Session 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the number and categories of bones in the vertebral column

A
33 vertebra - 24 separate vertebra and 9 fused vertebra
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
4 coccygeal
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2
Q

Outline the basic structure of vertebrae

A

A vertebral body situated anteriorly. A vertebral arch situated Posteriorly. A vertebral foramen that lines up to form th vertebral canal for spinal cord and meninges.

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3
Q

What is the structure and function of the vertebral body?

A

This is the weight bearing component and its size increases as the vertebral column descends. The superior and inferior aspects are lined with hyaline cartilage.

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4
Q

Describe the bony prominences of the vertebral arch

A

Spinous process - posterior and inferior projection of bone, a site of attachment for muscles and ligaments
Transverse processes - extend laterally and posteriorly away from the junction of the pedicle and lamina
Articular processes - 2 inferior and 2 superior, arise from the junction between the pedicle and lamina, each bearing an articular facet
Lamina - connects transverse process to spinous process
Pedicle - connects transverse process to the vertebral body (lamina + pedicle = vertebral arch)

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4
Q

What structure do spinal nerves emerge from?

A

Intervertebral foramina, formed by the superior and inferior intervertebral notch

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5
Q

Outline the structure and function of intervertebral discs

A

Fibrocartilage cylinder that joins vertebrae. They act as a shock absorber and permit flexibility of the spine. They are wedge shaped in the lumbar and thoracic regions to support the curvature of the spine. There are two regions:
Annulus fibrosus - tough and collagenous, surrounds nucleus pulposus
Nucleus pulposus - jelly like, located Posteriorly in adults

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6
Q

What is a herniated intervertebral disc?

A

The nucleus pulposus ruptures, breaking through the annulus fibrosus. Most commonly occurs in posterolaterally, causing compression of the spinal nerves

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7
Q

What are the distinguishing features of cervical vertebrae?

A

There is a bifid spinous process (except C7), longer spinous process).
There are two transverse foramina, one on each transverse process. They conduct the vertebral artery and vein (except C7, which transmits small accessory veins).
Large triangular foramen.
Superior articular facet faces upwards and backwards. Inferior articular facet faces downwards and forward.
Rectangular body

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8
Q

Outline the structure and function of the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) vertebrae

A

Atlas articulates with occipital bone of skull superiorly (flexion/extension) and atlas inferiorly (lateral rotation). It has no vertebral body. The axis is characterised by the dens, rugged lateral mass and large spinous process. The dens is held into its articular facet by the transverse ligament.

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9
Q

How can the atlas and axis become fractured?

A

Atlas - Jeffersons fracture resulting from axial load. Fracture of the anterior and posterior arches of atlas
Axis - hangmans fracture resulting from hyperextension. Axis fractures through pedicles.
- peg fracture resulting from blow to Bach of head

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10
Q

What are the distinguishing features of thoracic vertebrae?

A

Each vertebrae has two Demi facets on each side of the vertebral body for articulation with their respective rib and the rib inferior to it.
There is a costal facet on the transverse processes for the tubercule of the rib (except T11-12)
The spinous processes are slanted inferiorly for increased protection
Circular vertebral foramen
Articular facets directed primarily anteriorly (inferior) and posteriorly (superior).

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11
Q

What are the distinguishing features of lumbar vertebrae?

A

Large kidney shaped vertebral body
Short, broad and blunt spinous process
Triangular shaped vertebral foramen
Articular processes face medially (superior) and laterally (inferior) to permit flexion

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12
Q

Describe the structure of the sacrum and coccyx

A

Sacrum is a collection of 5 fused vertebrae. There are facets of the lateral walls for articulation with the ilium.
The coccyx has no vertebral arches, hence no vertebral canal so it does not transmit the spinal cord.

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13
Q

Name the different clinical syndromes resulting from an abnormal curvature of the spine

A

Kyphosis - excessive thoracic curvature (hunchback). Wedge shaped vertebra
Lordosis - excessive lumbar curvature (swayback)
Scoliosis - lateral curvature of the spine. Idiopathic
Kyphoscoliosis - kyphosis and scoliosis combined. Caused by asymmetric weakening of paraspinal muscles

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14
Q

Outline the development of the spinal curvatures from foetus to young adult

A

Two lordosis (lumbar and cervical) develop from the primary curvature - single kyphosis - to form the secondary curvature. Thoracic and sacrococcygeal kyphosis remain.

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15
Q

What ligaments strengthen the vertebral body cartilaginous joints?

A

Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments. They prevent hyperextension and hyperflexion respectively. The anterior ligament is stronger.

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16
Q

What ligaments strengthen the vertebral facet joints?

A

Ligamentum flavum from Lamina to lamina.
Interspinous ligaments unite adjacent spinous processes. Stability in flexion.
Supraspinous ligaments between the tips of adjacent spinous processes. Stability in flexion.
Ligamentum nuchae attached to external occipital protuberance and spinous processes of cervical vertebrae. It maintains the secondary curvature of cervical spine and provides attachment for muscles.

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17
Q

Where is a needle inserted for w lumbar puncture and why?

A

L3/L4 or L4/L5 - after the conus medullaris, least chance of neurological damage, only spinal nerve roots not cord.

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18
Q

What is cervical spondylosis?

A

Degenerative osteoarthritis of intervertebral joints in cervical spine. Can put pressure on nerve roots (radiculopathy) or cord (myelopathy).

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19
Q

Where are lumbar nerve roots most vulnerable and why?

A

Just above their exit foramina as they are the most ventral and lateral root in the vertebral canal (immediately in the path of a lateral disc herniation). Eg a lateral herniation of the L4/5 disc damages the L5 root.

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20
Q

What is the composition of the hip bone?

A

Made up of the ilium, ischium and pubis that are separated by the triradiate cartilage up to the age 15-17, when they fuse.

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21
Q

Outline the structure and bony landmarks of the ilium.

A

The ilium expands to form the wing above the acetabulum. The inner surface of the wing is concave and is known as the iliac fossa. The external surface is convex and is known as the gluteal fossa.
The thickened superior surface of the wing is called the iliac crest. It extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the posterior superior iliac spine.
There is also a posterior inferior iliac spine, anterior inferior iliac spine and a greater sciatic notch on the ilium.

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22
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the anterior superior iliac spine?

A

Important bony landmark where the inguinal ligament originates, before joining the pubic tubercule. The femoral artery can be palpated midway along the ligament, with the femoral vein lying medially.
True leg length =ASIS to medial malleolus
Apparent leg length = umbilicus to medial malleolus

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23
Q

Where is the pubis and what are its bony landmarks?

A

The most anterior portion of the hip bone.
It consists of a body (located medially articulating at the pubic symphysis, where the pubic tubercule is found), superior rami (extends laterally from the body, forming part of the acetabulum) and inferior rami (joins the ischium). The superior and inferior rami enclose part of the obturator foramen, where the obturator nerve, vein and artery pass through.

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24
Q

Where is the ischium and what are its bony landmarks?

A

The posterioinferior part of the hip bone.
It consists of a body (where the ischial tuberosity is found, what you sit on), superior ischial ramus and inferior ischial ramus. The inferior ischial and pubic rami combine to form the ischiopubic ramus.
On the posterior aspect there is the lesser sciatic notch with the ischial spine at its most superior edge.

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25
Q

What ligaments form the greater and lesser sciatic foramen?

A

Sacrospinous ligament runs from the ischial spine to the sacrum, dividing the two foramen.
Sacrotuberous ligament runs from the sacrum to the ischial tuberosity, forming the inferior part of the lesser sciatic foramen.

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26
Q

How can the pelvic bones become fractured, where do the fractures occur and what are possible complications?

A

Direct trauma or force transmitted from lower limb (eg heavy fall on feet).
Fractures occur at the weaker points eg Pubic rami, acetabulum or in the region of the sacroiliac joint.
Complication could be soft tissue injury eg bladder or urethra

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27
Q

Outline the bony landmarks of the proximal femur

A

Head - smooth surface with depression on the medial side for attachment with the ligament of the head.
Neck
Greater trochanter - found on the anterior and posterior sides of the femur, lateral to where the neck joins.
Lesser trochanter - smaller and projects from the posteromedial side of the femur, just inferior to the neck shaft junction.
Intertrochanteric line - a ridge running in an inferomedial direction on the anterior surface of the femur, connecting the two trochanters. The iliofemoral ligament attaches here.
Intertrochanteric crest - on the posterior surface. The quadrate tubercule (for quadratus femoris) is found on this crest.

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28
Q

What are the two main proximal femur fractures and how do they present?

A

Intracapsular fracture - common in elderly women resulting from a trip. Can damage the femoral circumflex artery, causing avascular necrosis of the femoral head. The distal fragment is pulled upwards and laterally rotated - shorter leg length with toes pointing laterally.
Extracapsular fracture - more common in young and middle aged people. The blood supply is intact. Leg is shortened and laterally rotated.

29
Q

Outline the bony landmarks of the shaft of the femur

A

Linea aspera (rough line) - roughened ridges of bone of the posterior side.
Proximally the medial border of the Linea aspera becomes the pectineal line (pectineus) and the lateral border becomes the gluteal tuberosity (gluteus maximus).
Distally the Linea aspera widens to form the floor of the popliteal fossa. The medial and lateral borders become the medial and lateral supracondylar lines. The medial supracondylar line stops at the adductor tubercule.

30
Q

How can a fractured shaft of femur occur and how does it present?

A

Usually traumatic injury - a lot of force is needed.
A spiral fracture can present with leg shortening
Femoral nerve and artery could be damaged.

31
Q

Outline the bone landmarks of the distal end of the femur

A

Medial and lateral condyles - the posterior and inferior surfaces articulate with the tibia and the anterior part articulates with the patella
Medial and lateral epicondyles - bony elevations on the non articulating area of the condyles. Attachments for collateral ligaments.
Intercondylar fossa - on the posterior surface. It contains two facets for the cruciates.

32
Q

Outline the structure and bony landmarks of the patella

A

Triangular shape with the apex inferiorly, connected to the tibial tuberosity by the patella ligament. The base forms the attachment for the quadriceps tendon.
The posterior surface has a medial and lateral (slightly larger) facet that articulates with the condyles of the femur.

33
Q

What are the functions of the patella?

A

Leg extension - enhancing the leverage of the quadriceps tendon on the femur.
Protection of the knee from trauma.

34
Q

What is the common cause and presentation of a patellar dislocation?

A

Caused by a high force impact on the patella or a sudden twisting of the knee. The patella is displaced out of the patellofemoral groove, mostly laterally.

35
Q

What is the common cause and presentation of a patella fracture?

A

Caused by direct trauma to the bone or sudden contraction of the quadriceps muscle. More common in middle aged men. The proximal and distal fragments usually separate.

36
Q

Outline the bony landmarks of the proximal tibia

A

The tibia is widened by the proximal and medial condyles that form the tibial plateau that articulates with the femoral condyles.
The Intercondylar eminence between the condyles consists of two tubercules and a roughened area. They are the main site of attachment for the menisci and cruciates of the knee. The tibia Intercondylar tubercules fit into the Intercondylar fossa of the femur.
The tibial tuberosity is found on the anterior side for the patella ligament.

37
Q

Outline the bony landmarks of the shaft of the tibia

A
Anterior, medial and interosseous borders. Medial, lateral and posterior surfaces.
Anterior border (shin) - starts at tibial tuberosity. The periosteal covering is susceptible to damage.
Posterior surface - marked by the soleal line (soleus) that runs inferomedially before blending with the medial border.
Interosseous border - gives rise of interosseous membrane
38
Q

Outline the bony landmarks of the distal tibia

A

It widens to help with weight bearing.
Medial malleolus - inferior bony projection on the medial side. Articulates with the tarsals to form part of the ankle joint.
There is a groove for the tibialis posterior tendon on the posterior side.
The fibula notch is lateral.

39
Q

What is the common cause and presentation of a tibial fracture?

A

Most common in the middle aged and elderly. May be minimal displacement is fibula is intact.
Proximal end most commonly fractures, resulting from trauma. Condyles and ligaments may be damaged.
The medial malleolus can be fractured caused by overinversion - the Tallus is forced against the medial malleolus, causing a spiral fracture.

40
Q

Where is the fibula found and what is its function?

A

Found laterally to the tibia - doesn’t articulate with the femur.
Is not weight bearing, but provides attachments for muscles.

41
Q

Outline the bony landmarks of the fibula

A

Proximal end - enlarged head with a facet for articulation on the lateral condyle of the tibia. The common fibula nerve is found on the posterior and lateral surface of the neck.
Shaft - anterior, lateral and posterior surfaces, each facing the respective compartment of the leg.
Distal end - lateral surface continues inferiorly to form the lateral malleolus.

42
Q

How can the lateral malleolus of the fibula become fractured?

A

Forced external rotation of the ankle, forcing the talus against the bone resulting in a spiral fracture.
Overeversion (less common), causing a transverse fracture.

43
Q

Name the tarsals and describe their relative locations

A

Proximal group - talus (superior) and calcaneus (inferior).
Intermediate group - navicular
Distal group - cuboid (most lateral) and lateral, intermediate and medial cuneiforms.

44
Q

Outline the articulations of the tarsal bones

A

Talus - tibia & fibula superiorly, calcaneus inferiorly and navicular anteriorly
Calcaneus - cuboid anteriorly
Navicular - cuboid laterally and cuneiforms anteriorly
Cuboid - 4th & 5th metatarsals and lateral cuneiform
Cuneiforms - 1st, 2nd & 3rd metatarsals

45
Q

How is the talus commonly fractured and how does it present?

A

Neck fractures are caused by excessive dorsiflexion of the foot. The neck of the talus is pushed against the tibia. Avascular necrosis may result.
Body fractures usually occur after jumping from a height.
The malleoli of the leg bones act to hold the fragments together, so there is little displacement.

46
Q

How is the calcaneus commonly fractured and how does it present?

A

A crush injury eg falling on the heel from a height. The talus is driven into the calcaneus and a comminuted fracture can result (several pieces). The calcaneus appears shorter and wider upon x Ray.
The subtalar joint (between talus and calcaneus) is usually disrupted and can become arthritic. Pain upon inversion and eversion.

47
Q

How may metatarsal fractures occur?

A

By direct blow to the foot (eg dropping heavy object)
A stress fracture - repeated stress to the bone. Most common in athletes in the middle 3 metatarsals
Excessive inversion of the foot causing the fibularis brevis muscle to avulse the base of metacarpal V.

48
Q

How can femoral nerve damage be investigated?

A

Testing the quadriceps femoris - lie patient supine with knee slightly flexed. Muscles should be visible when extended against resistance.

49
Q

Describe the arrangement of the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh

A

Adductor Magnus is posterior. Adductor longus partially covers the adductor brevis and Magnus. Gracilis is most superficial and medial. Obturator externus is most superior.

50
Q

Why is the adductor brevis a useful anatomical landmark?

A

It lies between the anterior and posterior branches of the obturator nerve.

51
Q

What is a “groin strain” and how is it treated?

A

Strain of the adductor muscles - the proximal parts tear near their attachments in the pelvis. Treated by RICE.

52
Q

Where is a significant hiatus present in the fascia lata and what is it used for?

A

Saphenous opening, just inferior to the inguinal ligament. An entry point for lymphatics and the great saphenous vein, draining into the inguinal lymph nodes and femoral vein respectively.

53
Q

What is the iliotibial tract and what are its functions?

A

A longitudinal thickening of the fascia lata, located laterally in the thigh. It extends from the iliac tubercule to the lateral tibial condyle.
It acts as an extensor, abductor and lateral rotator of the hip and is a stabiliser of the knee joint.
It contributes to the lateral intermuscular septum, joining to the femur.
It forms q sheath around the tensor fascia lata muscle.

54
Q

What can a fascia lata graft be used for and why?

A

Wounds that need post operative grafts, heart valve replacements, eyelid reparations, dura mater repair and urinary incontinence repair. It can be surgically harvested while leaving the majority of fibres intact and is well vascularised upon transplantation.

55
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Superior - inguinal ligament
Lateral - medial border of the sartorius muscle
Medial - MEDIAL border of the adductor longus muscle
Roof - fascia lata
Base - pectineus, Iliopsoas and adductor longus muscles

56
Q

What are the contents of the femoral triangle, lateral to medial?

A

Femoral nerve
Femoral artery
Femoral vein - the great saphenous vein drains into the femoral vein within the triangle
Femoral canal - containing deep lymph nodes and vessels
(NAVY - Y is Y-fronts)

57
Q

What structures are found within the femoral sheath?

A

The femoral artery, vein and canal.

58
Q

What is a coronary angiography?

A

The femoral artery is catheterised with a long thin tube within the femoral triangle, where artery is superficial. The tube is navigated through the external & common iliac arteries and aorta to the coronary arteries. A radioactive dye is then ejected and any blockages/thickening is seen on x Ray.

59
Q

What are the borders and opening of the femoral canal?

A

Medial - lacunar ligament
Lateral - femoral vein
Anterior - inguinal ligament
Posterior - pectineus muscle and superior rami of pubis
Opening at the superior border - femoral ring. This is enclosed by a connective tissue layer called the femoral septum, that is pierced by lymphatic vessels exiting the canal.

60
Q

What are the contents of the femoral canal?

A

Lymphatic vessels draining to the inguinal lymph nodes
Deep lacunar lymph node
Empty space to allow distension of the femoral vein
Loose connective tissue

61
Q

What is a femoral hernia and how does it present?

A

Part of the small intestine protrudes through the femoral ring. Presents as a lump inferolaterally to the pubic tubercule. The borders of the canal are tough and could lead to a strangulated hernia - interrupted blood supply.

62
Q

Describe the anatomical course and main branches of the femoral artery

A

Arises from the external iliac artery under the inguinal ligament. It gives off the profunda femoris artery in the femoral triangle, which travels Posteriorly and distally, giving off :
~perforating branches - 3 or 4 arteries that perforate the adductor Magnus, contributing to the supply to some muscles in the medial and posterior thigh.
~lateral femoral circumflex artery - wraps around the anterior, lateral side of the femur, supplying some muscles in the lateral side of the thigh
~medial femoral circumflex artery - wraps around the posterior side of the femur, supplying the head and neck. Can be damaged in a fracture of the femoral neck.
Exits the femoral triangle and continues down the adductor canal. Exits the adductor canal via the adductor hiatus, entering the posterior compartment of the thigh, proximal to the knee. It then becomes the popliteal artery.

63
Q

Describe the anatomical course and main branches of the obturator artery

A

Arises from the internal iliac artery in the pelvic region. It descends into the medial thigh via the obturator canal before bifurcating into:
~anterior branch - supplies the pectineus, obturator externus, adductor muscles and Gracilis
~posterior branch - supplies some of the deep gluteal muscles

64
Q

Describe the anatomical course of the gluteal arteries

A

They arise from the internal iliac artery and enter the gluteal region through the greater sciatic foramen. The superior gluteal artery leaves the foramen above the piriformis muscle and the inferior gluteal artery leaves below. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the posterior thigh.

65
Q

Describe the anatomical course of the great saphenous vein

A

Formed by the dorsal venous arch of the foot and the dorsal vein of the big toe. It ascends up the medial side of the leg, passing anteriorly to the medial malleolus at the ankle, and posteriorly to the medial condyle at the knee. It terminates by draining into the femoral vein immediately inferior to the inguinal ligament.

66
Q

Describe the anatomical course of the small saphenous vein

A

Formed by the dorsal venous arch of the foot and dorsal vein of the little toe. It moves up the posterior side of the leg, passing posteriorly to the lateral malleolus, along the lateral border of the calcaneal tendon. It moves between the two heads of the gastrocnemius and empties into the popliteal vein in the popliteal fossa.

67
Q

What are varicose veins, what are their complications and how can they be treated?

A

The valves of the veins become incompetent, blood flows back into the superficial veins from the deep veins. The veins become dilated and torturous.
With chronic varicose veins the pressure in the venous system rises. This damages cells, causing blood to extrude into the skin. Further complication includes brown pigmentation and ulceration.
They are treated by surgical removement of the saphenous system or reconstruction or tying off of the valves.

68
Q

Where are the to main groups of lymph nodes in the lower limb?

A

Inguinal nodes in the femoral triangle (deep and superficial) and popliteal lymph nodes in the popliteal fossa.

69
Q

What is a lymphadenopathy?

A

An abnormality in size, number or consistency of any lymphatic nodes in the body, usually in response to infection, malignancy or an autoimmune condition.