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LEED AP BD+C > Set 200 Decks > Flashcards

Set 200 Decks Flashcards

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1
Q

What must your erosion control

plan adhere to?

A

2003 EPA Construction General
Permit (or local standards,
whichever is more stringent)

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2
Q

What is a Phase I
Environmental Site
Assessment?

A 
A report prepared for a real 
estate holding that identifies 
potential or existing 
environmental contamination 
liabilities
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3
Q

How is a Phase II
Environmental Site
Assessment more in depth?

A 
A further investigation that 
collects original samples of 
soil, groundwater, or 
building materials to 
analyze for quantitative
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4
Q

What are the types of
sensitive sites to avoid
building on?

A

-Prime farmland
-Flood plain
-Endangered species habitat
-Land within 50’ (15 meters) of
wetlands
-Land within 100’ (30 meters) of a
water body

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5
Q

Who defines Prime

Farmland?

A

The U.S. Department of

Agriculture

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6
Q

What is the building
requirement for projects in
places without legally
adopted flood hazard map?

A

Cannot build on a floodplain
subject to a 1% or greater
chance of flooding in any
given year

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7
Q

Define Development Footprint

A 
The total land area of a 
project site covered by 
buildings, streets, parking 
areas, and other typically 
impermeable surfaces 
constructed as part of the 
project
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8
Q

What are the requirements for

surrounding density?

A 
Locate on a site whose 
surrounding existing density 
within 1/4 mile (400-meter) 
radius of the project boundary 
meets either the 'separate 
residential and nonresidential 
densities' or 'combined density' 
values.
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9
Q

What are the minimum
surrounding density
requirements?

A 
0.5 Non residential density 
(FAR) and 7 Residential 
density (DU/acre)
-OR-22,000 SF / acre of 
buildable land combined 
density
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10
Q

What are the requirements for

diverse uses?

A 
0.5 Non residential density 
(FAR) and 7 Residential 
density (DU/acre)
-OR-22,000 SF / acre of 
buildable land combined 
density
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11
Q

What are the five use

categories for diverse uses?

A

-Food retail
-Community-serving retail
-Services
-Civic and community
facilities
-Community anchor uses
(BD&C and ID&C only)

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12
Q

What are the distances for

Access to Quality Transit?

A 
1/4 mile (400-meter) walking 
distance of existing or planned 
bus, streetcar, or rideshare 
stops, or within a 1/2-mile (800-meter) walking distance of 
existing or planned bus rapid 
transit stops, light or heavy rail 
stations, commuter rail stations 
or ferry terminals.
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13
Q

Where is Access to Quality

Transit measured from?

A 
A functional entry - a building
opening designed to be used by 
pedestrians and open during 
regular business hours. It does 
not include any door exclusively 
designated as an emergency exit, 
or a garage door not designed as 
a pedestrian entrance.
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14
Q

How many bike racks are
required for a commercial
building?

A 
Short-term storage for at least 
2.5% of all peak visitors (no 
fewer than 4 spaces per 
building) and long-term storage 
for 5% of all regular building 
occupants (no fewer than 4 
spaces per building).
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15
Q

How many bike racks are
required for residential
project?

A

At least one for the first 100
FTE and one additional for
every 150 regular building
occupants thereafter.

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16
Q

How many shower and
changing facilities are
required for a commercial
project?

A 
Short-term storage for at 
least 2.5% of all peak 
visitors (no fewer than 4 
spaces per building) and 
long-term storage for 30% 
of all regular building 
occupants.
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17
Q

How do you calculate an FTE?

A 
An 8-hour occupant has an FTE 
value of 1.0; a part-time 
occupant has a FTE value 
based on work hours per day 
divided by 8
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18
Q

How many preferred
parking spaces are required
for Green Vehicles?

A

Provide preferred parking
for green vehicles for 5% of
the total vehicle parking
capacity of the site.

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19
Q

How many EVSE stations must

be installed for Green Vehicles?

A

2% of all parking spaces
(preferred parking spaces may
not be counted).

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20
Q

How is preferred parking

defined?

