SET 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosis of ankylosis in primary molars

A

increase density of lamina dura radiographically

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2
Q

What age group is a space maintainer difficult to manage?

A

5 year old child with loss of primary mandibular second molar

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3
Q

For the retention form is Class III among maxillary teeth

A

lingual dovetail

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4
Q

Best time to treat diastema between 2 maxillary anterior teeth, if the result is a low and fan-shape frenum

A

until permanent canine erupt

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5
Q

Formocresol pulpotomy for healthy children is not a health hazard to them but caution should be observe for children who have _______

A

rheumatic fever or nephritis

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6
Q

An anatomic crossbite, contrasted with a functional crossbite usually demonstrate ________

A

smooth closure to centric occlusion

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7
Q

Absence of the dental lamina

A

congenital absence of the third molars

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8
Q

Most reasonable restoration for the grossly broken down anterior primary tooth

A

stainless steel crowns

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9
Q

Inhibits normal growth and development

A

dysplasia

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10
Q

As a generalist, you can perform the phases of orthodontics like:

A

prophylactic orthodontics

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11
Q

Maxillary width increases is greater than mandibular because ______

A

the maxillary alveolar process diverge while mandibular processes as are parallel

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12
Q

What changes in soft tissue profile are affected orthodontic treatment?

A

thickness of the upper lip

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13
Q

Uprighting of tooth is difficult if not slow in progress because ______

A

occlusion is not relieved

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14
Q

An understanding of the development of human behavior requires a knowledge of the basic concept of ______

A

maturation and learning

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15
Q

Active growth sites of the maxilla

A

fronto-nasal process
maxillary tuberosity
midpalatal and transpalatal suture

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16
Q

Cause of crossbite in the maxillary permanent incisor

A

over retention of a maxillary primary incisor

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17
Q

Level of caries reduction that is associated with optimal fluoridation of community water supplies

A

55%

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18
Q

Premature exfoliation of the primary canine may indicate ______

A

arch length deficiency

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19
Q

Avitominosis A & D

A

systemic cause of malocclusion

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20
Q

Causes of ectopic or delayed eruption of permanent teeth in the anterior segment

A

teeth migration
presence of supernumerary teeth
premature loss of primary teeth

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21
Q

Example of simple anchorage

A

diastema closure by elastic fraction tipping the crowns together

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22
Q

In order to restore the original broad and flat contact in primary molars, the class 11 matrix material should be placed with ________

A

greater curvature that in the permanent

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23
Q

Microorganism commonly found in delta caries

A

streptococci mutans and lactobacillus

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24
Q

Fundamental design of the human masticatory mechanism

A

geodesic design

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25
Growth in height of the face results in _______
an increase in vertical dimension
26
Advantage in the use of extraoral anchorage
permits posterior movement of teeth in one arch without disturbing the opposite arch
27
Other name for Franfurt horizontal plane
eye-ear plane
28
A 7 year old patient demonstrates unilateral buccal crossbite in centric occlusion, deviation of the mandibular midline, bilateral constriction of the maxillary arch and a lateral deviation from centric relation to centric occasion. What is the most likely treatment for this case?
bilateral palatal extension
29
Process of resorption of the roots of the primary teeth is confined to the ______
any part and/or surface of the roots
30
A primary second molar is in infraocclusion and its occlusal surface is level with the gingival margin of the permanent first molar which is beginning to tip mesially. Radiographs indicate a developing permanent second premolar is present. The dentist should:
extract the primary molar and place a space maintainer
31
Simple anterior crowding may be corrected by _______
disking or stripping the medial or distal surfaces of the anterior
32
A model cast would give the ff information EXCEPT: a) arch, shape and symmetry of the maxillary mandible b) an individual tooth malposition c) depth of the palatal vault d) inclination of the roots
d) inclination of the roots
33
Cleidocranial dysostosis is of interest of the dentist because of __________
multiple supernumerary teeth
34
What appliance should not be used to upright a permanent mandibular second molar before constructing a fixed partial denture?
acrylic removable segment with facial elastics
35
Rectangular wire is used in orthodontics appliances in order to ________
prevent buccal and lingual tooth movement
36
Sequence of histologic changes after pulpotomy 1. new odontoblastic layer at wound site 2. bridge of denim formed 3. necrosis of superficial part of pulp nearest calcium hydroxide 4. acute inflammatory changes from immediate tissue beneath
3-4-1-2
37
Most prevalent group of malocclusion Angle classification
Class I
38
Following premature loss of the primary second molars unerupted first molar will migrate and cause space loss in the _______
maxilla or mandible
39
In absolute necessity, the role is _________
take time in explaining the procedure of dental treatment he needs
40
Growth may result in the following EXCEPT a) continuous increase in size b) change in form or proportion c) change in texture or in quantity d) increase or decrease in size
a) continuous increase in size
41
Treatment for a child with open bite. The posterior teeth are the only ones that contact the antagonist
refer the child to an orthodontist
42
During the primary dentition, pseudo Class III is managed by orthodontic forces EXCEPT a) manual movement b) headcap and chincap c) tongue blade therapy d) skullcap and chincap
a) manual movement
43
What part of the primary molar will fracture in Class II restoration?
isthmus
44
The last primary teeth to undergo resorption of the roots at nine years
canines
45
A 14 year old female has deep vertical pockets with bone loss on the mesial aspect of first molars and some drifting of maxillary incisor. However, only minimal inflammation and minimal plaque are present. What is the probable diagnosis?
juvenile periodontitis
46
A mother brings her daughter to the dental office for dental treatment. Clinical examination reveal normal occlusion after losing a primary mandibular second molar. What must the dentist do?
evaluate the radiograph and base his treatment with high findings
47
What is the best space maintainer?
a pulpotomized primary molars
48
Purpose of Synder test
predict the nature of the combined acidogenic organisms in the oral cavity
49
Essential criteria for orthodontic diagnosis
radiographic analysis cast analysis clinical examination
50
What condition is present in a Class II Division 2 malocclusion?
lingual inclination of maxillary central incisor
51
Loss of space is most rapid following the premature extraction of what primary teeth?
maxillary second molar
52
Treatment of root fractures in primary dentition
extraction
53
As an orthodontist, how will you treat a child with a slight crowding of mandibular anterior and exfoliation of primary molar teeth?
take an impression prepare and study cast make an arch length analysis
54
Best diagnostic tool to identify the offending tooth in children with dental pain and multiple carious teeth
ask the patient to identify the tooth
55
Loss of space if most rapid premature extraction of what primary teeth?
maxillary second molar
56
Behavioral problem in children can be managed by familiarization if the basis of the problem is ________
fear
57
Dental restoration involving the proximal surfaces in the primary dentition, particularly molars, should restore the full mesiodistal diameter for __________
maintenance of arch length
58
Why do boys and girls differ in behavior in the dental office? What is related to this difference?
learning
59
What indicates an anterior crossbite in primary dentition?
skeletal growth problem
60
Primary molars demand extension of the preparation to remove potentially carious areas by following the ________
occlusal groove patterns
61
To reduce the length of the body of the mandible by surgery if it is _________
the treatment plan for a Class III malocclusion
62
Slow progress in molar uprighting is usually due to __________
occlusion not being relieved
63
Will there be a change in the size of the intercanine space if the primary masriiar/central incisor with incisal spring be extracted?
no change will occur in the size of intercanine space
64
When is the distal shoe space maintainer indicated?
when a primary second molar is lost before eruption of a permanent first molar
65
Favorable results can be obtained when treating anterior crossbite if __________
proper space in the arch is present where to move teeth in their proper relationship witht he otherst
66
General facial profile of an infant
convex
67
Teeth will move occlusally when it reaches stage of Noila's classification
Stage 6
68
What criteria will differentiate between a true class III and a pseudo class III malocclusion?
the presence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure
69
Shell teeth is associated with developmental disturbance in _________
structural formation
70
Most important dental tissue to an orthodontist
periodontal ligament
71
Why are band loop space maintainer not indicated for premature loss of primary second molar?
normal eruption sequence is disturbed following extraction and space loss occurs ff premature eruption of the second premolars and removal of the band and loop
72
Interceptive orthodontics is prescribed to collect crowding or incisors which is done by serial extraction of what teeth?
deciduous canines, deciduous first molars, including first premolars
73
A modified class III preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary canine is characterized by its __________
facial or lingual dovetail
74
Characteristics of juvenile diabetes mellitus
blindness
75
An archal dimension completed earlier among girls at age 10 the in boys
intercanine width
76
Prognosis ff fracture of the root of a permanent maxillary incisor is most favorable if the fracture is in the _________
apical third of the root
77
A poor man's cephalogram refers to facial evaluation because of, EXCEPT a) skeletal jaw relationship can be observed b) posterior crossbites are revealed c) jaw to jaw relation can be identified d) mandibular protrusion can be detected
b) posterior crossbites are revealed
78
Loops and helices are used in arch wires primarily to __________
holds soft tissues away from orthodontic brackets
79
Buccal coil spring have its undesirable side effects such as _________
tendency of premolar to rotate
80
Complete excavation or decay on a Class I cavity of a deciduous molar, the pulp was exposed. Following pulpotomy using calcium hydroxide to treat the remaining pulp, dentin will form ____________
slightly below the amputated pulp
81
When avulse tooth is replanted, the following are correct EXCEPT a) hard scrubbing should be avoided to preserve periodontal membrane b) curette lie alveolar socket before insertion c) 90% successful if avulsion occurs less than 30 minutes d) don't remove loose tissue
b) curette lie alveolar socket before insertion
82
What changes in soft tissue profile are effected by orthodontic treatment?
thickness of upper lip
83
What effect will office dental prophylaxis at regular 6 month intervals have on children's oral health?
provide a short-term improvement in oral hygiene
84
What primary teeth are most severely involved with nursing caries?
maxillary incisors
85
Cause or failure in Class II amalgam restorations in primary molars
narrow isthmus which eventually can fracture
86
Attempt to restrain the excessive growth and development forward of the maxilla if it is __________
for Class II malocclusion the treatment stated below