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MT Module 1 > session 3 > Flashcards

session 3 Flashcards

1
Q

assessment

A
  • means the evaluation or appraisal of the patient’s condition
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2
Q

vital signs

A
  • are the four key indications that the body systems are functioning.
  • temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure
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3
Q

Temperature

A
  • average normal body temperature is 98.6ºF or 37.0ºC
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4
Q

fever

A
  • an oral body temperature of 100ºF or higher
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5
Q

hyperthermia

A

(high-per-THER-mee-ah)

- is an extremely high fever

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6
Q

albumin/o-

A

albumin; protein

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7
Q

calc/i-

A

calcium; lime; the heel

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8
Q

-centesis

A

surgical puncture to remove fluid

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9
Q

creatin/o-

A

creatine

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10
Q

glycos/o-

A

glucose; sugar

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11
Q

-graphy

A

the process of producing a picture or record

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12
Q

hemat/o-

A

blood; relating to the blood

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13
Q

lapar/o-

A

abdomen; abdominal wall

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14
Q

-otomy

A

cutting; surgical incision

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15
Q

phleb/o-

A

vein

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16
Q

radi/o-

A

radiation; x-rays

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17
Q

-scope

A

instrument for visual examination

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18
Q

-scopy

A

visual examination

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19
Q

son/o-

A

sound

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20
Q

-uria

A

urination; urine

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21
Q

hypothermia

A

(high-poh-THER-mee-ah)

- is an abnormally low body temperature

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22
Q

pulse

A
  • is the rhythmic pressure against the walls of an artery that is caused by the beating of the heart
  • reflects the number of times the heart beats each minute and is recorded as bpm
  • normal resting heart rate differs by age group
  • adults: 60-100 bpm
  • newborn: 100-160 bpm
  • athletes: 40-60 bpm
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23
Q

respiration

A
  • which is also known as the respiratory rate (RR)
  • the number of complete breaths per minute
  • a single respiration consists of one inhalation and one exhalation
  • normal respiratory rate for adults ranges from 12 to 20 respirations per minute
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24
Q

blood pressure

A
  • is the force of the blodo against the walls of the arteries
  • measured using a sphygmomanometer
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25
Q

sphygmomanometer

A

(sfig-moh-mah-NOM-eh-ter)

  • measures a person’s blood pressure
  • when using a manual style, a stethoscope is required to listen to the blood sounds
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26
Q

systolic

A

(sis-TOL-lick)
- blood pressure is recorded as a ratio with the systolic over diastolic

  • systolic: the first beat heard
  • diastolic: is the last beat heard
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27
Q

diastolic

A
  • the last beat heard
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28
Q

pain

A
  • is considered to be the fifth vital sign

- is a subjective symptom that CANNOT be measured objectively, it must be determined as reported by the patient

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29
Q

auscultation

A
  • means listening for sounds within the body and is usually performed through a stethoscope
  • Bruit, rale, stridor, and rhonchi
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30
Q

rale

A

(RAHL)
- also known as a crackle, is an abnormal crackle-like lung sound heard through a stethoscope during inspiration

  • rattle
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31
Q

rhonchi

A

(RONG-kye)

  • are coarse rattling sounds that are somewhat like snoring
  • these sounds are usually caused by secretions in the bronchial airways
  • wheezing
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32
Q

stridor

A

(STRYE-dor)
- is an abnormal, high-pitched, musical breathing sound caused by a blockage in the throat or in the larynx (voice box)

  • harsh
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33
Q

bruit

A

(BREW-ee)

  • is an abnormal sound or murmur heard during auscultation of an artery
  • these sounds are usually due to a partially blocked, narrowed, or diseased artery
  • blowing
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34
Q

heart murmur

A
  • is an abnormal heart sound that is most commonly a sign of defective heart valves
  • heart murmurs are described by volume and the stage of the heartbeat when the murmur is heard
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35
Q

abdominal sounds

A
  • also known as bowel sounds
  • are normal noises made by the intestines
  • auscultation of the abdomen is performed to evaluate these sounds and to detect abnormalities
  • ex: increased bowel sounds can indicate a bowel obstruction
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36
Q

palpation

A

(pal-PAY-shun)
- is an examination technique in which the examiner’s hands are used to feel the texture, size, consistency, and location of certain body parts