A 
The parking spots closest to 
the main entrance of a 
building (exclusive of spaces 
designated for handicapped 
persons). For employee 
parking, it refers to the spots 
that are closest to the 
entrance used by employees
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21
Q

For previously developed or
graded sites, how much
habitat needs to be
restored?

A

30% (including the building
footprint) of all portions of
the site

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22
Q

What is an example of a
monoculture planting, which
would not help with
restoring/protecting habitat?

A

Turf grass

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23
Q

What areas can be excluded
from the vegetation and soil
requirements to
restore/protect habitat?

A

Vegetated landscape areas
that are constructed to
accommodate rainwater
infiltration.

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24
Q

For school projects what
areas can be excluded from
soil restoration criteria to
restore/protect habitat?

A

Athletic fields

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25
Q

What amount of financial
support can be provided to
restore/protect habitat?

A

$0.40 / SF ($4 / m2)

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26
Q

What are the distance
limitations when providing
financial support to
protect/restore habitat?

A

Financial support must be provided to a
nationally or locally recognized land trust
or conservation organization within the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project’s state (or within 100 miles of the project [160 kilometers] for projects outside the U.S.). For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance.

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27
Q

What should be included in
a sustainable landscape
plan?

A 
List of all plant species, noting 
whether or not they are 
native/adapted; info about 
invasive species and pests 
those plants may harbor; best 
maintenance practices for the 
chosen plants, and site maps 
showing boudaries for the 
protected habitat areas
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28
Q

What are the IESNA lighting

zones?

A 
LZ0 - Wilderness; LZ1 - Dark 
(parks, rural areas); LZ2 - Low 
(residential, light industrial); 
LZ3 - Medium (commercial, 
industrial, high density 
residential); LZ4 - High (metro 
areas)
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29
Q

When an organization/agency
is providing space for shared
use to students, what should
be included?

A

Auditorium, Gym, Cafeteria,
One or more classrooms,
Swimming Pool, or Playing
Field

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30
Q

What slope is important for

heat island effect - roof?

A

2:12 slope; > means steeped
slope and requires an initial
SRI of 39 or greater; 2:12

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31
Q

What causes skyglow?

A 
Stray light from unshielded light 
sources and light reflecting off 
surfaces that then enter the 
atmosphere and illuminate and 
reflect off dust, debris, and 
water vapor.
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32
Q

For Schools to achieve Site
Master Plan, how many other
credits must be met?

A 
At least 4 of 6 of these credits: 
-LT Credit High Priority Site
-SS Credit Site Development - Protect or 
Restore Habitat
-SS Credit Open Space
-SS Credit Rainwater Management
-SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
-SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
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33
Q

What is the default gender
ratio for indoor water use
reduction calculations?

A

1 to 1; i.e. 50/50 male to

female

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34
Q

What fixtures and fittings
must be included in the
indoor water use reduction
calculations?

A

Water closets, urinals,
lavatory faucets, showers,
kitchen sink faucets, and prerinse spray valves

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35
Q

What is the discount parking

rate for Green Vehicles?

A

20% discount

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36
Q

When can wetlands count

as open space?

A 
Wetlands or naturally 
designed ponds may count 
as open space and the side 
slope gradients average 1:4 
(vertical: horizontal) or less 
and are vegetated.
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37
Q

What are the benefits of

commissioning?

A 
Reduced Energy Use, Lower 
Operating Costs, Reduced 
Contractor Callbacks, Better 
Building Documentation, 
Improved Occupant 
Productivity, and Verification 
that Systems perform with 
Owner' Project Requirements
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38
Q

What documents get created
during fundamental
commissioning and
verification?

A

Cx report
Current facility requirements
Operations and maintenance
plan

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39
Q

What energy-related
systems must be
commissioned?

A 
-Mechanical, including HVAC&R 
equipment and controls
-Electrical lighting and 
daylighting controls
-Plumbing, including domestic 
hot water systems
-Renewable energy systems
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40
Q

What do the Owner’s Project
Requirements typically
include?

