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MEH > Session 6 > Flashcards

Session 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The spleen consists of which two areas?

A

Red pulp

White pulp

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2
Q

What does the red pulp of the spleen consist of?

A

Sinuses lined by endothelial macrophages and cords

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3
Q

The white pulp of the spleen has a similar structure to…

A

Lymphoid follicles

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4
Q

Blood enters the spleen via which vessel?

A

Splenic artery

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5
Q

What preferentially passes through the white pulp of the spleen?

A

White cells

Plasma

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6
Q

What preferentially passes through the red pulp of the spleen?

A

Red cells

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7
Q

Name 4 functions of the spleen in adults

A

Removal of old/abnormal red cells through phagocytosis by macrophages

Blood pooling

Extramedullary haemopoiesis

Immunological function

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8
Q

Describe the extramedullary haemopoietic function of the spleen

A

In times of haematological stress/bone marrow failure pluripotent stem cells proliferate in the spleen

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9
Q

What cells (as well as macrophages) are present in the spleen that allows it to carry out its immunological function?

A

T cells

B cells

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10
Q

What is splenomegaly?

A

Enlargement of the spleen

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11
Q

It is not normal to palpate the spleen below…

A

The costal margin

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12
Q

What side of the body is the spleen normally on?

A

Left

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13
Q

Where do you begin palpating the spleen in suspected splenomegaly?

A

Right iliac fossa

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14
Q

As you begin palpating the spleen when will you feel the spleen edge move towards your hand?

A

On inspiration

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15
Q

What is the costal margin?

A

The lower edge of the chest formed by the bottom edge of the rib cage

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16
Q

In splenomegaly how is enlargement of the spleen measured?

A

In cm from the costal margin in the mid clavicular line

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17
Q

Give 3 possible causes of splenomegaly

A

Back pressure
Overworking red/white pulp
Extramedullary haemopoiesis
Infiltration by other cells/material

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18
Q

Give an example of cells that can infiltrate the spleen causing splenomegaly

A

Cancer cells - e.g. Leukaemia

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19
Q

Name a disease that can result in infiltration of the spleen by other material (not cells) resulting in splenomegaly

A

Gaucher’s disease

Sarcoidosis

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20
Q

Splenomegaly can be categorised into which types?

A

Massive
Moderate
Mild

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21
Q

Give 3 possible causes of massive splenomegaly

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Myelofibrosis
Chronic malaria

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22
Q

As well as chronic malaria, myelofibrosis and chronic myeloid leukaemia, what are some causes of moderate splenomegaly?

A

Lymphoproliferative disorders

Myeloproliferative disorders

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23
Q

As well as the causes of massive/moderate splenomegaly, what can cause mild splenomegaly?

A

Infections

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24
Q

Give 2 examples of infections that can potentially cause splenomegally

A

Hepatitis

Endocarditis

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25
Q

What is hypersplenism?

A

Overactive spleen

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26
Q

Why may thrombocytopenia and pancytopenia be seen in hypersplenism?

A

There is increased pooling of blood in the enlarged spleen

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27
Q

What risk is there if the spleen is enlarged?

A

Risk of rupture

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28
Q

Why is there risk of rupture of the spleen in splenomegaly?

A

It is no longer protected by the ribcage

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29
Q

A complication of splenomegaly is rupture of the spleen. What can result from this?

A

Haematoma (swelling of clotted blood in a tissue) and infarction

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30
Q

What is a haematoma?

A

A swelling of clotted blood in tissue

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31
Q

Describe the blood pooling function of the spleen

A

Pools blood so that platelets/red cells can be rapidly mobilised during bleeding

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32
Q

What is hyposplenism?

A

Lack of functioning splenic tissue

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33
Q

Name three causes of hyposplenism

A

Splenectomy
Sickle cell disease
Coeliac disease

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34
Q

How does sickle cell disease cause hyposplenism?

A

Through several infarcts and then fibrosis in the spleen

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35
Q

How will a blood film of someone with hyposplenism appear?

A

With Howell Jolly bodies

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36
Q

What are Howell Jolly bodies?

A

RBCs with DNA remnants in them

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37
Q

Patients with hyposplenism are at particular risk of..

A

Overwhelming sepsis from encapsulated organisms

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38
Q

What is cytopenia?