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37
Q

percussion

A

(per-KUSH-un)
- is a diagnostic procedure designed to determine the density of a body part by the sound produced by tapping the surface with the fingers

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38
Q

ophthalmoscope

A

(ahf-THAL-moh-skope)

- is an instrument used to examine the interior of the eye

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39
Q

otoscope

A

(OH-toh-skope)

- is an instrument used to visually examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane

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40
Q

speculum

A

(SPECK-you-lum)

- is an instrument used to enlarge the opening of any canal or cavity to facilitate inspection of its interior

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41
Q

stehoscope

A

(STETH-oh-scope)

- is an instrument used to listen to sounds within the body

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42
Q

recumbent

A

(ree-KUM-bent)

- describes any position in which the patient is lying down

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43
Q

horizontal recumbent position

A
  • also known as the supine position
  • the patient is lying on the back, facing up
  • position is used for examination and treatment of the anterior surface of the body and for x-rays
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44
Q

dorsal recumbent position

A
  • the patient is lying on the back, face up, with the knees bent
  • this position is used for the examination and treatment of the abdominal area and for vaginal or rectal exams
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45
Q

lithotomy position

A

(lih-THOT-oh-mee)

  • the patient is lying on the back, face up, with the feet and legs raised and supported in stirrups
  • this position is used for vaginal and rectal examinations and during childbirth
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46
Q

prone position

A
  • the patient is lying on the abdomen, face down
  • the arms may be placed under the head for comfort
  • this position is used for the examination and treatment of the back and buttocks
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47
Q

Sims’ position

A
  • the patient is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back
  • this position is used in the examination and treatment of the rectal area
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48
Q

knee-chest position

A
  • the patient is lying face down with the hips bent so that the knees and chest rest on the table
  • this position is also used for rectal examinations
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49
Q

stat

A
  • the results of a lab test are needed immediately

- the test has top priority in the lab

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50
Q

profile

A
  • tests that are frequently performed as a group on automated multi-channel lab testing equipment
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51
Q

phlebotomist

A

(fleh-BOT-oh-mist)

- is a medical professional who is trained to draw blood from patients for various lab tests and other procedures

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52
Q

phlebotomy

A

(fleh-BOT-oh-mee)

  • also known as veni-punture
  • is the puncture of a vein for the purpose of drawing blood
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53
Q

arterial stick

A
  • is the puncture of an artery, usually on the inside of the wrist, to obtain arterial blood
  • arterial blood differs from venous blood mostly in the concentration of dissolved gases it contains
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54
Q

capillary puncture

A
  • is the technique used when only a small amount of blood is needed as a specimen for a blood test
  • can be done in the finger, heel, or an earlobe
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55
Q

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

A

(eh-RITH-roh-site)

  • also known as a sed rate
  • is a test based on the speed which the red blood cells separate from the plasma and fall to the bottom of a specialized test tube
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56
Q

hematocrit (HCT)

A

(hee-MAT-oh-krit)

  • describes the percentage, by volume, of a blood sample occupied by red cells
  • this test is used to diagnose abnormal states of hydration, polycythemia (excess RBCs), and anemia (deficient RBCs)
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57
Q

platelet count (PLC)

A
  • measures the number of platelets in a specified amount of blood and is a screening test to evaluate platelet function
  • it is also used to monitor changes in the blood associated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy
  • these changes include thrombocytosis and thrombocytopenia
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58
Q

thrombocytosis

A
  • an abnormal increase in the number of platelets
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59
Q

thrombocytopenia

A
  • an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets
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60
Q

polycythemia

A
  • excess red blood cells
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61
Q

anemia

A
  • deficient red blood cells
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62
Q

