Session 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the neurocranium?

A
  • The portion of the skull that completely covers the brain
  • 8 bones
  • Consists of calvaria, cranial floor, cranial cavity
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2
Q

What is the viscerocranium?

A
  • Facial skeleton and jaw
  • 14 bones
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3
Q

What type of ossification forms the neurocranium?

A
  • Vault bones (skull cap) form by intramembranous ossification
  • Cranial floor forms by endochondral ossification
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4
Q

What type of ossification forms the viscerocranium?

A
  • Endochondral ossification
  • Structures develop from the pharyngeal arches (1&2)
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5
Q

What are the names given to important osteological features of the bones of the skull?

A
  • Fossae - shallow depressions or hollows
  • Canals - bony tunnels
  • Foramina - round(ish) holes
  • Fissures - narrow slits
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6
Q

Why does the cranial floor contain many foramina, fissures and canals?

A
  • To allow cranial nerves and blood vessels to enter and exit the neurocranium
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7
Q

What is a suture?

A
  • Tough fibrous joint between the bones of the skull
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8
Q

What feature of the calvaria makes it strong?

A
  • 2 layers of compact bone separated by a layer of spongey bone (diploe)
  • Trilaminar arrangement
  • Strength but lightweight
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9
Q

Which bones make up the calvaria?

A
  • Frontal bone - forms part of roof of orbit
  • Parietal bones - a pair
  • Sphenoid bone - only greater wing can be seen from outside of skull
  • Temporal bone - mastoid process
  • Occipital bone - condyles articulate with C1 vertebra
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10
Q

What is a metopic suture?

A
  • When fusion of the frontal bones fails
  • Leaves a suture
  • Don’t interpret as a fracture
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11
Q

What are the joints of the calvaria?

A
  • Coronal suture between frontal bone and parietal bone
  • Sagittal suture between paired parietal bones
  • Lambdoid suture between parietal bones and occipital bone
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12
Q

What is the bregma?

A
  • The intersection between the coronal suture and the sagittal suture
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13
Q

What is the lambda?

A
  • The intersection between the sagittal suture and the lambdoid suture
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14
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the bregma and lambda?

A
  • Relate to areas in foetal skull that remain membranous for up to 2 years
  • Sutures aren’t fully ossified, allowing bones to grow as brain develops
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15
Q

What are fontanelles?

A
  • Large unossified membranous gaps between flat bones of calvaria
  • Allow for alteration of skull size and shape during childbirth
  • Allows brain to grow
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16
Q

Why is the anterior fontanelle clinically useful when examining newborns and infants?

A
  • Inspection and gentle palpation of anterior fontanelle
  • Used to assess intracranial pressure
  • Fontanelle bulges when pressure is high
  • Used to assess state of hydration
  • Fontanelle is sunken when dehydrated
  • Must also assess how well/unwell infant appears and other sings/symptoms
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17
Q

What ‘shrink-wraps’ each individual skull bone?

A
  • Periosteum
  • Covers surfaces of outer and inner table of skull bones
  • Strongly adhered to bone edges at suture line
  • Continuous through suture and onto inner table of same bone
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18
Q

Why is the periosteum clinically important in haemorrhages?

A
  • Specific shape of haemorrhage indicates blood vessel and type of haemorrhage
  • Periosteum is really strongly adhered at sutures but blood can strip it away from inner table of bone at all other points
  • This means that extra-dural haemorrhages have a lentiform shape
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19
Q

What forms the cranial floor?

A
  • 3 bowl- shaped depressions
  • Anterior, middle and posterior cranial fossae
  • Seat different parts of brain and associated structures
  • Made up of numerous bones
  • Numerous foramina, canals and fissures
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20
Q

Which bones form the anterior cranial floor?

A
  • Frontal bone
  • Ethmoid bone
  • Sphenoid bone
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21
Q

Outline the features of the ethmoid bone

A
  • Superiorly has a sharp pointy bony prominence called crista galli
  • Cribriform plate is flat and rectangular
  • Contains many cribriform foramina through which olfactory nerves pass
  • Perpendicular plate helps form part of nasal septum inferiorly
  • Contains air filled cavities called paranasal air sinuses
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22
Q

Outline the features of the sphenoid bone

A
  • Lesser wings form posterior part of anterior cranial fossa
  • Greater wings form part of vault and middle cranial fossa
  • Sella turcica
  • Pituitary fossa, where pituitary gland sits, found in centre of sella turcica
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23
Q

Outline the features of the temporal bone

A
  • Squamous part - extensive round part
  • Zygomatic process helps to form shape of cheek
  • Mastoid process acts as attachment for sternocleidomastoid
  • Very superior edge of petrous bone forms boundary between middle cranial fossa and posterior cranial fossa
24
Q

What are the holes in the sphenoid bone?

A
  • Superior orbital fissure - transmits lots of different nerves, communicates with orbit
  • Optic canal - transmits optic nerve
  • Foramen rotundum - transmits maxillary division of trigeminal nerve (Vb)
  • Foramen ovale - transmits mandibular division of trigeminal nerve (Vc)
  • Foramen lacerum - filled with cartilage
  • Foramen spinosum - transmits middle meningeal artery
  • Carotid canal - transmits internal carotid artery
25
Q

Why is the foramen lacerum not a true foramen?

A
  • Arises due to a small gap between petrous part of temporal bone and sphenoid
  • Filled with cartilage and nothing of significance passes through it
  • Internal carotid artery passes over the top
26
Q

Why is the petrous part of the temporal bone so important?