A

Reduction in the number of blood cells

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39
Q

What is leukopenia?
What is neutropenia?
What is thrombocytopenia?
What is pancytopenia?

A

Low WBC count
Low neutrophil count
Low platelet count
Low RBCs, WBCs, platelets

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40
Q

When there is an increase in the number of certain blood cells what ending do the terms take?

A

…cytosis

…philia

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41
Q 
What is erythrocytosis?
What is leucocytosis?
What is neutrophilia?
What is lymphocytosis?
What is thrombocytosis?
A 
High red cell count
High white blood cell count
High neutrophil count
High lymphocyte count 
High platelet count
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42
Q

What is the first responder phagocyte of the innate immune system?

A

Neutrophils

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43
Q

How do neutrophils move towards the site of injury?

A

By chemotaxis

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44
Q

Describe the appearance of neutrophils under the microscope?

A

Various shapes, nucleus in 3-5 segments

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45
Q

Once mature, neutrophils circulate in the blood, invade tissue and live for…

A

1-4 days

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46
Q

What controls neutrophil maturation?

A

Hormone G-CSF

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47
Q

Which hormone controls neutrophil maturation?

A

G-CSF

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48
Q

Name 4 functions of G-CSF with regards to neutrophils

A

Enhances chemotaxis
Increased production of neutrophils
Quicker release of mature cells from marrow
Enhanced phagocytosis

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49
Q

When might recombinant G-CSF be given to a patient?

A

In the case of severe neutropenia (e.g. After chemotherapy)

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50
Q

In the case of severe neutropenia, recombinant G-CSF can be given to patients. Give a possible cause of severe neutropenia?

A

Post-chemotherapy

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51
Q

What is the most common cause of neutrophilia?

Give two other causes

A

Infection

Smoking
Cancer
Steroids

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52
Q

What is the typical value for neutropenia?

What is the typical value for severe neutropenia?

A

Below 1.5x10^9/L

Below 0.5x10^9/L

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53
Q

Neutropenia can be as the result of reduced production or increased removal/use.

Give some examples of factors that reduce the production of neutrophils

A 
B12/folate deficiency 
Infiltration of marrow by malignancy/fibrosis 
Aplastic anaemia 
Radiation 
Drugs - chemotherapy/antibiotics 
Viral infection
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54
Q

Aplastic anaemia is effectively…

A

Empty bone marrow

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55
Q

Neutropenia can result from either reduced reduction or increased use/removal of neutrophils.

Give some examples of factors that can cause the increased removal/use of neutrophils

A

Immune destruction
Sepsis
Splenic pooling

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56
Q

Give three potential consequences of neutropenia

A

Severe life threatening bacterial infection
Severe life threatening fungal infection
Mucosal ulceration

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57
Q

Neutropenia sepsis is a medical emergency requiring…

A

Immediate IV antibiotics

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58
Q

Monocytes act as a response to…

A

Inflammation and antigenic stimuli

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59
Q

When do monocytes become macrophages?

A

Once they migrate to tissues

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60
Q

List 4 potential causes of monocytosis

A

Chronic inflammatory conditions
Carcinoma
Chronic infections
Myeloproliferative disorders

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61
Q

Describe the lifespan of an eosinophil

A

Short lifespan (few days), spend only a few hours in circulation

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62
Q

Name three functions of eosinophils

A

Deal with some parasites
Mediator of allergic response
Mediate hypersensitivity reactions

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63
Q

Eosinophils from the blood migrate to…

A

Epithelial surface

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64
Q

What do the granules in eosinophils contain?

A

Arginine

Phospholipid

Enzymes

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65
Q

Are eosinophils phagocytes?

A

Yes - they can phagocytosis antigen-antibody complexes

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66
Q

List 6 conditions that can result in eosinophilia

A 
Allergic diseases 
Drug hypersensitivity 
Parasitic infection 
Skin diseases 
Hodgkin lymphoma 
Myeloproliferative disorders
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67
Q

Describe the appearance of an eosinophil under the microscope

A

Dark pink cytoplasm with a bilobe nucleus

Sunburned face with glasses

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68
Q

What is the largest WBC and least common type of granulocyte?

A

Basophils

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69
Q

How do basophils appear under a microscope?