PERRLA

A
  • an exam

- Pupils Equal, Round, Responsive to Light and Accomodation

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63
Q

Red blood cell count (RBC)

A
  • is a determination of the number of erythrocytes in the blood
  • a depressed count can indicate anemia or a hemorrhage lasting more than 24 hours
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64
Q

total hemoglobin test (Hb)

A
  • is usually a part of a complete blood count
  • elevated Hb levels indicate a higher than normal hemoglobin concentration in the plasma due to polycythemia or dehydration
  • low Hb indicates lower than normal hemoglobin concentration due to anemia, recent hemorrhage, or fluid retention
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65
Q

white blood cell count (WBC)

A
  • is a determination of the number of leukocytes in the blood
  • elevated count can be an indication of infection or inflammation
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66
Q

white blood cell differential count

A
  • tests to see what percentage of the total white blood cell count is composed of each of the five types of leukocytes
  • this provide information about the patient’s immune system, detects certain types of leukemia, and determines the severity of an infection.
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67
Q

basic metabolic panel (BMP or profile 8)

A
  • is a group of eight specific blood tests that provide important information about the current status of the patient’s kidneys, electrolyte balance, blood sugar, and calcium levels
  • significant changes in these test results can indicate acute problems such as kidney failure, insulin shock or diabetic coma, respiratory distress, or heart rhythm changes
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68
Q

blood urea nitrogen test (BUN test)

A
  • measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood due to the waste product urea.
  • this test is performed to obtain an indication of kidney function
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69
Q

urea

A

(you-REE-ah)

- is the major end product of protein metabolism found in urine and blood

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70
Q

crossmatch tests

A
  • are performed to determine the compatibility of blood donor and the recipient before a blood transfusion
  • Agglutination is a positive reaction that indicates the donor unit is not a suitable match
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71
Q

agglutination

A
  • clumping together of RBCs
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72
Q

C-reactive protein test (CRP)

A
  • is performed to indentify high levels of inflammation within the body
  • the information provided by this test is obtained by the presence of the C-reactive protein, which is produced by the liver only during episodes of acute inflammation
  • although this test does not ID the specific cause of the inflammation, an elevated level can indicate a heart attack, a coronary artery disease, or an autoimmune disorder
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73
Q

lipid panel

A
  • measures the amounts of total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein (HDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL), and triglycerides in a blood sample
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74
Q

prothrombin time

A

(proh-THROM-bin)

  • also known as pro time
  • is a test used to diagnose conditions associated with abnormalities of clotting time and to monitor anticoagulant therapy
  • a longer prothrombin time can be caused by serious liver disease, bleeding disorders, blood-thinning medicines, or a lack of Vitamin K
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75
Q

serum bilirubin test

A
  • measures the ability of the liver to take up, process, and secrete bilirubin into the bile
  • this test is useful in determining whether a patient has liver disease of a blocked bile duct
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76
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone assay

A
  • measures circulating blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) that can indicate abnormal thyroid activity
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77
Q

arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)

A
  • measures the pH, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels of arterial blood
  • this test is used to evaluate lung and kidney function and overall metabolism
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78
Q

urinalysis

A

(you-rih-NAL-ih-sis)

- is the examination of physical and chemical properties of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements

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79
Q

routine urinalysis

A
  • performed to screen for urinary and systemic disorders
  • utilizes a dipstick that is impregnated with chemicals that react with substances in the urine and change color when abnormalities are present
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80
Q

microscopic examination

A
  • examination of a specimen, which is performed when more-detailed testing of the specimen is necessary
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81
Q

casts

A
  • are fibrous or protein materials, such as pus and fats, that are thrown off into the urine in kidney disease
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82
Q

pH

A
  • degree of acidity or alkalinity of a substance
  • average normal pH range of urine is from 4.5 to 8.0
  • pH value below 7 indicates acid in urine and is an indication of acidosis
  • pH value above 7 indicates alkaline urine and can indicate conditions such as a UTI
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83
Q

