Gonorrhea in the rectum, throat or eyes

A
  • Eyes = conjunctivitis (pain, photophobia, purulent drainages)
  • Rectum = pain/discomfort, itching, discharge, spots of blood on toilet paper
  • Throat = sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck
38
Q

Gonococcal arthritis due to spread of bacteria… symptoms include

A
  • Warm, red, swollen, and painful joints
39
Q

Managment of Gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM once + Azithromycin 1gram PO once
or Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x7days

40
Q

Syphilis is caused by the bacteria and has been notifiable since

A
  • Treponema pallidum
  • 1924
41
Q

Average onset of symptoms for syphilis occurs…

A

21 days, but can range from 10-90 days

42
Q

Primary Stage of Syphilis

A
  • Patient is most infectious!!
  • Chancre sore (single or multiple sores) or proctitis
  • Sores appear where the syphilis has entered the body, usually firm, round small and painless
  • Chancres last 3-6 weeks and heal without treatment
43
Q

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

A
  • Patient is infectious
  • Begins with skin rash and mucous membrane lesions
  • Rash is rough, red or reddish brown spots on palms of hands, soles of feet and or torso, not usually itchy
  • Can also include fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, patchy hair loss, muscle aches, fatigue, flu-like symptoms (may also note hair or weight loss)
  • Can last 2-6 weeks at a time and can come and go for up to 2 years
44
Q

During incubation there are ____ symptoms and the individual is ____ infectious

A
  • No symptoms and not infectious, incubation is 10-90 days from exposure to onset
  • Blood test
45
Q

Early non-primary, non-secondary Syphilis

A
  • Patient is infectious
  • May occur between primary + secondary stages and after secondary
  • Infection has been identified to have occurred within the last 12 months
46
Q

Late Stage Syphilis

A
  • Not infectious
  • No symptoms identified
  • Infection identified to have occurred within the last 12 months, but no evidence of any of the other stages in past year
47
Q

S&S of late stage Syphilis

A
  • Tumors, blindness, paralysis, damage to nervous system, brain and other organs and may result in death
48
Q

Management of Syphilis

A
  • Primary/secondary syphilis: Penicillin G benzathine 2.4 million unite IM once
  • Neurosyphilis: 2.4 million units IM qWeek x3
  • Doxycycline, tetracycline and ceftriaxone can be used for patients with penicillin allergy
  • Pregnant women should only be treated with penicillin
49
Q

Viral STI’s include

A
  • Genital herpes simples virus (HSV)
  • Human papilloma virus (HPV)
  • Both are non-reportable
50
Q

HSV and HPV are transmitted through

A
  • Intimate skin-skin sexual contact
  • Can be spread from mother to baby through childbirth (causing abnormal development or death)
51
Q

HSV Type 1 and 2

A
  • Type 2 is more common
  • Either can cause genital infections, however HSV-2 rarely causes oral herpes
  • Transmission occurs when both symptomatic and asymptomatic
  • First outbreak takes 2-3 weeks to heal without treatment
  • May experience burning while voiding, fever and flu-like symptoms and swollen glands
52
Q

Diagnostic + Treatment of HSV

A
  • Viral identification by Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) or viral culture
  • HSV serology helpful if testing isn’t available
  • Treatment: PO Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Valacyclovir within first 3-4 days of symptom onset
  • C-section recommended if first episode of genital herpes occurs in third trimester
  • Suppressive therapy recommended for those with frequent (>6/year) or highly symptomatic recurrences
  • Partner Notification not required
53
Q

_______ is the most common STIs in Canada + worldwide

A
  • Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
  • Many types of HPV, some lead to cancer and others to skin lesions
  • Most peoples immune systems will eventually clear the infection
54
Q

Is there a cure for HPV?

