SET 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Most favorable sequence of eruption of the permanent teeth in the mandibular arch

A

6-1-2-3-4-5-7

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2
Q

Bone reaction adjacent to the hyalinized tissue during the initial period of tooth movement

A

resorption

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3
Q

Tooth buds that are generally initiated after birth

A

1st, 2nd, and 3rd molars

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4
Q

Change from generalized cells or tissues to a more specialized kind

A

differentiation

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5
Q

Treatment for distance between the maxillary central incisors at age 8

A

leaving it alone

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6
Q

A method of predicting the size of the succedaneous teeth and the space available in the arch

A

mixed dentition analysis

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7
Q

Developmental physiologic events used to predict skeletal growth spurts

A

increase in height
monarche
ossification of the adductor sesamoid

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8
Q

Cheek biting is best resolved by ______

A

cross elastic (to prevent constriction of the maxillary arch and posterior crossbites)

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9
Q

Disturbances during the appositional stage or tooth development may result in

A

enamel hypoplasia

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10
Q

Growth sites

A

sutures
maxillary tuberosity
synchondroses
condyle

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11
Q

What brings about the establishment of flush terminal plane at the end of the primary dentitions?

A

mandibular 2nd molars are wider MD than their maxillary counterparts

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12
Q

Malocclusion in the primary dentition caused by oral habit with an intense degree are usually corrected until what age?

A

three (3)

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13
Q

A lingually erupting maxillary lateral incisor at age 8 can be intercepted by:

A

using a tongue
using an inclined plane
the use of Hawley appliance with an activated finger spring at the lingual surface lateral incisor

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14
Q

Hand-wrists radiographs are taken as orthodontic diagnostic aids to _____

A

determine the amount of growth of the child

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15
Q

The most retruded and posterior position of the condyles

A

centric relation

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16
Q

Microorganisms that are most frequently associated with active carious lesions

A

lactobacilli and streptococcus mutans

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17
Q

The long face syndrome is most always associated with

A

mouth breathing

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18
Q

The type of clasp used in most removal orthodontic appliances which engages the distobuccal undercuts of the posterior teeth and gives excellent retentive properties

A

Adams

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19
Q

Malocclusion characterized by a narrowing of the arch, protruding incisors accompanied by abnormal function of the lips

A

Class II Division 1

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20
Q

Behavior management wherein each step and/or instrument is explained to the results of the procedure done

A

Tell-show-do

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21
Q

Classification of a malocclusion presenting 1st permanent molars in distocclusion, excessive lingual inclination of the maxillary central incisors, and excessive labial of the maxillary lateral incisors

A

Class II Division 2

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22
Q

Treatment alternatives for deep pit and fissures

A

pit and fissure sealants
preventive resin restoration

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

Important mediator of cellular response which has the capacity to stimulate both osteo osteoblastic activity