acidosis

A
  • excessive acid in the body fluids
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84
Q

specific gravity

A
  • of urine reflects the amount of wastes, minerals, and solids that are present
  • low specific gravity (dilute urine): a characteristic of diabetes insipidus
  • high specific gravity (concentrated urine): occurs in conditions such as dehydration, liver failure, or shock
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85
Q

low specific gravity

A
  • dilute urine

- a characteristic of diabetes insipidus

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86
Q

high specific gravity

A
  • concentrated urine

- occurs in conditions such as dehydration, liver failure, or shock

87
Q

albuminuria

A

(al-byou-mih-NEW-ree-ah)

  • is the presence of the protein albumin in the urine
  • high test levels are a sign of impaired kidney funciton
88
Q

bacteriuria

A

(back-tee-ree-YOU-ree-ah)

- is the presence of bacteria in the urine

89
Q

calciuria

A

(kal-sih-YOU-ree-ah)

  • is the presence of calcium in the urine
  • abnormally high levels can be diagnostic for hyperparathyroidism
  • lower than normal levels can indicate osteomalacia
90
Q

creatinuria

A

(kree-at-ih-NEW-ree-ah)

- is an increased concentration of creatinine in the urine

91
Q

creatinine

A
  • is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is normally removed by the kidneys
  • the presence of excess creatinine is an indication of increased muscle breakdown or a disruption of kidney functions
92
Q

drug-screening urine test

A
  • is a rapid method of identifying the presence in the body of one or more drugs of abuse such as cocaine, heroin, and marijuana
  • these tests are also used to detect the use of performance-enhancing drugs by athletes
93
Q

glycosuria

A

(glye-koh-SOO-ree-ah)

  • is the presence of glucose in the urine
  • this condition is most commonly caused by diabetes
94
Q

hematuria

A

(hee-mah-TOO-ree-ah)

  • is the presence of blood in the urine
  • this condition ca be caused by kidney stones, infection, kidney damage, or bladder cancer
95
Q

ketonuria

A

(kee-toh-NEW-ree-ah)

- is the presence of ketones in the urine

96
Q

ketones

A
  • are formed when the body breaks down fat and their presence in urine can indicate starvation or uncontrolled diabetes
97
Q

proteinuria

A

(pro-tee-in-YOU-ree-ah)

  • is the presence of abnormal amount of protein in the urine
  • this condition is usually a sign of kidney disease
98
Q

pyuria

A

(pye-YOU-ree-ah)

  • is the presence of pus in the urine
  • when pus is present, the urine is turbid in appearance
99
Q

urine culture and sensitivity test

A
  • also known as a urine C and S
  • is a lab test that is used to ID the cause of a UTI and to determine which antibiotic would be the most effective treatment
100
Q

endoscopy

A

(en-DOS-koh-pee)

- is the visual examination of the interior of a body cavity

101
Q

endoscopic surgery

A
  • is a surgical procedure that is performed through very small incisions with the use of an endoscope and specialized instruments
102
Q

endoscope

A

(EN-doh-skope)

- is a small flexible tube with a light and a lens on the end

103
Q

laparoscopy

A

(lap-ah-ROS-koh-pee)
- is the visual examination of the interior of the abdomen with the use of a laparsocope that is passed through a small incision in the abdominal wall

104
Q

centesis

A

(sen-TEE-sis)

- is a surgical puncture to remove excess fluid or to remove fluid for diagnostic purposes

105
Q

abdominocentesis

A

(ab-dom-ih-noh-sen-TEE-sis)

- is the surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove fluid

106
Q

amniocentesis

A
  • which is a diagnostic test performed during pregnancy
107
Q

arthrocentesis

A

(ar-throh-sen-TEE-sis)
- is a surgical puncture of the joint space to remove synovial fluid for analysis to determine the cause of pain or swelling in a joint

108
Q

cardiocentesis

A

(kar-dee-oh-sen-TEE-sis)