A 
Owner and User 
Requirements, Environmental 
and Sustainability Goals, 
Energy Efficiency Goals, 
Indoor Environmental Quality 
Requirements, Equipment and 
System Expectations, 
Building Occupant and O&M 
Personnel Requirements.
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41
Q

What should the Basis of

Design include?

A

Primary Design
Assumptions, Standards, &
Narrative Descriptions

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42
Q

Process Energy is
considered to include, but is
not limited to what?

A 
Miscellaneous Equipment, 
Computers, Elevators, 
Escalators, Kitchen Cooking 
& Refrigeration Equipment, 
Laundry Washing & Drying, 
Lighting Exempt from Power 
Allowance (e.g., Medical 
Equipment), and other (e.g., 
Waterfall or Fountain Pumps)
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43
Q 
Regulated or (non-process) 
Energy includes?
A 
Lighting (interior, parking 
garage, surface parking, façade, 
or building grounds) HVAC, 
service water heating for 
domestic or space heating 
purposes.
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44
Q

What generates both electrical
power and thermal energy from
a single fuel source?

A

Combined Heat and Power

(CHP) or Cogeneration

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45
Q 
What device is used to 
regulate humidity and 
temperature, making 
building systems more 
energy efficient?
A

An economizer

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46
Q

What refrigerant management
procedure governs reducing
annual leakage of CFC-based
refrigerants to 5% or less?

A

EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI,

Rule 608

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47
Q 
What are the three (3) 
compliance path options 
described in Optimize Energy 
Performance (EA 
Prerequisite 2)?
A 
Option 1. Whole Building 
Energy Simulation, Option 
2. Prescriptive Compliance 
Path: ASHRAE 50% 
Advanced Energy Design 
Guide Option 3. Prescriptive 
Compliance Path: Advanced 
Buildings Core Performance 
Guide
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48
Q

What are the six (6)
components of ASHRAE
90.1?

A

Building envelope, HVAC,
Service Water Heating,
Power, Lighting, Other
Equipment

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49
Q

What four fundamental
strategies can increase energy
performance?

A

Orientation, Site Energy
Sources, Efficient Envelope,
Energy Recovery Systems

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50
Q

What are the thresholds for
renewable energy production
credit?

A

LEED BD+C (except Core and
Shell): 1%, 5%, 10%
LEED BD+C: Core and Shell:
1%, 3%, 5%

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51
Q

What are the eligible types
of systems for Renewable
Energy Production?

A

Photovoltaic systems, Wind
energy systems, Solar
thermal systems, Biofuelbased electrical systems,
Geothermal heating or
electric systems, Lowimpact hydroelectric power
systems, Wave & tidal
power systems

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52
Q

What biofuel systems are NOT
eligible for Renewable Energy
Production?

A 
Combustion of municipal 
solid waste, Forestry biomass 
waste other than mill residue, 
Coated Wood, or Treated 
Wood.
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53
Q

What are the two (2) Options
for Enhanced Refrigerant
Management?

A

Option 1. No refrigerants or
Low-Impact Refrigerants
Option 2. Calculation of
Refrigeration Impact

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54
Q

What types of equipment
are NOT subject to the
Fundamental Refrigerant
Management requirements?

A 
Small HVAC units (less than 
0.5 lbs [225 grams] of 
refrigerant), standard 
refrigerators, small water 
coolers.
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55
Q

What is the duration and % a
project must engage in to earn
points under Green Power and
Carbon Offsets?

A 
5-year contract AND 50% 
provision of the project's 
energy from green power, 
carbon offsets, or renewable 
energy certificates
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56
Q

What are the two (2) Options
to determine electricity use
for Green Power and Carbon
Offsets?

A 
Option 1. Use the calculated 
energy consumption results 
from EA Prerequisite Minimum 
Energy Performance or Option 
2. Estimate electricity use using 
CBECS database
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57
Q

RECs can be used to
mitigate what type(s) of
emissions for Green Power
and Carbon Offsets?

A

Scope 2, electricity use

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58
Q

Carbon offsets can be used to
mitigate what type(s) of
emissions for Green Power
and Carbon Offsets?

