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Server+ > Server Hardware > Flashcards

Server Hardware Flashcards

1
Q

form factors

A
  • variety of sizes and configurations of physical servers/components
  • increasing data center capacity is possible using smaller server form factors
  • must keep inventory to be aware of the form factors in the system environment
  • virtual servers don’t have form factors
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2
Q

tower servers

A
  • all server components are housed within a single case that can sit directly on the floor or on a desk
  • standalone computer
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3
Q

tower server advantages

A
  • can be easily moved without removing screws or sliding out of rack
  • components are easy to find
  • adding physical components is easy because of the amount of space inside the case
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4
Q

tower server disadvantages

A
  • don’t scale well
  • take up a lot of space
  • can’t be rack mounted
  • don’t often come with redundant power supplies
  • cable organization is challenging
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5
Q

best uses for tower servers

A
  • smaller offices

- central IT office that preconfigures servers to be used in branch offices

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6
Q

MDFs

A
  • main distribution frames

- cable racks that organize data cabling from IDFs

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7
Q

IDFs

A
  • intermediary distribution frames

- organize cables plugged into equipment

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8
Q

rack-mounted equipment

A
  • increases the potential server density in a server room or data center
  • most racks have front/back doors that can be locked (increases security)
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9
Q

UID

A
  • unit identification
  • used to identify servers in rack
  • LED on front/back of rack-mounted server will blink when the server is being remotely managed or when the UID button is pressed on the server
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10
Q

rack-mounted servers

A
  • thin computers designed to be stacked vertically in a rack
  • provides organization
  • uses minimal space (scalable)
  • normally have dual power supplies
  • normally have at least 2 network cards/management ports
  • all connections on back of device
  • ports on front of server for attaching peripherals
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11
Q

racks

A
  • server room/datacenter must be able to handle weight of racks
  • should be balanced and bolted to floor
  • most are 19 in wide
  • come with rails for mounting equipment or rail kits are available
  • good to place storage appliances, power sources, etc. in rack with servers
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12
Q

U

A
  • rack units
  • unit of measurement for height
  • vertical distance between the holes in the rack to which rails/rack-mounted equipment are secured
  • 1U up to 7U per rack-mounted device
  • most racks have a max of 42U
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13
Q

1U

A

1 3/4 inches

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14
Q

2U

A

3 1/2 inches

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15
Q

4U

A

7 inches

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16
Q

PDUs

A
  • power distribution units
  • provide power outlets to racks in server rooms/data centers
  • redundant PDUs should be plugged into separate circuits
  • redundant server power supplies should plug into separate PDUs
  • check PDU rating to ensure equipment doesn’t draw more power than the PDU’s load capacity
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17
Q

cable management arm

A
  • metal/plastic folding component that is attached to the back of a rack-mounted device
  • all cables from the device are placed into the arm
  • arm expands when device is pulled from rack to avoid pulling out cables
  • prevent blockage of fan intake
  • zip tie cables together from a device
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18
Q

rack fillers

A
  • blanking panels
  • cover empty spaces in the rack
  • prevent blockage of fan intake
  • measured via the U system
  • available with venting holes
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19
Q

blade servers

A
  • circuit board containing its own processors, memory and network capabilities
  • may include a small amount of storage
  • no power supply
  • no cooling mechanisms
  • can’t run independently
  • most have USB connector on front
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20
Q

advantages of blade servers

A
  • increase server density (scalability)

- will likely replace rack-mounted servers

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21
Q

disadvantages of blade servers

A
  • more expensive

- harder to expand

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22
Q

blade enclosure

A
  • proprietary chassis that can house several blade servers from the same vendor
  • measure from 6U to 12U
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23
Q

blade enclosures provide

A
  • temperature control mechanisms i.e. fans
  • power
  • network connectivity
  • storage connectivity
  • server remote management connections
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24
Q

backplane

A
  • connects server and I/O blades within enclosure

- some provide redundancy

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25
Q

I/O blades

A
  • cards
  • provide faster network connectivity
  • provide storage for blade servers
  • provide management capabilities
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26
Q

midplane

A
  • printed circuit board (PCB)
  • server blades that connect on front
  • other components accessible on back
  • different components may require a specific midplane
  • some provide redundancy
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27
Q

firmware

A
  • software stored in a chip
  • needs to be updated periodically
  • updating firmware may resolve OS instability
  • be sure updating to correct version
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28
Q