  • also known as cardiopuncture
  • is the puncture of a chamber of the heart for diagnosis or therapy
109
Q

pericardiocentesis

A

(pehr-ih-kar-dee-oh-sen-TEE-sis)

  • is the puncture of the pericardial sac for the purpose of removing fluid
  • performed to treat pericarditis
110
Q

contrast medium

A
  • is administered by swallowing, via an enema, or intravenously to make specific body structures visible
111
Q

radiopaque

A

(ray-dee-oh-PAYK)

- means that the substance DOES NOT ALLOW X-RAYS TO PASS THROUGH and appears white or light gray on the resulting films

112
Q

radiolucent

A

(ray-dee-oh-LOO-sent)

  • means that the substance, such as air or nitrogen gas, DOES ALLOW X-RAYS TO PASS THROUGH and appears black or dark gray on the resulting film
  • opposite of radiopaque
113
Q

intravenous contrast medium

A
  • is injected into a vein to make the flow of blood through blood vessels and organs visible
114
Q

barium (Ba)

A
  • is a radiopaque contrast medium used primarily to visualize the gastrointestinal tract
  • it is administered orally as a barium swallow for an upper GI study
  • it is administered rectally as a barium enema for a lower GI study
115
Q

barium swallow

A
  • barium is administered orally for an upper GI study
116
Q

barium enema

A
  • barium is administered rectally for a lower GI study
117
Q

radiology

A
  • creates an image of hard-tissue internal structures by the exposure of sensitized film to x-radiation
  • resulting film is known as a radiograph
118
Q

radiograph

A
  • also known as a radiogram
  • referred to as an x-ray
  • radiopaque hard tissues (bone and tooth enamel) appear white or light gray on the radiograph
  • radiolucent soft tissues (muscles and skin) appear as shades of gray to black on the radiograph
119
Q

x-radiation

A
  • also referred to as ionizing radiation
  • is beneficial in producing diagnostic images and in treating cancer
  • excess exposure is dangerous and the effects are cumulative
120
Q

radiologist

A

(ray-dee-OL-oh-jist)
- is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with x-rays and other forms of radiant energy

121
Q

interventional radiology

A
  • is the use of radiographic imaging to guide a procedure such as a biopsy
122
Q

radiographic projection

A
  • describes the path that the x-ray beam follows through the patient’s body from the entrance to the exit
123
Q

extraoral radiography

A
  • means that the film is placed and exposed outside of the mouth
124
Q

panoramic radiograph

A
  • commonly known as a panorex

- shows all of the structures in both dental arches in a single film

125
Q

intraoral radiography

A
  • means that the film is placed within the mouth and exposed by a camera positioned next to the exterior of the cheek
126
Q

computed tomography (CT)

A

(toh-MOG-rah-fee)
- uses a thin, fan-shaped x-ray beam that rotates around the patient to produce multiple cross-sectional views of the body

127
Q

tomotherapy

A
  • is the combination of tomography with radiation therapy to precisely target the tumor being treated
128
Q

open architecture MRI

A
  • is designed to be less confining and is more comfortable for some patients
129
Q

magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

A
  • also known as magnetic resonance angio

- helps locate problems within blood vessels throughout the body

130
Q

fluoroscopy

A

(floo-or-OS-koh-pee)

- is the visualization of body parts in motion by projecting x-ray images on a luminous fluorescent screen

131
Q

cineradiography

A

(sin-eh-ray-dee-OG-rah-fee)

- is the recording of the fluoroscopy images

132
Q

ultrasonography

A

(ul-trah-son-OG-rah-fee)
- commonly referred to as ultrasound or diagnostic ultrasound, is imaging of deep body structures by recording the echoes of sound wave pulses that are above the range of human hearing

133
Q

sonogram

A

(SOH-noh-gram)

  • is the image created by ultrasonography
  • images created by a sonographer
134
Q

carotid ultrasonography

A
  • is the use of sound waves to image the carotid artery to detect an obstruction that could cause an ischemic stroke
135
Q

echocardiography

A

(eck-oh-kar-dee-OG-rah-fee)