A

interleukins

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25
First teeth to be extracted in a serial extraction in a crowded arch as the permanent incisors erupt
primary canines
26
Branchial arch where the mandible originates
1st branchial arch
27
Hawley appliance produces what movement?
tipping
28
Theory of bone formation that states that in the presence of load sufficient to bend the surface of the bone on the convex side stimulates osteoclastic activity while on the surface osteoblastic activity is stimulated
Law of electrogenesis
29
Stage of tooth germ development affected when a cyst, an odontoma, or a supernumerary tooth may result
Initiation stage
30
Best sedative for overly anxious child patient
Dormium
31
Caused by a failure of the periodontal ligament to develop
Ankylosis
32
Index used to analyze the proportionality of tooth sizes in the maxillary and mandibular arches
Bolton's analysis
33
Treatment for non-vital young permanent teeth with open apices
Apexification
34
Ideal management for anterior open bite due to mouth breathing caused by enlarged adenoids
refer to a pediatrician regarding the adenoids
35
Trauma to the primary incisors may affect the developing permanent dentition and may cause the development of ________
Enamel hypoplasia
36
Represents the deciduous set in the Federation Dentaire International
Arabic
37
In early loss of the mandibular primary molars, the md 1st permanent molar usually comes mesially tipped and more likely slows a lingual tipping. This is due to the _______
absence of the primary second deciduous molar
38
During the 9th or 10th intrauterine week, the palatal shelves are ready to fuse with each other, but failure of the _______ to move forward and fall into the oral cavity may cause failure of fusion of the palatal shelves, causing cleft palate
tongue
39
Anomaly where tipping movement is successful during the age range between 5-8 years
simple single malposed teeth
40
Indication for pit and fissure sealant
deep retentive pits and fissures well-coalesced pits and fissures
41
Factors that increase maxillary arch perimeter
angulation of the maxillary permanent incisors increase in width of the maxillary
42
Embryonic period where the greatest amount of facial development occurs
4th - 8th intrauterine week
43
Surface on the first primary maxillary molar susceptible to develop caries
mesial groove
44
Physiologic process that occurs together with adhesion of the roots of primary molars
resorption
45
Space maintainer of choice in a 5-year old child who has lost the maxillary right central and lateral incisors
none :)
46
Important preventive orthodontic measure in the primary dentition
Placing space maintainers Proper restoration of primary molars specially the interproximal spaces Placing space regainer
47
If the mandibular primary cuspids are to be extracted because of caries, the space should be maintained with _________
lingual holding arch
48
Characteristic of primary teeth
The primary molar are wider than their permanent successors and the crown of teeth are smaller but more bell-shaped cervically
49
Followed guideline when the eruption of a permanent tooth has been delayed because over retained primary root
extract the over retained primary tooth when the roots of the permanent tooth are about half developed
50
Occlusal cavity preparation of deciduous molar must necessarily be more shallow permanent teeth can be explained by _________
the thickness of the enamel is approximately 1/2 that of the permanent teeth
51
The distance from the mesial surface of the 1st permanent molar on one side of the arch mesial surface of the 1st permanent molar on the other side is called __________
arch circumference
52
Appliance used for treating deep bite cases for a 10-year old child
cervical headgear
53
The first permanent tooth in the oral cavity which accedes into the oral cavity of a child the primary second molars are
1st molar permanent
54
Process of bone growth by addition of bone tissue on one side and resorption in the other
drift
55
Nolla's stage of tooth development number 6 (stage 6)
crown is completed
56
Term used in orthodontics which means resistance to displacement
anchorage
57
Causes of midline diastema after the permanent canines have erupted
mesiodens fibrous labial frenum supernumerary tooth
58
Growth theory that claims that the bone and cartilage growth is determined by functional matrices
Moss' theory
59
The end-to-end relationship of the primary molar is changed to a favorable one by what condition?
positive leeway space
60
The equivalent of physiologic orthodontic force
normal capillary blood pressure
61
Skeletal relationship and growth direction can be best assessed by an analysis of landmarks in a ________
cephalometric radiograph
62
Type of bone formation that goes through cartilage formation with its replacement by osteogenic tissue
endochondral bone formation
63
Retained infantile swallowing may lead to __________
procline maxillary incisors anterior open bite tongue thrusting
64
A dental posterior crossbite of the 1st permanent molars without mandibular shift can be corrected by _________
crossbite elastic
65
Comprehensive preventive dental program is applied best among _______
physically handicapped children
66
An active removable appliance should be adjusted every _____ week
3-4 weeks
67
Sequalae of unrestored or improperly filled proximal caries of the deciduous molar
crowding of the posterior segment in the permanent dentition a high and labial cuspids in maxillary arch
68
_______ eruption is an important factor in widening and changing the shape of maxillary dental arch
canines
69
Dental age eleven is generally characterized by the eruption of _________
mandibular 1st premolar
70
Index used to determine the availability of space for the incoming succedaneous
mixed dentition analysis
71
Factor/s that determine the gravity of a pernicious habit to cause a malocclusion
duration intensity frequency
72
Normal relationship of the primary molar
flush terminal plane
73
When does abscess formation develop and at the same time diagnostic procedure can established among children's teeth?
non-suppurative cases
74
Dental arch length of the maxilla and mandible is always shortened during
transitional dentition
75
Speech sound produced with nasopharyngeal incompetence
hypernasal
76
Requirements for a good space maintainer
It should improve the function of the posterior segment It should provide enough space for the eruption of the succedaneous teeth It should be cleansable
77
The arch perimeter is maintained only if there is __________
there is loss of arch perimeter there is favorable mixed dentition analysis there is no loss of one or more primary teeth
78
Management of accidental intrusion of primary incisor at age 5
giving analgesic, controlling bleeding and observe for 6 months to allow re-eruption observe the tooth if swelling or pus formation occurs extraction
79
Presence of a diastema between the central incisors between ages 7-8 should be ________
observed because it will resolve by itself
80
Material used for indirect pulp treatment which is places directly over the deep cavity where some carious dentin is left
calcium hydroxide
81
Epypheseal plates of long bones are example of _______
growth centers
82
One of the causes of internal resorption when used as a direct pulp capping material
calcium hydroxide
83
Structure responsible for the downward displacement of the maxilla
nasal cartilage
84
___________ are regarded by children as tooth statues
plaster models
85
Closes correction between chronologic age and the number of permanent teeth, root age and bone age are between
chronologic age and bone age
86
Condition among primary molars that causes its failure to establish its final occlusion level
ankylosis
87
Position of the jaws present during tetanus
lockjaw
88
Position of the mandible that allows maximum intercuspation of the maxillary and mandibular teeth
centric occlusion centric relation
89
Management of an accidental complete avulsion of a primary incisor
giving analgesic no need to reimplant the tooth
90
Growth theory that implicates the role of the nasal int he growth of the maxilla and mandible
Scott's
91
Response of the periodontal ligament to heavy forces may lead to ________
hyalinization
92
Nance leeway space is equivalent to _______
difference between C+D+E and 4+5+3
93
When is the replantation of avulsed teeth generally done?
24 hours after injury
94
Defined as the normal changes among living substance and is measured in units of increase per unit of time
growth
95
Does not affect tooth eruption
physical growth
96
Behavior management where a child is allowed to do home treatment when he throws a temper tantrum in the dental office prior to treatment
negative reinforcement
97
Recommended application time for the gel acidulated phosphate fluoride application
4 minutes
98
Conditions that require orthodontic management of the primary dentition which may affect the permanent dentition if left untreated
anterior crossbites pernicious oral habits over retained primary incisors
99
Incorrect technique of external resorption of the roots of the teeth
replanted avulsion