UUID

A
  • unique 128-bit universal unique identifier in firmware

- may be updated when updating motherboard firmware

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29
Q

MD5/SHA hash values

A
  • provided to confirm that firmware downloaded from internet has not been changed
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30
Q

BIOS

A
  • basic input-output system
  • firmware built into circuit board or RAID disk controller
  • checks critical hardware components when booting
  • power on self test (POST)
  • checks master boot record (MBR) to hand control over to OS
  • configuring BIOS depends on manufacturer
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31
Q

disks are initialized on a computer as either:

A
  • MBR
  • GUID partition table (GPT)
  • only 1 copy of the MBR on an MBR disk (sits on the 1st sector of the disk before the 1st partition)
  • GPT stores multiple copies of the MBR throughout the disk for additional resiliency
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32
Q

max partitions MBR disk

A

4

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33
Q

max partitions GPT disks

A
  • 128 on a Windows system

- booting from a GPT disk is possible as part of the POST on unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) system

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34
Q

CMOS

A
  • complementary metal oxide semiconductor

- specific configuration of hardware settings supported by the BIOS

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35
Q

UEFI

A
  • unified extensible firmware interface
  • new BIOS
  • GUI with mouse support
  • GPT hard-disk support (including booting from GPT)
  • IPv6 support during boot
  • support for secure boot
  • support for new modules for additional functionality
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36
Q

secure boot

A
  • prevents untrusted executable code from running before OS initializes
  • digital signatures used to validate trusted code
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37
Q

some Linux distros don’t support secure boot

A

must disable UEFI Secure Boot from UEFI settings to install these distros

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38
Q

CPU

A
  • central processing unit
  • brain of server
  • 1st version = step 0
  • step value increases as manufacturer releases the same CPU with improvements
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39
Q

scaling up

A

adding more processing power to a server

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40
Q

scaling out

A

adding more servers

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41
Q

CPU architecture

A
  • most modern CPUs have 64-bit data path
  • may also see 32-bit
  • newer server OSs support only 64-bit
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42
Q

max addressable memory limit 32-bit machines

A

4GB

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43
Q

max addressable memory limit of 64-bit machines

A

16EB (exabytes)

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44
Q

ARM processors

A
  • advanced RICS machine processors
  • used in modern mobile devices
  • available in 64-bit or 32-bit
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45
Q

CPUs and virtualization

A
  • CPU must support hardware virtualization
  • AMD processors must support AMD virtualization (AMD-V)
  • Intel processors must support Intel virtualization technology (Intel VT)
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46
Q

buses

A
  • move data among various components
  • every motherboard always includes several buses
  • bus speed (MHz) is different from internal CPU speed
  • determines how quickly data moves between system components
  • used for expansion cards and embedded components
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47
Q

CPU cache

A
  • CPUs have small amounts of high-speed memory to speed up execution of anticipated CPU instructions (hit rate)
  • hit rate indicates that CPU retrieved data/instructions from cache (hit) instead of from a slower location
  • L1, L2, L3 caches common in modern server hardware
  • L1, L2, L3 caches are typically built into the processor
  • L4 cache uses main system memory
  • common CPU cache sizes vary between CPUs and motherboards
  • L3 and L4 cache memory is used by all CPU cores for CPU chips in a socket
48
Q

L1 cache

A
  • fastest

- less common

49
Q

L4 cache

A
  • slowest

- largest

50
Q

why L1 cache is faster than normal system memory

A
  • uses static RAM (SRAM)

- instead of dynamic RAM (DRAM)/synchronous DRAM (SDRAM)

51
Q

SRAM

A
  • uses transistors to retain data

- speeds up data access

52
Q

common L1 cache size

53
Q

common L2 cache size

54
Q

common L3 cache size

55
Q

common L4 cache size

56
Q

LRU caching algorithm

A
  • least recently used
  • ensures cached items are listed in the order in which they were processed
  • oldest items removed from cache making space for new items
57
Q

MRU caching algorithm

A
  • most recently used

- newest items in cache are removed when space is needed

58
Q

SMP

A
  • symmetric multiprocessing
  • server can have multiple identical physical CPUs working together
  • server motherboard must have sockets to accommodate the CPUs
  • reduces time required to complete processing work
59
Q