A

With large secretory granules that obscure the nucleus - usually have a bilobe nucleus

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70
Q

What are basophils important in? (2)

A

Allergic reactions

Inflammatory conditions

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71
Q

What do the granules in basophils contain?

A

Histamine
Heparin
Hyaluronic acid
Serotonin

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72
Q

Name 4 conditions that can cause basophilia

A

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions
Ulcerative colitis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Myeloproliferative disorders

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73
Q

What are myeloproliferative disorders?

A

Group of conditions that cause blood cells (RBCs + WBCs + Platelets) to grow abnormally in the bone marrow

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74
Q

Where do lymphocytes originate?

A

In the bone marrow

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75
Q

What are three types of lymphocytes?

A

B cells
T cells
Natural killer cells

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76
Q

Name two types of T cells

A

CD4+ helper cells

CD8+ cells

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77
Q

Name 6 potential causes of lymphocytosis

A 
Viral infections 
Bacterial infections 
Stress related
Post splenectomy 
Smoking 
Lymphoproliferative disorders
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78
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Where there is a reduction in white cells, red cells and platelets

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79
Q

Pancytopenia can result from either reduced production or increased removal.

State some possible causes of pancytopenia due to reduced production

A 
B12/folate deficiencies 
Bone marrow infiltration by malignancy 
Marrow fibrosis 
Immune aplastic anaemia 
Radiation
Drugs - e.g. Chemotherapy/Antibiotics
Viruses 
Congenital bone marrow failure
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80
Q

Pancytopenia can result from either reduced production or increased removal.

State some possible causes of pancytopenia due to increased removal

A

Immune destruction
Hypersplenism - splenic pooling
Haemophagocytosis

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81
Q

What is haemophagocytosis? What can it result in?

A

Phagocytosis of the cells in the bone marrow

Pancytopenia

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82
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A

Pancytopenia with a HYPOcellular bone marrow WITHOUT abnormal infiltrate and fibrosis

Effectively, ‘empty’ bone marrow

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83
Q

What effect can malignancy have on blood cell levels?

A

It can cause pancytopenia

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84
Q

The symptoms of pancytopenia will be a combination of the symptoms of… (3)

A

Thrombocytopenia
Anaemia
Neutropenia

85
Q

Describe three symptoms of anaemia

A

Fatigue
Dizziness
Chest pain

86
Q

Describe two symptoms of thrombocytopenia

A

Bruising

Bleeding

87
Q

Describe three symptoms of neutropenia

A

Infection
Ulcers
Fevers

88
Q

As well as the symptoms of thrombocytopenia, anaemia and neutropenia. What other symptoms will be seen in pancytopenia?

A

Treatment of the underlying cause

89
Q

Which cell has the greatest ability of self renewal of all adult tissue?

A

Haematopoietic stem cell

90
Q

Name three sources of haematopoietic stem cells

A

Aspiration of bone marrow
Collection of G-CSF mobilised stem cells in the peripheral blood
Umbilical cord stem cells taken at time of delivery

91
Q

Which antigen is used for matching patients in the case of bone marrow transplants?

A

HLA antigen on WBCs

92
Q

Siblings are how likely to have the same HLA antigens (full match)?

A

25%

93
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

The tendency towards a relatively stable equilibrium between interdependent elements

94
Q

Failure in homeostasis leads to…

A

Disease

95
Q

Name the 4 main characteristics a control system

A

Stimulus
Receptor
Control centre
Effector

96
Q

What is the function of a receptor in a control system? Name 4 different types of receptors

A

Detects stimuli

Chemoreceptors
Thermoreceptors
Proprioceptors
Nociceptors

97
Q

What are proprioceptors?

What are nociceptors?

A

Sensory receptors that respond to position and movement

Sensory receptors that respond to pain

98
Q

Communication between the receptor and the control centre in a control system is via which pathway?

A

Afferent pathway

99
Q

The control centre of a control system determines the ______ __________ for a system.

A

Set point

100
Q

The communication between the control centre and effector of a control system is via which pathway?

A

Efferent pathway

101
Q

What is the function of the effector in a control system?

Give two examples of an effector in a control system

A

Causes change

Sweat glands
Muscle

102
Q

Can the set point of a control centre change?

A

Yes - can vary

103
Q

Does core body temperature rise or fall during sleep?

A

Falls

104
Q

What is a circadian rhythm?