A
  • Houses delicate middle and inner ear structures
27
Q

Outline the features of the occipital bone

A
  • External occipital protuberance can be palpated
  • Superior nuchal line - attachment for trapezius
  • Foramen magnum - brainstem passes through this
28
Q

What is required to fracture the skull?

A
  • Significant trauma and force
  • Resistance to fracture varies depending on thickness of cranial bones
  • Fractures carry risk of injury to intracranial structures
29
Q

What are the different types of intracranial fracture?

A
  • Linear - fairly straight, involves no bone displacement
  • Comminuted (multiple fracture lines) - fragments may or may not displace inwards towards the brain
30
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the pterion?

A
  • Pterion is intersection between frontal, parietal, sphenoid and temporal bones
  • Very thin, so very easily fractured
  • Middle meningeal artery lies directly beneath
  • Blows to lateral side of head can fracture bone in this area and injure artery lying immediately below
  • This causes an extra-dural haemorrhage
31
Q

What happens if the ethmoid bone is fractured?

A
  • Clear fluid may drip through nose
  • This is CSF
32
Q

What is the specific sign of fractures of the orbital plates?

A
  • Periorbital ecchymosis (panda/racoon eyes)
  • May take hours-days to develop
33
Q

What are the specific signs of a middle cranial fossa fracture of the petrous bone?

A
  • blood and CSF coming out of ear
  • Battle’s sign (mastoid ecchymosis)
  • blood pooling in middle ear cavity
34
Q

Which bones make up the facial skeleton?

A
  • Zygomatic x2
  • Maxilla
  • Nasal
  • Lacrimal
  • Mandible
35
Q

Which facial bones are most commonly fractured?

A
  • Nasal bones
  • Zygomatic bones and arches
  • Mandible
  • These are most prominent on the face
36
Q

What types of X-ray might you use to look at facial fractures?

A
  • Bucket handle view - looking at zygomatic arches
  • Panoramic radiograph (OPG) to look at mandible
  • Mandible normally has more than one fracture
37
Q

Why are maxilla fractures concerning?

A
  • The maxilla could fall backwards and occlude the airways
  • These fractures are rare
38
Q

What is the temporomandibular joint?

A
  • Articulation between temporal bone and mandible
  • Synovial hinge-type joint
  • Fibrocartilaginous disc divides joint into 2 synovial cavities
  • Innervated by auriculotemporal nerve - branch of mandibular division of trigeminal nerve (Vc)
39
Q

What conditions can affect the TMJ?

A
  • TMJ disorder
  • Dislocation
  • Arthritis
40
Q

Outline the anatomy of the TMJ

A
  • Articular surface of bones lined with fibrocartilage and do not come into direct contact
  • Separated by fibrocartilaginous disc
  • Divides joint into two synovial-lined cavities filled with synovial fluid
  • Stabilised by joint capsule and three extracapsular ligaments
41
Q

What are the movements of the TMJ?

A
  1. Hinge (rotational action) allowing opening and closing of jaw
    - inferior joint capsule
  2. Gliding forward action
    - condyle slides onto articular tubercle
    - superior joint capsule
  3. Simple retraction and protraction of mandible
    - gliding action at superior joint capsule
42
Q

Which muscles elevate the mandible?

A
  • Masseter
  • Temporalis
  • Medial pterygoid
43
Q

Which muscles depress the mandible?

A
  • Lateral pterygoid
  • Gravity
  • Platysma assisted by suprahyoid (against resistance)
44
Q

Which muscles protract the mandible?

A
  • Lateral pterygoid
  • Assisted by medial pterygoid
45
Q

Which muscles retract the mandible?

A
  • Posterior fibres of temporalis (inserts onto coronoid process of mandible)
46
Q

What can cause TMJ dislocation?

A
  • Facial trauma (especially when jaw is open)
  • Yawning
47
Q

What happens as jaw dislocates?

A
  • Jaw locks as joint fixes in open position
  • This is due to anterior dislocation of condyle over articular tubercle
  • Muscles of mastication contract
  • Keeps jaw locked in anterior displacement
48
Q

What are the meninges?

A
  • 3 membranous layers that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord
  • Completely continuous around brain, brainstem, spinal cord
  • Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
49
Q

Describe the pia mater

A
  • Microscopic
  • Follows every dip and fold of the surface of the brain
  • Can’t be peeled away from underlying tissue structure
50
Q

Describe the arachnoid mater

A
  • Pushed up against inner surface of dura mater
  • Doesn’t extend into sulcae or lateral fissures
  • Delicate + translucent + fibrous layer
51
Q

What makes up the leptomeninges?

A
  • Pia mater and arachnoid mater
  • Meningitis affects this area
52
Q

Describe the dura mater

A
  • Really tough fibrous membrane
53
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A
  • The space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater
  • Filled with CSF - this exerts pressure to keep 2 layers separated
  • Cerebral veins run through this space
  • Blood vessels entering through the base of the skull set up an arterial blood supply in this space - cerebral arteries arise from here
54
Q

Which part of the skull does the dura fuse to?

A
  • Periosteum lining inner table of skull bones
55
Q

Why is the dura like ‘two-ply’ tissue?

A
  • It has 2 layers while within the skull:
    1. Periosteal - part against the inner table of bone
    2. Meningeal - part adjacent to arachnoid mater
  • these 2 layers are closely adhered but there are areas where they separate
56
Q

What does the separation of the layers of dura form?

A
  • Dural folds
  • Dural venous sinuses