A

Scope 1 or Scope 2

emissions.

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59
Q

What are the three (3) basic
methods for ventilating
buildings?

A 
Mechanical Ventilation (active 
ventilation), Natural Ventilation 
(passive ventilation), MixedMode Ventilation (both 
mechanical & natural 
ventilation)
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60
Q 
What is the distance ALL 
naturally ventilated spaces 
must be in proximity to an 
operable wall or roof 
opening to the outdoors?
A

25’ feet

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61
Q

What is the typical permitted
distance for Environmental
Tobacco Smoke (ETS) Control
(IEQ Prerequisite 2)?

A

25’ feet

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62
Q 
What is the maximum background 
noise level allowed for HVAC 
equipment in classrooms required 
for Minimum Acoustical 
Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)?
A

45 dBA

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63
Q

What acoustic issues need
to considered for Acoustic
Performance?

A 
HVAC background noise
Sound transmission
Reverberation time
Sound reinforcement and 
masking systems
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64
Q 
At what % must an outdoor air 
delivery monitoring system 
generate an alarm for 
insufficient airflow values or 
carbon dioxide?
A

10% variation from design

values

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65
Q 
What is considered a densely 
occupied space when 
monitoring CO2 
concentrations for 
mechanically ventilated 
spaces?
A

25 people or more per 1,000

square feet

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66
Q 
For increased ventilation 
what % must mechanically 
ventilated spaces increase 
outdoor air ventilation rates 
required by ASHRAE 62.1?
A

30% above rates required by

ASHRAE 62.1

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67
Q

What filtration media is required

for Enhanced IAQ strategies?

A

MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard

EN 779-2002)

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68
Q

How does a project confirm
natural ventilation is an
effective strategy?

A

Follow the CIBSE flow diagram.

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69
Q

What is required for
Construction IAQ
Management Plan?

A 
Meet or exceed SMACNA 
guidelines
Protect absorptive materials 
stored on-site
Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on 
operating air-handlers
Prohibit smoking in the 
building and within 25' (7.5 
meters) of entrances
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70
Q

What are the five (5) areas
SMACNA standards for
recommended IAQ Control
Measures?

A 
HVAC protection
Source control
Pathway interruption
Housekeeping
Scheduling
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71
Q

What are the two (2) Options
for Indoor Air Quality
Assessment?

A

Option 1. Flush-out, Option

2. Air testing

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72
Q

What are the two (2)
building flush-out paths a
project can consider for IAQ
Assessment?

A 
14,000 Cubic Feet of 
Outdoor Air per SF of Floor 
Area @ 60°F & 60% relative 
humidity OR 3,500 Cubic 
Feet of Outdoor Air per SF 
of Floor Area @ Minimum 
Rate of .30 (cfm) until 
reaching 14,000 Cubic Feet 
per SF
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73
Q

At what height must air samples
be collected at for IAQ
Assessment?

A

3 to 6 feet (900 to 1,800 mm)
above floor to represent the
breathing zone

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74
Q

What are the general emissions
evaluation standards
associated with low-emitting
adhesives and sealants?

A 
California Department of Public 
Health (CDPH) Standard Method 
v1.1-2010 and German AgBB 
Testing and Evaluation Scheme 
(2010)
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75
Q 
How long must permanent
entryway systems be in the 
primary direction of travel 
for Enhanced IAQ 
Strategies?
A

10’ (3 meters) in the primary
direction of travel at
regularly used exterior
entrances.

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76
Q 
What MERV rating must 
mechanically ventilated 
buildings design HVAC 
systems to filter supply air 
prior to occupancy?
A

MERV 13 (F7) or higher

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77
Q

What types of rooms would
require negative air pressure,
self-closing doors, and deckto-deck partitions or hard-lid
ceilings for interior crosscontamination prevention?

A

Garages
Houskeeping and laundry
areas
Copying and printing rooms

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78
Q

What % of the building
occupants must have
individual lighting controls
for Interior Lighting?

A

At least 90% of individual
occupant spaces and 100% of
shared multi-occupant spaces

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79
Q

How many modes must lighting

systems be able to operate in?