A

No, but many symptoms can be treated

55
Q

Protections of HPV include

A
  • Routine PAP smears for cervical cancer
  • 3 vaccines are available to prevent types of HIV including strains that cause anal and genital cancers + anogenital warts
  • Gardasil, Gardasil 9 (for females and males), and Cervarix (for females only)
  • Do not contain live biologicals or DNA
56
Q

Symptoms of HPV

A
  • Many are asymptomatic
  • Anogenital warts (Condylomata), small cauliflower looking lesions or may be flat
  • In Women, warts on vulva, thigh, rectum or in the vagina or urethra with the cervix being most common site
  • During pregnancy, the number and size of warts can increase
  • With an inactive infection, cells appear normal under microscope during a PAP
57
Q

What two high risk and low risk types of HPV does Gardasil + Gardasil 9 protect against?

A
  • Types 16 and 18, which cause 70% of anal and genital cancers (HIGH)
  • Types 6 and 11, which cause 90% of anogenital warts (LOW)
  • Vaccines are approves for females age 9-45 and in males 9-26
  • One does initially followed by one dose two months later, and another given 6 months after first dose
  • Not recommended for pregnant or lactating women
58
Q

Cost of Gardasil 9?

A
  • $550 for all 3 doses
  • HPV vaccination is covered by OHIP until the age of 26
59
Q

Common Blood-Borne Infections (BBIs)

A
  • HIV, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C
  • Not solely transmitted through sexual activity
  • Transmission can also occur through reusing drug, tattooing or piercing equipments that has residual traces of infected blood
    *Hep B+C can be transmitted through sharing razors or toothbrushes
  • Can be transmitted from mother to neonate during pregnancy or birth
  • Also transmitted through breast milk
60
Q

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A
  • Virus that attacks the body’s immune system
  • HIV is a manageable chronic condition
  • If left untreated, it causes a weakened immune system or acquired immune
    deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
  • Can only be transmitted through 5 body fluids: blood, semen (including pre-
    cum), rectal fluid, vaginal fluid, and breast milk
61
Q

HIV Symptoms

A
  • Some people may not develop symptoms after contracting HIV, and could remain undiagnosed until symptoms of AIDS appear (this can be up to 10
    years later)
  • Symptoms may last from a few days to weeks
  • 50% or more of people living with HIV may develop the following within 2-4 weeks:
    o Chills
    o Fever
    o Fatigue
    o Joint Pain
    o Headache
    o Sore throat
    o Muscle aches
    o Swollen lymph nodes
62
Q

HIV testing

A
  • Blood serum testing
  • Some are not able to detect the virus during the first 2-4 weeks of HIV infection, however the individual is still infectious
  • May repeat testing if it’s negative and there’s a possibility of having HIV
    o Anonymous testing (available in some but not all provinces)
    o Rapid HIV testing (point of care)
    o Online testing
63
Q

What is the HIV “The Window Period”?

A
  • Refers to the time between HIV exposure and when a test can detect HIV in your body
  • Depends on the type of HIV test used
64
Q

Types of HIV testing used…

A
  • Nucleic Acid Test (NAT): usually detect HIV 10-33 days after exposure and is done using venipuncture. Also tells us viral load
  • Antigen/Antibody Lab test: usually detects HIV 18-45 days
    after exposure and is done using venipuncture
  • Rapid Antigen/Antibody test: usually detects HIV 18-90 days after exposure and is done from a finger stick sample (30 minutes for results)
  • Antibody test: usually detects HIV 23-90 days after exposure and are available as self-tests (20 minutes for results)
65
Q

Treatment of HIV

A
  • Treatment is highly effective, and can prevent HIV transmission
  • Client’s can be treated with antiretroviral medications as part of antiretroviral
    therapy (ART)
  • Lower the level of HIV in the body (suppresses the viral load) o Slows the spread of the virus in your body
  • Helps the immune system fight off other infections
  • In Canada, if you have HIV you have a legal duty to tell your sexual partners before having sex
66
Q

True or False: Undetectable HIV = Untransmittable

A

True
- It can take up to 6 months to achieve an undetectable viral load on ART
- Viral load is a key determinant of HIV transmission
* Higher viral loads correlate with higher rates of both sexual and perinatal transmission of HIV

67
Q

What is Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PreEP)?