  • is an ultrasonic diagnostic procedure used to evaluate the structures and motion of the heart
  • resulting record is an echocardiogram
136
Q

doppler echocardiogram

A
  • is performed in the same way as an echocardiogram; however, this procedure measures the speed and direction of the blood flow within the heart
137
Q

fetal ultrasound

A
  • is a noninvasive procedure used to image and evaluate fetal development during pregnancy
138
Q

transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)

A

(trans-eh-sof-ah-JEE-al eck-oh-kar-dee-OG-rah-fee)

  • is an ultrasonic imaging technique used to evaluate heart structures
  • test is performed in the esophagus because it is close to the heart, giving clearer images than obtained with echocardiography
139
Q

nuclear medicine

A
  • radioactive substances known as radiopharmaceuticals

- administered for either diagnostic or treatment purposes such as nuclear imaging

140
Q

radiopharmaceuticals

A
  • administered for either diagnostic or treatment purposes
141
Q

nuclear imaging

A
  • images that document the structure and function of the organ or organs being examined
142
Q

nuclear scan

A
  • also known as a scintigram
  • is a diagnostic procedure that uses nuclear medicine technology to gather information about the structure and function of organs or body systems that cannot be seen on conventional x-rays
143
Q

bone scan

A
  • is a nuclear scanning test that identifies new areas of bone growth or breakdown
  • results are obtained after a radionuclide tracer is injected into the bloodstream
144
Q

thyroid scan

A
  • a radiopharmaceutical containing radioactive iodine is administered
  • provides info about the size, shape, location, and relative activity of different parts of the thyroid gland
145
Q

single photon emission computed tomography

A
  • also known as SPECT
  • is a type of nuclear imaging test that produces 3D computer-reconstructed images showing perfusion through tissues and organs
146
Q

perfusion

A

(per-FYOU-zhun)

- means the flow of blood through an organ

147
Q

positron emission tomography

A
  • also known as PET imaging

- combines tomography with radionuclide tracers to produce enhanced images of selected body organs or areas

148
Q

pharmacology

A
  • is the study of the nature, uses, and effects of drugs for medical purposes
149
Q

pharmacist

A
  • is a licensed specialist who formulates and dispenses prescribed medications
150
Q

prescription

A
  • drug is a medication that can legally be dispensed only by a pharmacist with an order from a licensed professional such as a physician or dentist
151
Q

over-the-counter drug

A
  • also known as an OTC

- is a medication that can be purchased without a prescription

152
Q

generic drug

A
  • is usually named for its chemical structure and is not protect by a brand name or trademark
153
Q

brand-name drug

A
  • is sold under the name given the drug by the manufacturer

- a brand name is always spelled with a capital letter for example, Valium is a brand name fordiazepam

154
Q

addiction

A
  • is compulsive, uncontrollable dependence on a drug, alcohol, or other substance
155
Q

drug tolerance

A
  • is when the body has become accustomed to a medication after being on it for a length of time, and higher doses are required to achieve the desired effect
156
Q

adverse drug reaction (ADR)

A
  • also known as a side effect

- is an undesirable reaction that accompanies the principal response for which the drug was taken

157
Q

compliance

A
  • is the patient’s consistency and accuracy in following the regimen prescribed by a physician or other health care professional
158
Q

contraindication

A
  • is a factor in the patient’s condition that makes the use of a medication or specific treatment dangerous or ill advised
159
Q

drug interaction

A
  • is the result of drugs reacting with each other, often in ways that are unexpected or potentially harmful
  • such interactions can occur when medications are taken along with herbal remedies or when more than one prescription drug is taken at the same time
160
Q

idiosyncratic reaction

A

(id-ee-oh-sin-KRAT-ick)

- is an unexpected reaction to a drug that is peculiar to the individual

161
Q

palliative

A

(PAL-ee-ay-tiv)

- is a substance that eases the pain or severity of the symptoms of a disease, but does not cure it