A

3: On, off, and mid-level

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80
Q

What % of the building
occupants must have individual
comfort controls for Thermal
Comfort?

A

At least 50% of individual
occupant spaces and 100% for
all shared multi-occupant
spaces

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81
Q

What are the six (6) primary
comfort factors associated
with ASHRAE 55?

A 
Option 1. ASHRAE Standard 
55-10
OR
Option 2. IOS and CEN 
Standards
82
Q

What are the six (6) primary
comfort factors associated
with ASHRAE 55?

A

Metabolic Rate, Clothing
Insulation, Air Temperature,
Radiant Temperature, Air
Speed, Humidity

83
Q

What are the three (3) options
to achieve IEQ Credit
Daylight?

A 
Option 1. Simulation: Spatial 
daylight autonomy and annual 
sunlight exposure
Option 2. Simulation: I 
luminance calculations
Option 3. Measurement
84
Q 
What % of regularly 
occupied floor area must 
achieve daylight 
illumination for IEQ Credit 
Daylight?
A

75% = 1 Point

85
Q

What are the four kinds of

views?

A

-Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in
different directions at least 90 degrees apart
-Views that include at least two of the following:
(1) flora, fauna, or sky; (2) movement; and (3)
objects at least 25 feet (7.5 meters) from the
exterior of the glazing
-Unobstructed views located within the distance
of three times the head height of the vision
glazing
-Views with a view factor of 3 or greater

86
Q 
What % of regularly occupied 
floor area must have direct line 
of sight to the outdoors via 
vision glazing for IEQ Credit 
Views?
A

75% = 1 Point

87
Q

Views into the interior atria
may be used to meet what
percent of the required area
for Quality Views?

A

30%

88
Q

What dBA must background
noise from HVAC equipment
be reduced to for Minimum
Acoustic Performance?

A

40dBA

89
Q

What dBA must background
noise from HVAC equipment
be reduced to for Minimum
Acoustic Performance?

A

2 pts

90
Q 
What is the maximum 
number of points a project 
can earn for IN Credit 
Innovation for the 
innovation option?
A

2 pts

91
Q

What is the maximum number
of points a project can earn for
Pilot Credits?

A

4 Points

92
Q

What is required for LEED
Accredited Professional
credit?

A

One LEED AP with a specialty

appropriate for the project

93
Q

What is the maximum number
of points a project can earn
for Regional Priority credits?

A

4 Points

94
Q

At a minimum, projects must
provide dedicated area for
collection and storage of what
five (5) materials?

A

Paper, Corrugated
Cardboard, Glass, Plastics,
and Metals

95
Q 
What do calculations need 
to be done by for 
Construction and 
Demolition Waste 
Management?
A

Weight or Volume

96
Q 
What are the minimum % 
thresholds for debris to be 
recycled or salvaged for 
Construction and 
Demolition Waste 
Management?
A

50% = 1 Point; 75% = 2

Points

97
Q

What is required for a project
team to establish for
Construction and Demolition
Waste Management Planning?

A

Waste diversion goals

98
Q

Who is NOT required to
have a Chain of Custody
documentation for FSCcertified wood?

A

End User

99
Q

What international
alternative compliance path
is available for material
ingredient optimization?

A

REACH Optimization

100
Q

For Innovation credit when
pursuing Option 1 Innovation
what must the team identify?

A 
Intent of proposed 
innovation credit, proposed 
requirement(s) for 
compliance, proposed 
submittals, and strategies 
used to meet requirement(s)
101
Q

What is a BAS?

A

Building Automation System (BAS), it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.

102
Q

What is WaterSense?

A

WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.

103
Q

At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?

A

Between 3 and 6 feet above the floor.

104
Q

When can certification be revoked?

A

Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.

105
Q

What is Technical Release (TR) 55?

A

An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculate storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service

106
Q

What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?

A 
Site conditions
Massing and orientation
Basic envelope attributes
Lighting levels
Thermal comfort ranges
Plug and process load needs
107
Q

What water-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?