A
  • Highly effective HIV prevention strategy that HIV negative people can use to lower risk
  • Involves taking antiretroviral (anti-HIV) drugs and having regular medical appointments, monitoring, and supporting
  • When taken as prescribed, the risk of transmission is extremely low
  • Available by prescription
  • Two PrEP pills approved by Health Canada, both contain emtricitabine + either tenofovir disoproxil or tenofovir alafenamide
  • Only covered under OHIP for those 24 years or younger, otherwise costs $250-280/month in Ontario
68
Q

What is Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)?

A
  • Can be taken after HIV exposure to help prevent infection
  • Should be started as soon as possible, up to a maximum of 72 hours afterwards
  • Very effective but will not prevent 100% of HIV transmissions from occurring
  • Must have high adherence to the full course of PEP drugs (4 weeks) and should have no further exposures to HIV while taking PEP
  • PEP is a combination of three medications
  • Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate, emtricitbine, raltegravir (or dolutegravir)
69
Q

What is Hepatitis B?

A
  • Is a liver disease spread by contact with infected body fluids, including blood, semen and vaginal fluid
  • It is more infectious than HIV
  • Following infection, 50% of people are asymptomatic
  • 50% will develop symptoms of fatigue, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, decreased appetite, and arthralgia
  • Approximately 95% of healthy people will clear the virus, the remaining will become chronic carriers
  • Those Hepatitis B may eventually develop liver cancer, liver failure, or cirrhosis
  • Diagnosis is confirmed by blood tests and can be treated using antiviral drugs
70
Q

Four Hepatitis B-containing vaccine in Canada

A
  • Engerix-B + Engerix-B Pediatric
  • Infanrix hexa, also contained diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis, hep B, inactivated poliomyelitis, and conjugated Haemophilus influenza type B
  • Recombivax HB, Recombinvax HB - Pediatric, Recombivax-HB Adult dialysis
  • Twinrix + Twinrix Junior, combined Hepatitis A and B
  • 3 vaccine series over 6 months
  • Not covered under OHIP
71
Q

What is Hepatitis C?

A
  • Is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis C virus (HCV)
  • Most commonly spread by percutaneous exposure with infected blood and less
    commonly by sexual activity or perinatal exposure
  • Hepatitis C can progress to cause liver injury and eventually end- stage disease
  • Following infection, most people are asymptomatic
  • Rates are highest among 25-29 year olds
72
Q

Treatment of Hepatitis C

A
  • Diagnosis is made through serum blood testing
  • Medications used are called “direct-acting antivirals” (DAAs), which block the ability of the HCV to replicate
  • Being cured of hepatitis C, or a sustained virological response (SVR) is achieved after a negative/undetectable HCV RNA test 12 weeks after the end of their treatment
  • Treatment is based on amount of liver injury, drug interactions, genotype/strain of the HCV, length of treatment, and previous treatment experience
  • Treatment is highly effective and cures of 95% of people with Hep C
  • Typically includes taking pills for 8-12 weeks
  • Most people don’t pay out of pocket
73
Q

Primordial Prevention

A
  • Preventing STBBIs and risk factors from existing
  • Creation of programs and policies that keep youth off the streets, or advocating for access to comprehensive sexual health education
74
Q

Primary Prevention

A
  • Refers to preventing the start of disease with the goal of decreasing incidence
  • Involves activities prior to any sign of disease, injury, or transmission of STBBIs
  • Includes the use of penile or male condoms + vaginal or female condom
  • Remember condoms are not 100% effective in protecting against herpes or HPV
  • Vaccination is very valuable
75
Q

Secondary Prevention

A
  • Refers to early detection
  • Involves regular testing and screening for STBBIs, including blood testing, urine samples, genital examination, and sometimes swabs
76
Q

Tertiary Prevention

A
  • Measures aimed at decreasing the progress of a disease and controlling long-term negative consequences
  • Involves using medications to treat an infection
  • Manage symptoms
77
Q

Quaternary Prevention

A
  • Methods to avoid results of unnecessary or excessive intervention
  • As new medications are developed for STBBIs, is it important to ensure patients are not placed in any harm - ensuring consent is obtained in trials, and having the ability to withdraw at any time

3007 Final (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions