SET 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Most favorable sequence of eruption of the permanent teeth in the mandibular arch

A

6-1-2-3-4-5-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bone reaction adjacent to the hyalinized tissue during the initial period of tooth movement

A

resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tooth buds that are generally initiated after birth

A

1st, 2nd, and 3rd molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Change from generalized cells or tissues to a more specialized kind

A

differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for distance between the maxillary central incisors at age 8

A

leaving it alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A method of predicting the size of the succedaneous teeth and the space available in the arch

A

mixed dentition analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Developmental physiologic events used to predict skeletal growth spurts

A

increase in height
monarche
ossification of the adductor sesamoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cheek biting is best resolved by ______

A

cross elastic (to prevent constriction of the maxillary arch and posterior crossbites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disturbances during the appositional stage or tooth development may result in

A

enamel hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Growth sites

A

sutures
maxillary tuberosity
synchondroses
condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What brings about the establishment of flush terminal plane at the end of the primary dentitions?

A

mandibular 2nd molars are wider MD than their maxillary counterparts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Malocclusion in the primary dentition caused by oral habit with an intense degree are usually corrected until what age?

A

three (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A lingually erupting maxillary lateral incisor at age 8 can be intercepted by:

A

using a tongue
using an inclined plane
the use of Hawley appliance with an activated finger spring at the lingual surface lateral incisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hand-wrists radiographs are taken as orthodontic diagnostic aids to _____

A

determine the amount of growth of the child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most retruded and posterior position of the condyles

A

centric relation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Microorganisms that are most frequently associated with active carious lesions

A

lactobacilli and streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The long face syndrome is most always associated with

A

mouth breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The type of clasp used in most removal orthodontic appliances which engages the distobuccal undercuts of the posterior teeth and gives excellent retentive properties

A

Adams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Malocclusion characterized by a narrowing of the arch, protruding incisors accompanied by abnormal function of the lips

A

Class II Division 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Behavior management wherein each step and/or instrument is explained to the results of the procedure done

A

Tell-show-do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Classification of a malocclusion presenting 1st permanent molars in distocclusion, excessive lingual inclination of the maxillary central incisors, and excessive labial of the maxillary lateral incisors

A

Class II Division 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment alternatives for deep pit and fissures

A

pit and fissure sealants
preventive resin restoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Important mediator of cellular response which has the capacity to stimulate both osteo osteoblastic activity

A

interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

First teeth to be extracted in a serial extraction in a crowded arch as the permanent incisors erupt

A

primary canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Branchial arch where the mandible originates

A

1st branchial arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hawley appliance produces what movement?

A

tipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Theory of bone formation that states that in the presence of load sufficient to bend the surface of the bone on the convex side stimulates osteoclastic activity while on the surface osteoblastic activity is stimulated

A

Law of electrogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stage of tooth germ development affected when a cyst, an odontoma, or a supernumerary tooth may result

A

Initiation stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Best sedative for overly anxious child patient

A

Dormium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Caused by a failure of the periodontal ligament to develop

A

Ankylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Index used to analyze the proportionality of tooth sizes in the maxillary and mandibular arches

A

Bolton’s analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment for non-vital young permanent teeth with open apices

A

Apexification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ideal management for anterior open bite due to mouth breathing caused by enlarged adenoids

A

refer to a pediatrician regarding the adenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Trauma to the primary incisors may affect the developing permanent dentition and may cause the development of ________

A

Enamel hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Represents the deciduous set in the Federation Dentaire International

A

Arabic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In early loss of the mandibular primary molars, the md 1st permanent molar usually comes mesially tipped and more likely slows a lingual tipping. This is due to the _______

A

absence of the primary second deciduous molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

During the 9th or 10th intrauterine week, the palatal shelves are ready to fuse with each other, but failure of the _______ to move forward and fall into the oral cavity may cause failure of fusion of the palatal shelves, causing cleft palate

A

tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anomaly where tipping movement is successful during the age range between 5-8 years

A

simple single malposed teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Indication for pit and fissure sealant

A

deep retentive pits and fissures
well-coalesced pits and fissures

41
Q

Factors that increase maxillary arch perimeter

A

angulation of the maxillary permanent incisors
increase in width of the maxillary

42
Q

Embryonic period where the greatest amount of facial development occurs

A

4th - 8th intrauterine week

43
Q

Surface on the first primary maxillary molar susceptible to develop caries

A

mesial groove

44
Q

Physiologic process that occurs together with adhesion of the roots of primary molars

A

resorption

45
Q

Space maintainer of choice in a 5-year old child who has lost the maxillary right central and lateral incisors

A

none :)

46
Q

Important preventive orthodontic measure in the primary dentition

A

Placing space maintainers
Proper restoration of primary molars specially the interproximal spaces
Placing space regainer

47
Q

If the mandibular primary cuspids are to be extracted because of caries, the space should be maintained with _________

A

lingual holding arch

48
Q

Characteristic of primary teeth

A

The primary molar are wider than their permanent successors and the crown of teeth are smaller but more bell-shaped cervically

49
Q

Followed guideline when the eruption of a permanent tooth has been delayed because over retained primary root

A

extract the over retained primary tooth when the roots of the permanent tooth are about half developed

50
Q

Occlusal cavity preparation of deciduous molar must necessarily be more shallow permanent teeth can be explained by _________

A

the thickness of the enamel is approximately 1/2 that of the permanent teeth

51
Q

The distance from the mesial surface of the 1st permanent molar on one side of the arch mesial surface of the 1st permanent molar on the other side is called __________

A

arch circumference

52
Q

Appliance used for treating deep bite cases for a 10-year old child

A

cervical headgear

53
Q

The first permanent tooth in the oral cavity which accedes into the oral cavity of a child the primary second molars are

A

1st molar permanent

54
Q

Process of bone growth by addition of bone tissue on one side and resorption in the other

A

drift

55
Q

Nolla’s stage of tooth development number 6 (stage 6)

A

crown is completed

56
Q

Term used in orthodontics which means resistance to displacement

A

anchorage

57
Q

Causes of midline diastema after the permanent canines have erupted

A

mesiodens
fibrous labial frenum
supernumerary tooth

58
Q

Growth theory that claims that the bone and cartilage growth is determined by functional matrices

A

Moss’ theory

59
Q

The end-to-end relationship of the primary molar is changed to a favorable one by what condition?

A

positive leeway space

60
Q

The equivalent of physiologic orthodontic force

A

normal capillary blood pressure

61
Q

Skeletal relationship and growth direction can be best assessed by an analysis of landmarks in a ________

A

cephalometric radiograph

62
Q

Type of bone formation that goes through cartilage formation with its replacement by osteogenic tissue

A

endochondral bone formation

63
Q

Retained infantile swallowing may lead to __________

A

procline maxillary incisors
anterior open bite
tongue thrusting

64
Q

A dental posterior crossbite of the 1st permanent molars without mandibular shift can be corrected by _________

A

crossbite elastic

65
Q

Comprehensive preventive dental program is applied best among _______

A

physically handicapped children

66
Q

An active removable appliance should be adjusted every _____ week

A

3-4 weeks

67
Q

Sequalae of unrestored or improperly filled proximal caries of the deciduous molar

A

crowding of the posterior segment in the permanent dentition

a high and labial cuspids in maxillary arch

68
Q

_______ eruption is an important factor in widening and changing the shape of maxillary dental arch

A

canines

69
Q

Dental age eleven is generally characterized by the eruption of _________

A

mandibular 1st premolar

70
Q

Index used to determine the availability of space for the incoming succedaneous

A

mixed dentition analysis

71
Q

Factor/s that determine the gravity of a pernicious habit to cause a malocclusion

A

duration
intensity
frequency

72
Q

Normal relationship of the primary molar

A

flush terminal plane

73
Q

When does abscess formation develop and at the same time diagnostic procedure can established among children’s teeth?

A

non-suppurative cases

74
Q

Dental arch length of the maxilla and mandible is always shortened during

A

transitional dentition

75
Q

Speech sound produced with nasopharyngeal incompetence

A

hypernasal

76
Q

Requirements for a good space maintainer

A

It should improve the function of the posterior segment
It should provide enough space for the eruption of the succedaneous teeth
It should be cleansable

77
Q

The arch perimeter is maintained only if there is __________

A

there is loss of arch perimeter
there is favorable mixed dentition analysis
there is no loss of one or more primary teeth

78
Q

Management of accidental intrusion of primary incisor at age 5

A

giving analgesic, controlling bleeding and observe for 6 months to allow re-eruption

observe the tooth if swelling or pus formation occurs
extraction

79
Q

Presence of a diastema between the central incisors between ages 7-8 should be ________

A

observed because it will resolve by itself

80
Q

Material used for indirect pulp treatment which is places directly over the deep cavity where some carious dentin is left

A

calcium hydroxide

81
Q

Epypheseal plates of long bones are example of _______

A

growth centers

82
Q

One of the causes of internal resorption when used as a direct pulp capping material

A

calcium hydroxide

83
Q

Structure responsible for the downward displacement of the maxilla

A

nasal cartilage

84
Q

___________ are regarded by children as tooth statues

A

plaster models

85
Q

Closes correction between chronologic age and the number of permanent teeth, root age and bone age are between

A

chronologic age and bone age

86
Q

Condition among primary molars that causes its failure to establish its final occlusion level

A

ankylosis

87
Q

Position of the jaws present during tetanus

A

lockjaw

88
Q

Position of the mandible that allows maximum intercuspation of the maxillary and mandibular teeth

A

centric occlusion centric relation

89
Q

Management of an accidental complete avulsion of a primary incisor

A

giving analgesic
no need to reimplant the tooth

90
Q

Growth theory that implicates the role of the nasal int he growth of the maxilla and mandible

A

Scott’s

91
Q

Response of the periodontal ligament to heavy forces may lead to ________

A

hyalinization

92
Q

Nance leeway space is equivalent to _______

A

difference between C+D+E and 4+5+3

93
Q

When is the replantation of avulsed teeth generally done?

A

24 hours after injury

94
Q

Defined as the normal changes among living substance and is measured in units of increase per unit of time

A

growth

95
Q

Does not affect tooth eruption

A

physical growth

96
Q

Behavior management where a child is allowed to do home treatment when he throws a temper tantrum in the dental office prior to treatment

A

negative reinforcement

97
Q

Recommended application time for the gel acidulated phosphate fluoride application

A

4 minutes

98
Q

Conditions that require orthodontic management of the primary dentition which may affect the permanent dentition if left untreated

A

anterior crossbites
pernicious oral habits
over retained primary incisors

99
Q

Incorrect technique of external resorption of the roots of the teeth

A

replanted avulsion