A

Any biological process that displays an endogenous oscillation of ~24 hours

105
Q

Where is the ‘biological clock’ located?

A

In the hypothalamus, in the suprachiasmatic nucleus

106
Q

Which group of neurones in the hypothalamus is the location of the ‘biological clock’?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

107
Q

What are zeitgebers?

Give some examples of zeitgebers

A

Cues from the environment that keep the body on a 24 hour cycle

Light, temperature, social interaction and exercise

108
Q

What causes jet lag?

A

A mismatch between the environmental cues (Zeitgebers) and body clock

109
Q

Which hormone is involved in the setting of the biological clock?

A

Melatonin

110
Q

Which gland is melatonin released from?

A

Pineal gland

111
Q

Name a function of melatonin from the pineal gland

A

Involved in setting the biological clock

112
Q

When are cortisol levels typically at their highest?

When are cortisol levels typically at their lowest?

A

Early morning —> 7am

Evening and early sleep

113
Q

What is the most common form of feedback in a control system?

A

Negative feedback

114
Q

Negative feedback is a response in a way…

Positive feedback is a response in a way…

A

To reverse the direction of change

To change the variable even more in the direction of change

115
Q

Give two examples of positive feedback in the body

A

Blood clotting

Ovulation

116
Q

Roughly how much of a 70kg man is water?

A

42 litres

117
Q

As a % of body mass, how much of the body consists of water in…

I) males
II) females

A

50-60%

45-50%

118
Q

Of the 42 litres of water found in the body how much is Intracellular and how much is extracellular fluids?

A

Intracellular - 2/3 (28 litres)

Extracellular - 1/3 (14 litres)

119
Q

How much of the extracellular fluid (~14 litres in a 70kg man) is interstitial fluid and blood plasma?

A

~11 litres of interstitial fluid

~3 litres of blood plasma

120
Q

How many litres of RBCs are there in a typical 70kg man?

A

2 litres

121
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

Number of osmoles per litre of solution

122
Q

What is osmolality?

A

Number of osmoles per kg of solution

123
Q

What is an osmole?

A

Amount of substance that dissociates in solution to form one mole of osmotically active particles.

124
Q

A one molar solution contains…

A

1 mole of substance in 1 litre

125
Q

What is the typical range for blood osmolality?

A

275 - 295 mOsm/kg

126
Q

Which receptors detect blood osmolality? Where are they located?

A

Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

127
Q

If osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect high blood osmolality. What two responses will be made?

A

Increased thirst

Stimulation of the posterior pituitary gland to secrete more ADH

128
Q

Which gland releases ADH?

A

Posterior pituitary

129
Q

What effect does more ADH being released from the posterior pituitary have on the kidneys, urine produced and blood osmolality?

A

Increased reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts of the kidneys

Small volume of concentrated urine

Reduces blood osmolality

130
Q

If osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect a low blood osmolality what response will be made?

A

Posterior pituitary gland secreting less ADH

131
Q

What effect does less ADH being released from the posterior pituitary gland have on the kidneys, urine production and blood osmolality?

A

Decreased reabsorption of water in collecting ducts of the kidneys

Large volume of dilute urine produced

Increased blood osmolality

132
Q

Plasma glucose concentration should typically be ~__ mM

A

5

133
Q

Which hormone is released after eating of a meal? Where is this hormone released from? What causes this hormone to be released?

A

Insulin

Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas

Increase in plasma glucose level

134
Q

Name two effects that insulin has in the fed state

A

Stimulates glycogenesis in the liver

Stimulates glucose uptake into tissues

135
Q

Glucose uptake into tissues (e.g. As a result of insulin) is via which transporter?

A

GLUT4

136
Q

Which hormone is released in the fasted state? What causes this hormone to be released? Where is this hormone produced?

A

Glucagon

Low plasma glucose concentration

Alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas

137
Q

What effect does glucagon have in the fasted state?

A

Stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver

138
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

Collection of GLANDS located throughout the body

139
Q

What is the name of the chemical signals produced in endocrine glands? How do they work?

A

Hormones

Travel in the bloodstream and have their effect on distant tissues

140
Q

Are hormones produced in tissues other than the endocrine glands?