162
Q

palliative care

A
  • is treatment that focuses on alleviating pain and relieving symptoms rather than curing the disease
163
Q

paradoxical reaction

A
  • is the result of medical treatment that yields the exact opposite of normally expected results
164
Q

paradoxical

A
  • means not being normal or the usual kind
165
Q

placebo

A

(plah-SEE-boh)

- is an inactive substance, such as a sugar pill or liquid, that is administered only for its suggestive effects

166
Q

antipyretic

A

(an-tih-pye-RET-ick)

- is medication administered to prevent or reduce fever

167
Q

anti-inflammatory

A
  • relieves inflammation and pain without affecting consciousness
168
Q

analgesic

A 
(an-al-JEE-zick)
- refers to the class of drugs that relieves pain without affecting consciousness
169
Q

non-narcotic analgesics

A
  • sold over the counter for mild to moderate pain
170
Q

narcotic analgesics

A
  • are available by prescription only to relive severe pain
171
Q

acetaminophen

A

(ah-seet-ah-MIN-oh-fen)

  • is an analgesic that reduces pain and fever, but does not relieve inflammation
  • it does not have the negative side effects of NSAIDS
172
Q

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A
  • commonly known as NSAIDS

- non-narcotic analgesics administered to control pain by reducing

173
Q

ibuprofen

A

(eye-byoo-pro-fen)

  • is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicine that is sold over the counter under the brand names of Advil and Motrin
  • acts as an analgesic and an antipyretic
174
Q

anticonvulsants

A
  • have been found to be effective as part of some chronic pain management programs
  • are traditionally administered to prevent seizures such as those associated with epilepsy
175
Q

antidepressants

A
  • have been found to be effective as part of some chronic pain managment programs
  • are primarily administered to prevent or relieve depression
176
Q

pain-relieving creams

A
  • are applied topically to relieve pan due to conditions such as osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
  • primary active ingredient in these ointments is capsaicin
177
Q

transcutaneous electronic nerve stimulation

A
  • also known as TENS
  • is a method of pain control by wearing a device that delivers small electrical impulses, as needed, to the nerve endings through the skin
178
Q

inhalation administration

A
  • describes vapors and gases taken in through the nose or mouth and absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs
179
Q

oral administration

A
  • refers to medications taken by mouth to be absorbed through the walls of the stomach or small intestine
  • enteric coating covers medications to be released in the small intestine
180
Q

rectal administration

A
  • is the insertion of medication in the rectum either in the form of a suppository or a liquid
181
Q

suppository

A
  • medication in a semi-solid form that is introduced into the rectum
  • melts at body temperature, and is absorbed through the surrounding tissues
182
Q

sublingual administration

A
  • is the placement of medication under the tongue where it is allowed to dissolve slowly
  • sublingual tissues are highly vascular, meaning the medication is quickly absorbed directly into the bloodstream
183
Q

topical application

A
  • is a liquid or ointment that is rubbed into the skin on the area to be treated
184
Q

transdermal

A
  • medication is administered from a patch that is applied to unbroken skin
  • medication is continuously released by the patch and is absorbed through the skin and transmitted to the bloodstream so that it can produce a systemic effect
185
Q

parenteral

A
  • means taken into the body or administered in a manner other than through the digestive tract
  • most common: injection
186
Q

subcutaneous injection (SC)

A
  • is made into the fatty layer just below the skin
187
Q

intradermal injection

A
  • is made into the middle layers of the skin
188
Q

intramuscular injection (IM)

A
  • is made directly into muscle tissue
189
Q

intravenous injection (IV)

A
  • is made directly into a vein
190
Q

PICC line

A
  • Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter

- frequently used for a patient who will need IV therapy for more than 7 days

191
Q

bolus

A

(BOH-lus)

  • bolus infusion
  • a single, concentrated dose of drug usually injected into a blood vessel over a short period of time
192
Q

complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)