A

Interior water demand
Outdoor water demand
Process water demand
Supply sources

108
Q

How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?

A

At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects.

109
Q

What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?

A

EPA’s Target Finder

110
Q

What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?

A
  • LEED ND Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED ND Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Project
  • LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
  • LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
111
Q

What percent of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?

A

There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained however.

112
Q

When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?

A

At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements.

113
Q

What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?

A

At least 25% from off site or on site as a percentage of the surface area.

114
Q

What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?

A
  • Global warming potential (greenhouse gases)
  • Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
  • Acidification of land and water sources
  • Eutrophication
  • Formation of tropospheric ozone
  • Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
115
Q

When conducting a whole-building life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?

A

A minimum of 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and do not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building.

116
Q

For a whole-building life-cycle assessment what is the service life of the baseline building?

A

60 years

117
Q

What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?

A

Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased within 100 miles (160 km) of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost.

118
Q

What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?

A

At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers

119
Q

What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?

A

Use products that comply with the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products.

120
Q

What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?

A

Product-specific declaration: 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD: 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD: 1 product

121
Q

How many qualifying products must be sourced for exemplary peformance for product disclosure?

A

At least 40 qualifying products

122
Q

A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?

A

Each of the three types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope.

123
Q

Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?

A

30%

124
Q

All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?

A

ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044, and EN 15804 or ISO 21930

125
Q

What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?

A
  • Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Sustainability Report
  • Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
  • U.N. Global Compact: Communication of Progress
  • ISO 26000: 2010 Guidance on Social Responsibility
126
Q

What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?

A
  • Extended producer responsibility
  • Bio-based materials
  • Wood products
  • Materials reuse
  • Recycled content
127
Q

What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?

A

GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark
Cradle to Cradle Certified
REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)

128
Q

What Cradle-to-Cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?

A
  • Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold: 100% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum: 150% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver: 100% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum: 150% of cost
129
Q

What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?

A
  • Topography
  • Hydrology
  • Climate
  • Vegetation
  • Soils
  • Human use
  • Human health effects
130
Q

What should be used to estimate the water storage capacity of a site during a site assessment?

A

Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside the U.S.

131
Q

What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?

A

A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after three years of weather exposure

132
Q

What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?

A

Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)

133
Q

What reduction is required for demand response?

A

At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand

134
Q

What types of demand response programs are acceptable?

A

Semi-automated and automated (not manual)

135
Q

What is load shedding?

A

An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control.

136
Q

What is the contract period for demand response?

A

A minimum of one year with the intention of multiyear renewal

137
Q

What are the three options for high priority sites?

A

Option 1. Historic district
Option 2. Priority designation
Option 3. Brownfield remediation

138
Q

What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?

A

On an infill location

139
Q

What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?

A
  • Site listed by the EPA National Priorities List
  • Federal Empowerment Zone site
  • Federal Enterprise Community site
  • Federal Renewal Community site
  • Department of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
  • Site in a U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area
  • Local equivalent program administered at the national level for projects outside the U.S.
140
Q

What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)?

A

72 weekday, 40 weekend

141
Q

What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with commuter rail or ferry service only?

A

24 weekday, 6 weekend

142
Q

When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?

A

When they are sited, funded, and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete within 24 months of that date.

143
Q

What must a bicycle network connect to?

A

At least one of the following:

  • at least 10 diverse uses
  • a school or employment center, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
  • a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal
144
Q

How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?

A

Within 200-yards (180-meters) walking or bicycling distance

145
Q

What is the maximum distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?

A

Within a 3-mile (4,800 meter) bicycling distance of the project boundary.

146
Q

Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?

A

Within 100 feet (30 meters) walking distance of any main entrance.

147
Q

Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?

A

Within 100 feet (30 meters) walkin distance of any functional entry.

148
Q

What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A
  1. Do not exceed the minimum local code requirements

2. A percent reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)

149
Q

When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A

When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit

150
Q

How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A

5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios.

151
Q

What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?

A

25% minimum

152
Q

How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?

A

30% of the total site area (including the building footprint) or greater.