A

Yes - other organs/tissues can release hormones

141
Q

Give an example of tissues/organs other than endocrine glands that release hormones (3)

A

Heart (ANP & BNP)
Adipose (Leptin)
Liver (IGF1)

142
Q

Name 4 mechanisms of communication via Hormones

A

Autocrine
Paracrine
Endocrine
Neurocrine

143
Q

How does autocrine communication via hormones work?

A

Hormone signal acts back on the cell of origin

144
Q

How does paracrine communication via hormones work?

A

Hormone signal carried to adjacent cells over a short distance via interstitial fluid

145
Q

How does endocrine communication via hormones work?

A

Hormone signal released into the bloodstream and carried to distant target cells

146
Q

How does neurocrine communication via hormones work?

A

Hormone originates in neurone and after transport down an axon released into the blood stream and to distant target cells

147
Q

What two features do both neurones and endocrine cells have in common?

A

Both can be depolarised/can secrete

148
Q

Hormones can be classified into which 4 groups?

A

Peptide/Polypeptide
Glycoproteins
Amino Acid Derivatives (Amines)
Steroids

149
Q

Are peptide/polypeptide hormones, water soluble or lipid soluble?

A

Water soluble

150
Q

Give three examples of peptide/polypeptide hormones

A

Insulin
Glucagon
Growth hormone

151
Q

Which is the largest group of hormones?

A

Peptide/polypeptide hormones

152
Q

What are amino acid derivative (amine) hormones synthesised from?

A

Aromatic amino acids

153
Q

Give two examples of aromatic amino acids

A

Tyrosine

Tryptophan

154
Q

Give three examples of amino acid derivative/amine hormones

State which aromatic amino acid each hormone is derived from

A

Adrenaline (tyrosine)
Noradrenaline (tyrosine)
Thyroid hormones (tyrosine)
Melatonin (tryptophan)

155
Q

Describe the solubility of amino acid derived (amine) hormones

A

Adrenal medulla hormones - water soluble

Thyroid hormones - lipid soluble

156
Q

Describe the structure of glycoprotein hormones

A

Large protein molecules with a carbohydrate side chain

157
Q

Give three examples of glycoprotein hormones

A

Luteinizing hormone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Thyroid stimulating hormone

158
Q

Describe the solubility of glycoprotein hormones

A

All water soluble

159
Q

All steroid hormones are derived from…

A

Cholesterol

160
Q

Name three examples of steroid hormones

A

Cortisol
Aldosterone
Testosterone

161
Q

Describe the solubility of steroid hormones

A

Lipid soluble

162
Q

How do most hormones travel in the blood?

Otherwise, how do they travel?

A

Most travel in the blood bound to proteins

Some can travel freely

163
Q

Give examples of hormones that can travel freely in the blood

A

Peptides/Adrenaline

164
Q

A dynamic equilibrium exists between bound and free forms of hormone in plasma, which form is biologically active?

A

The free form

165
Q

Give three functions of carrier proteins

A

Increase solubility of the hormone
Increases half-life of the hormone
Acts as a readily accessible reserve

166
Q

List three factors determining hormone levels in the blood

A

Rate of production
Rate of delivery
Rate of degradation

167
Q

Hormones circulate in the blood at which sorts of concentrations?

A

Very low concentrations

168
Q

Water soluble hormones bind to receptors on which part of the cell?

A

Cell surface receptors

169
Q

Name two types of receptors that water soluble hormones might bind to

A

GPCRs

Tyrosine kinase

170
Q

What type of receptor does adrenaline bind to?

A

GPCR

171
Q

What type of receptor does insulin bind to?

A

Tyrosine kinase

172
Q

What typically happens to tyrosine kinase on binding of a hormone to a receptor?

A

Dimerisation
Autophosphorylation of specific tyrosines Recruitment of adapter proteins and signalling complex
Activation of protein kinases

173
Q

How does insulin binding to a tyrosine kinase have a different effect than normal binding of hormones to tyrosine kinase receptors?

A

An insulin, tyrosine kinase receptor is already dimerised

174
Q

Lipid soluble hormones bind to receptors on which parts of a cell?

A

Intracellular receptors

175
Q

How do lipid soluble hormones pass the plasma membrane to bind to Intracellular receptors?

A

They diffuse across the plasma membrane

176
Q

Lipid soluble hormones can be described as either type I or type II.

How does a type I lipid soluble receptor work?