A
  • these therapies can be used to supplement or replace allopathic medicine
193
Q

allopathic medicine

A

(ah-low-PAH-thick)

- is another term for conventional, or Western, medical practices and systems of health care

194
Q

alternative medicine

A
  • is a general term for practices and systems of health care other than allopathic approaches used in place of these treatments
195
Q

complementary medicine

A
  • is a general term for practices and systems of health care other than allopathic approaches used to supplement these treatments
196
Q

integrative medicine

A
  • is a model of health care based on both allopathic and alternative medicine
197
Q

holistic

A

(hoe-LISS-tick)
- refers to a treatment approach that takes into consideration the whole body and its environment, including the mind, body, and spirit

198
Q

ayurvedic medicine

A

(ay-uhr-VEH-dick)
- is the traditional Hindu system of medicine, emphasizing a holistic approach to preventive treatment through hygiene, exercise, herbal preparations, and yoga, and the treatment of illnesses with herbal medicines, physiotherapy, and diet

199
Q

traditional chinese medicine

A
  • is a system of ancient Chinese medicinal treatments including acupuncture, diet, herbal therapy, meditation, physical exercise, and massage, to prevent, diagnose, and treat disease
200
Q

naturopathy

A

(nay-cher-AH-pah-thee)

  • also known as naturopathic medicine
  • is a combination of nutrition, medicinal supplements and herbs, water therapy homeopathy, and lifestyle modifications used to identify and treat the root causes of symptoms and disease instead of surgery and drugs
201
Q

homeopathy

A

(hoh-mee-OP-ah-thee)

- involves the use of substances created from plant or mineral products diluted a thousand-fold in water or alcohol

202
Q

biofeedback

A
  • is a patient-guided treatment that teaches individuals to control muscle tension, pain, body temperature, brain waves, and other bodily functions through relaxation, visualization, and other cognitive control techniques
203
Q

guided imagery

A
  • is a type of treatment in which a patient follows verbal prompts to envision a specific, peaceful location in detail, distancing him/her from any pain or stress the patient is currently experiencing
204
Q

hypnosis

A
  • is a type of therapy in which a patient is placed in a state of focused concentration and narrowed attention that makes him or her more susceptible to suggestions, and then given suggestions directed toward the patient’s treatment goal
205
Q

mindfulness meditation

A
  • focuses on becoming aware of thoughts and emotions and their physiological responses, as well as accepting them and maintaining a calm, constant awareness
206
Q

energy therapies

A
  • acupressure
  • acupuncture
  • Qi Gong
207
Q

Acupressure

A

(AK-que-presh-ur)
- is a traditional Chinese touch therapy involving finger pressure applied to specific areas of the body to restore the flow of qi

208
Q

acupuncture

A

(AK-que-punk-tyour)
- is a traditional chinese medical practice using very thin acupuncture needles inserted into specific points of the body to restore the flow of qi

209
Q

Qi Gong

A

(CHEE-gong)

- is a chinese system of movement, breathing techniques, and meditation designed to improve and enhance the flow of qi.

210
Q

chiropractic manipulative therapy

A
  • is a system of mechanical spinal adjustments made by a chiropractor to correct biomechanical problems in the skeletal framework of the body
211
Q

osteopathic manipulative therapy

A
  • is mechanical spinal adjustment used in conjunction with conventional medical therapies by an osteopath
212
Q

craniosacral therapy

A

(kray-nee-oh-SAK-ral)
- is the use of gentle touch to help the body release tension, stress, and trauma to correct restrictions resulting from stress on the central nervous system

213
Q

myofascial release

A

(my-oh-FASH-ee-ahl)
- is a specialized soft-tissue manipulation technique used to ease the pain of conditions such as fibromyalgia, myofascial pain syndrome, movement restrictions, temporomandibular joint disorders (TMJ)

214
Q

neuromuscular therapy (NMT)

A
  • is a form of massage that uses soft-tissue manipulation focusing on applying pressure to trigger points to treat injuries and alleviate pain

MT Module 1 (4 decks)

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