153
Q

What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?

A

Physically accessible

154
Q

What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?

A
  • paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
  • paving or turf that encourages physical activity
  • year-round garden space
  • community gardens
  • preserved or created habitat
155
Q

When can a vegetated roof count towards vegetation for Open Space?

A

When a project has a density of 1.5 FAR

156
Q

How much rainfall must be managed for a project with a zero-lot-line with a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?

A

85th Percentile

157
Q

What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?

A

LID and green infrastructure

158
Q

For a project with open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?

A

95th Percentile

159
Q

When managing rainwater using natural land cover condtions what must be done?

A

Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the postdeveloped condition.

160
Q

When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?

A

10 years worth

161
Q

What percent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?

A

100%

162
Q

What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?

A

75%

163
Q

Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what three-year aged solar reflectance?

A

0.28. If the three-year aged value information is not available use materials with an initial SR of at least 0.33

164
Q

How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?

A

The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces.

165
Q

Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?

A
  1. Three year aged SRI of at least 32
    - 2. Or a vegetated roof
    - 3. Or covered by energy generation systems
166
Q

What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?

A

Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 2000 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours.

167
Q

What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light tresspass requirements?

A

Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 2000 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours.

168
Q

How many conditions are there where the lighting boundarycan be different than the property boundary?

A

There are 3 conditions. The exceptions are not listed here due to their length (see the reference guide).

169
Q

When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?

A

No more than 5 feet (1.5 meters) apart.

170
Q

If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to mee the Light Tresspass requirements?

A

No. Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Tresspass.

171
Q

What is a BUG rating?

A

A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U), and glare (G) (taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance). BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.

172
Q

What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?

A

Two or more of the following:

  • Irrigation
  • Indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
  • Domestic hot water
  • Boilers
  • Reclaimed water
  • Other process water
173
Q

What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process water?

A

80% must be submetered

174
Q

What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-Level-Water Metering?

A

Monthly and annual summaries

175
Q

How long must a project commit to sharing metering data with USGBC and when must the sharing begin?

A

A five-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first

176
Q

What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?

A

Using EPA’s WaterSense Water Budget Tool

177
Q

What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculated baseline?

A

30% reduction from the calculated baseline for the site’s peak watering month

178
Q

How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?

A
  1. Plant species selection
    AND
  2. Irrigation efficiency
    Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite
179
Q

What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?

A

Nonvegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be included or excluded at the project teams’ discretion.

180
Q

What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?

A

50% from the calculated baseline for the site’s peak watering month.

181
Q

How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% be achieved for outdoor water use reduction?

A

Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technologies

182
Q

What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?

A

15% from the baseline

183
Q

What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?

A

55%

184
Q

What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?

A

A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters

185
Q

What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?

A

A 10-cycle minimum.

186
Q

Any individual energy end use that represents ____ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?

A

10%

187
Q

How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?

A

36 months

188
Q

What energy sources must be metered in a building?

A
  • Electricity
  • Natural gas, fuel oil, other fossil fuels
  • Biofuels
  • District chilled water, steam, and hot water
189
Q

How often must advanced meters be able to report data?

A

Hourly, daily, monthly, and annually

190
Q

What three components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?

A

Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning

191
Q

Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?

A

No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Option 2.

192
Q

What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Management?

A

Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least three material streams

193
Q

When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Management what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?

A

2.5 lbs / SF (12.2 kg / m2) of waste for the building’s floor area

194
Q

What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?

A

Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris.

195
Q

What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?

A

Choose two of these three: Batteries, mercury-containing lamps, or electronic waste

196
Q

What two simulations are required for Daylighting, Option 1 Simulation?

A

sDA and ASE

197
Q

What is the threshold for an sDA simulation?

A

300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year

198
Q

What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?

A

1,000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year

199
Q

When do the daylight simulations for Option 2 Simulation: Illuminance calculations occur?

A

9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or September 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox

200
Q

At what height should daylight measurements be taken?

A

30 inches (750 mm) above the finished floor for the default workplane height

LEED AP BD+C (5 decks)

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