RISC

A
  • reduced instruction set computing
  • processors designed to work with simpler/smaller instruction sets
  • more efficient
  • smaller chip size than complex instruction set computing (CISC) processors
  • often found in mobile devices
60
Q

multiple CPU cores

A
  • multiple CPUs within the same chip connect to a single motherboard socket
  • uses less space than SMP
61
Q

how SMP and multicore systems present CPU data

A

OS monitoring tools i.e. task manager

62
Q

GPUs

A
  • graphics processing units
  • specialized processors designed to handle computationally intensive graphic operations
  • freeing up CPU to complete other tasks
  • can be embedded within the motherboard as part of the chip set
  • available as expansion video cards
  • can have dedicated video memory to isolate graphic from nongraphic operations
  • server may require GPU depending on work (more common in high-end PCs)
63
Q

cloud computing and GPU capabilities

A
  • users may experience added benefits

- incurs greater usage cost

64
Q

RAM

A
  • random access memory
  • electronic volatile memory used by running programs
  • needs electricity to retain data
  • servers can accommodate different amounts/types of RAM
  • motherboards normally require memory chips to be installed in pairs for efficient use by CPU sockets
65
Q

memory timing

A
  • schemes can transmit data on the rise/fall of a clocking (timing) signal
  • double pumping
  • data transfer rate is effectively doubled
66
Q

factors influencing memory speed

A
  • time to select a memory column
  • time to select a memory row
  • time to read data when memory row is selected
67
Q

ECC

A
  • error correcting code memory
  • can be accommodated by most server motherboards
  • memory chip with ability to detect/fix memory errors at the bit level
  • uses parity bit for each group of memory bits
  • more expensive
68
Q

server enables use of both ECC and non-ECC memory

A
  • pair ECC chips together
  • pair non-ECC chips together
  • otherwise memory error correction will be disabled
69
Q

DDR

A
  • double data rate memory
  • increases data transfer rates to/from memory
  • compared to single data rate (SDR)
  • different DDR versions that are not compatible with each other
  • DDR3 chip sockets on motherboard will only accept DDR3 memory chips
70
Q

DDR version performance

A
  • higher number = best performance
  • DDR1 < DDR2 < DDR3 < DDR4
  • choose DDR4 if motherboard supports DDR2 - DDR4
71
Q

CAS latency

A
  • column access strobe

- defines how long it takes for requested memory contents to leave the chip on way to bus

72
Q

HBA cards

A
  • host bus adapter
  • enables use of additional buses not supported by the motherboard
  • SAN connectivity
  • slimmer form factors benefit from riser circuit boards that plug into the motherboard and enable expansion cards
73
Q

PCI

A
  • peripheral component interconnect
  • 32-bit and 64-bit bus and expansion slot card standard
  • legacy
  • 64-bit PCI cards could be plugged into 32-bit PCI expansion slots
  • full-height PCI cards may not fit form factor
  • rated between 133 - 800 MBps
74
Q

PCI-X

A
  • PCI extended
  • 64-bit parallel transmission standard
  • provides transfer rates up to 4x to/from slots
  • bit transfer between 2 - 4 GBps
  • runs at various frequencies (influences data transmission speed)
75
Q

PCIe

A
  • PCI express
  • serial-transmission based standard
  • supersedes PCI/PCI-X with more bandwidth
  • video/storage/network cards
  • bandwidth varies based on specific version of PCIe and how many lanes (channels of communication) are used
  • opt for x16 (16 lane) PCIe cards if slots are compatible for best performance
  • supported by most modern servers
  • may not be hot-pluggable
  • can plug an x8 card into a x16 slot
76
Q

DMA

A
  • direct memory access
  • supported by some PCIe devices
  • enables access to system memory without involving CPU
77
Q

NICs

A
  • network interface cards
  • most physical servers have at least 2 integrated
  • virtual servers can have as many virtual NICs (vNICs) as required for the server role
  • vNICs can be tied to specific underlying physical NICs
  • each NIC needs to be configured with the appropriate IPv4/IPv6 settings
78
Q

adding NICs to physical server

A
  • need to know which type of unused expansion slots are in motherboard
  • get fasted NIC that will work in environment
79
Q

storage options for VMs running server OS

A
  • use physical disk partition available from underlying hypervisor
  • use storage accessible over a SAN through underling hypervisor
  • use a virtual hard disk (VHD) file
  • VHD files may be stored on a local disk on underlying server or on a network storage location
80
Q

physical server storage options

A
  • direct-attached storage (DAS)
  • network-attached storage (NAS)
  • storage area networks (SANs)
  • expansion card connected to server for additional storage
81
Q

RAID controllers

A
  • most server motherboards include an integrated RAID controller that connects to multiple physical disks
  • have their own firmware configuration utility
82
Q