A

Binds to a cytoplasmic receptor and the receptor-hormone complex enters the nucleus and binds to DNA

177
Q

Lipid soluble molecules can be described as either type I or type II.

How do type II lipid soluble hormones work?

Give an example of a type II lipid soluble hormone

A

Enter the nucleus and bind to a receptor that is already bound to DNA

Thyroid hormone

178
Q

Binding of a type II lipid soluble hormone to a receptor pre bound to DNA has what effect?

A

Relieves repression of gene transcription

179
Q

What is a HRE?

A

Hormone response element

Specific DNA sequence in the promoter region of specific genes that receptors for lipid soluble hormones bind to

180
Q

Obesity results from a chronic imbalance between…

A

Energy intake and energy expenditure

181
Q

Obesity is described as a BMI above…

A

30 kg/m^2

182
Q

What is the control centre for appetite? Where is it located?

A

Satiety centre

Hypothalamus (arcuate nucleus)

183
Q

Which specific part of the hypothalamus plays a central role in controlling appetite?

A

The accurate nucleus

184
Q

Most signals in the arcuate nucleus are processed by which neurones?

A

Primary neurones

185
Q

What are the two types of primary neurones in the arcuate nucleus?

A

Stimulatory neurones

Inhibitory neurones

186
Q

What do stimulatory neurones in the arcuate nucleus contain that’s involved in the control of appetite?

A 
Neuropeptide Y (NPY) 
Agouti-related peptide (AgRP)
187
Q

What effect do neuropeptide Y and agouti-related peptide have in the control of appetite?

A

Promote hunger

188
Q

What do inhibitory neurones in the accurate nucleus contain that’s involved in the control of appetite?

A

POMC which yields a-MSH and B-endorphin

189
Q

POMC in the inhibitory neurone of the accurate nucleus can yield neurotransmitters including a-MSH and B-endorphin. What do these neurotransmitters promote?

A

Satiety (fed-feeling)

190
Q

How do primary neurones work with secondary neurones in the control of appetite?

A

Primary neurones synapse with secondary neurones in other parts of the hypothalamus and the signals integrated to alter feeding behaviour

191
Q

Name two hormones that carry signals from the gut to the hypothalamus

A

Ghrelin

PYY

192
Q

Which type of hormone in Ghrelin? Where is it released?

A

Peptide hormone

From the stomach wall when empty

193
Q

What effect does ghrelin have on the hypothalamus?

A

Stimulates the excitatory primary neurones in the arcuate nucleus stimulating appetite

194
Q

What effect does filling of the stomach wall have on ghrelin release?

A

Inhibits ghrelin release

195
Q

What type of hormone is PYY? Where is it produced?

A

Short peptide hormone

Cells in the ileum and colon

196
Q

PYY is released from cells of the ileum/colon in response to…

A

Feeding

197
Q

What effect does PYY have on the hypothalamus and the control of appetite?

A

Inhibits excitatory primary neurones
Stimulates inhibitory primary neurones

Suppresses appetite

198
Q

In what circumstances/people might there be a blunted PYY response?

A

Following food intake in obese humans

199
Q

Describe three hormones that carry signals from the body to the hypothalamus

A

Leptin
Insulin
Amylin

200
Q

What type of hormone is leptin? Which cells release it?

A

Peptide hormone

Adipocytes

201
Q

What two effects does leptin have in the arcuate nucleus? What is the overall effect of leptin?

A

Stimulates inhibitory neurones
Inhibits excitatory neurones

Suppress appetite

202
Q

In extremely rare cases, individuals may have loss of function of the leptin gene. How is this treated?

A

Leptin injections

203
Q

Why can leptin injections not be given to patients with common obesity?

A

Has little effect due to lepton resistance

204
Q

What role does insulin have on the control of appetite?

A

Suppresses appetite by similar mechanism to Leptin

205
Q

What type of hormone is amylin? Where is it released?

A

Peptide hormone

B cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas

206
Q

What is the overall effect of amylin in the control of appetite?

A

Suppresses appetite

207
Q

Amylin analogues can be used in the treatment of…

Give an example of an amylin analogue

A

Type 2 diabetes

Pramlintide

208
Q

a-MSH from POMC released from primary inhibitory neurones in the arcuate nucleus acts on which receptors at the synapse with secondary neurones?

A

MC4 receptors

MEH (9 decks)

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