USB

A
  • universal serial bus
  • used for a wide variety of components/peripherals
  • servers normally use for keyboards and mice (HIDs)
  • USB 1.0 - 4.0
  • USB 3.0 is backward-compatible
83
Q

HID

A

human interface device

84
Q

KVM switches

A
  • used in server rooms/data centers
  • link numerous servers to a single keyboard, display an mouse
  • connections are made via USB or IP addresses on network
85
Q

power connections

A
  • 2 prong
  • 3 prong with ground
  • NEMA/Edison connectors
  • industrial grade equipment uses twist-lock mechanism to prevent accidental disconnect
86
Q

voltage

A
  • CPUs don’t need as much power as the amount often fed from power supplies
  • voltage regulator module (VRM) ensures CPU only gets the voltage it needs
  • normally built into motherboard
87
Q

control electrostatic discharge

A
  • connect ESD strap (bracelet) alligator clip to computer chassis
  • stand on ESD mat while servicing hardware
  • ESD footwear
  • touch computer chassis as often as possible to dissipate any built up charge
  • store components in ESD bags
88
Q

wattage

A
  • server components draw power from power supply unit (PSU)
  • most server-class hardware uses redundant PSUs
  • calculate sum of power required for all internal components to ensure PSU form factor matches server chassis form factor
  • PSUs have total wattage listings
89
Q

UPS

A
  • uninterruptible power supply
  • batteries are constantly charged from the standard electricity power grid
  • servers connected to UPS can at least shut down gracefully during power outage
  • normally rack-mounted in server rooms/data centers
  • UPS runtime capacities specify how long UPS batteries can support a specific wattage
90
Q

standby UPS systems

A

quickly switch to battery power when main power source fails

91
Q

online UPS systems

A
  • always use batteries
  • batteries constantly being refreshed when main power source is available
  • ensure consistent regulated flow of electricity
  • more expensive
  • appropriate for minimizing disruptions to mission critical IT services
92
Q

calculating UPS power draw

A
  • number of servers in rack
  • power draw per server
  • power draw per storage array
  • how busy each server is
93
Q

UPS monitoring/management

A
  • conduct testing periodically to ensure batteries will provide power when needed
  • use bypass devices to ensure UPS power load is not interrupted when maintenance is required
  • don’t plug non-essential devices into UPS
  • UPS can be connected to the server via USB cable
  • UPS can be plugged into the network
  • remote monitoring/management is possible
  • most vendors offer a mobile app for UPS monitoring
94
Q

environmental controls

A
  • temperature
  • airflow (feed in cool air)
  • separate hot air and cold air via hot and cold aisles
  • humidity (too little increases likelihood of ESD)
  • RH should fall between 40 - 60%
  • fire suppression (avoid water sprinklers if possible)
95
Q

L1 cache size

96
Q

L2 cache size

97
Q

L3 cache size

98
Q

l4 cache size

99
Q

CPU type for LGA 1248 socket

A

Intel Itanium 9300

100
Q

CPU type for LGA 1567 socket

A

Intel Xeon 6500/7500

101
Q

CPU type for LGA 2011 (Socket R)

A
  • Intel Core i7

- Intel Xeon E5

102
Q

CPU type for LGA 1155 (Socket H2)

A

Intel Xeon E3

103
Q

DDR2 physical pins/bus speed

A
  • 240

- 200 - 500 MHz

104
Q

DDR3 physical pins/bus speed

A
  • 240

- 400 - 1000 MHz

105
Q

DDR4 physical pins/bus speed

A
  • 288

- 1000 - 2000 MHz

106
Q

PCIe 1.0 data transfer rates

A
  • 1 channel = 250 Mbps
  • 2 channels = 500 Mbps
  • 16 channels = 4 Gbps
107
Q

PCIe 2.0 data transfer rates

A
  • 1 channel = 500 Mbps

- 16 channels = 8 Gbps

108
Q

PCIe 3.0 data transfer rates

A
  • 8 channels = 8 Gbps

- 16 channels = 15 Gbps

109
Q

USB 1.0 data transfer rate

110
Q

USB 2.0 data transfer rate

111
Q

USB 3.0 data transfer rate

112
Q

USB 4.0 data transfer rate

113
Q

class A fire extinguisher rating

A
  • paper
  • wood
  • cloth
114
Q

class B fire extinguisher rating

A
  • solvents
  • propane
  • gasoline
115
Q

class C fire extinguisher rating

A

electrical equipment

116
Q

class D fire extinguisher rating

A

combustible metals

Server+ (7 decks)

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