Serology review pt.2 Flashcards

1
Q

Combines soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce Insoluble compact complexes

A

PRECIPITATION

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2
Q

Produced against most proteins and some carbohydrates and carbohydrates-lipid complexes

A

PRECIPITINS

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3
Q

It interferes with the migration of charged particles

A

Agar

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4
Q

Transparent, colorless, neutral gel

A

Agarose

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5
Q

(True or False):

To see a visible reaction, relative concentrations of antigen and antibody must be equal

A

True

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6
Q

(True or False):

IgM is significant in saliva

A

False (IgA)

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7
Q

It makes use of serum wells

A

Radial Immunodiffusion

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8
Q

Antigen or Antibody is adsorbed on an inanimate particle (latex or gelatin)

A

Latex Agglutination / Gelatin Particle Agglutination Test

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9
Q

Uses a petridish

A

Double Gel Diffusion (Ouchterlony)

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10
Q

Swelling of the capsule surrounding a bacterium

A

Capsular Precipitation

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11
Q

To impregnate the capsule with a substance allowing it to become luminous by penetrating through the mucopolysaccharide complex

A

Neufeld / Quellung reaction

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12
Q

Process of separating proteins in a mixture using their different net electrical charges

A

Electrophoresis

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13
Q

(True or False):

Size and Shape in electrophoresis may cause frictional drag

A

True

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14
Q

If electricity is not yet introduced

A

Stationary phase

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15
Q

An adaptation of radial immunodiffusion but faster

A

Rocket immunoelectrophoresis

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16
Q

it means cancer cells are spreading

A

Metastasis

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17
Q

Antigen that caused the cancer have circulated from other parts of the human body to infect other organs

A

Angiogenesis

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18
Q

This is where we get our monoclonal antibodies

A

Hybridoma

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19
Q

Two stages of Agglutination

A

Sensitization & Lattice formation

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20
Q

It is a very good screening and qualitative analysis of antigen or antibody present in human sera

A

Agglutination

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21
Q

These are insensitive and may give non-specific reactions

A

Haemagglutination / Haemagglutination inhibition tests

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22
Q

(True or False):

IgG is the one present in CRP in the first 2-3 weeks upon exposure to infectious material

A

False (IgM)

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23
Q

It utilizes fluorescin-labelled anti-humanantibdoy

A

Immunofluorescence test

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24
Q

Positive reaction of imunofluorescence test

A

Apple-green fluorescence

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25
Q

Best used for the detection of Syphilis because the motile movement of the organism is observed

A

Immunofluorescence test

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26
Q

Rapidly exploding field

A

Molecular techniques

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27
Q

Non-specific protein that appears in serum as response to an inflammatory condition

A

C-reactive protein

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28
Q

A direct and quantitative measure of the acute-phase reactions

A

C-reactive proteins

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29
Q

An extremely elevated CRP is suggestive of a possible _______ infection

A

Bacterial

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30
Q

Parameter for inflammatory activity

A

CRP

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31
Q

(True or False):

CRP is a screening test not a confirmatory test

A

True

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32
Q

Infection in the blood that undergoes replication and multiplication within a short period of time

A

Septicemia

33
Q

Spirochete agent of Syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

34
Q

(True or False)

T. pallidum cannot be cultured

A

True

35
Q

This method shows a transparent object against a black background

A

Darkfield Microscopy

36
Q

T. pallidum moves in _____ pattern

A

circular

37
Q

Through this method, you will see formation of syphilitic antibodies

A

Fluorescent antibody

38
Q

The gold standard for treponema detection

A

Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)

39
Q

Artificial antigen made up of cardiolipin material

A

Reagin

40
Q

It is a modified VDRL w/ charcoal particles

A

Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

41
Q

___ & ____ enhances flocculation

A

Cholesterol & Lecithin

42
Q

A confirmatory test that uses slides fixed with Nichols train of T. pallidum

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)

43
Q

A screening test that is not as sensitive as FTA

A

ELISA

44
Q

(True or False):

If a non-treponemal antibody screening test is negative, you must do a specific treponemal antibody test

A

False

Non-treponemal Ab test should be POSITIVE

45
Q

Which test cannot be performed on CSF or cord blood

A

Rapid plasma reagin

46
Q

Two types of antibodies found in serologic testing for syphilis

A

Treponemal

Non-treponemal

47
Q

2 most widely used Non-treponemal serologic procedures

A

VDRL

RPR

48
Q

Positive result of VDRL and RPR

A

Aggregates / Clumps

49
Q

What assessment should be made quarterly for 1 year after syphilis treatment

A

quantitative VDRL

50
Q

Test that can be performed on unheated serum or plasma

A

RPR

51
Q

It is used for easier detection of visible clumps / aggregates

A

Charcoal

52
Q

2 Treponemal serologic procedures

A

Fluorescent treponema antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)

Microhemagglutination treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)

53
Q

(True or False):

FTA-ABS and MHA-TP can be used as primary screening methods

A

False

54
Q

It uses a killed suspension of T. pallidum as antigen

A

FTA-ABS

55
Q

This method is obsolete and no longer used

A

Treponema pallidum immobilization test (TPI)

56
Q

Why is serum inactivated?

A

To assure that there are no cold agglutinins or IgM

57
Q

This test is read microscopically

A

VDRL

58
Q

Causative agent of Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdoferi

59
Q

It is also known as “Bull’s eye rash”

A

Lyme disease

60
Q

Most common confirmatory test for Lyme disease

A

Western blot

61
Q

This organism is seen as cocci in chains

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

62
Q

Leading cause of Oropharyngitis

A

Streptococcal infections

63
Q

2 major sites of streptococcal infection

A

Upper RT

Skin

64
Q

This test suggests recent streptococcal infection

A

Antistreptolysin O

65
Q

Transient antibodies that appear in patients with M. pneumoniae

A

Cold agglutinins

66
Q

A human antibody against the Fc portion of immunoglobulin

A

Rheumatoid factor

67
Q

It is usually found in serum and joint fluid

A

Rheumatoid factor

68
Q

VZV on adults

A

Shingles

69
Q

The causative agent of Infectious mononucleosis

A

EBV

70
Q

This test uses horse RBCs

A

Monospot

71
Q

Symptoms of this virus resemble Infectious Mononucleosis

A

CMV

72
Q

It causes lesions ABOVE waist

A

HSV-1

73
Q

It causes lesions BELOW waist

A

HSV-2

74
Q

It is the only one that can neutraliza VZV

A

Acyclovir

75
Q

Single stranded, enveloped RNA belonging to the family Togaviridae

A

Rubella

76
Q

MMR vaccine is given at __ months

A

15

77
Q

(True or False:)

IgG declines by 4-5 weeks, but may persist for a year

A

False (IgM)

78
Q

Rare mass that forms inside the uterus at the beginning of pregnancy

A

Hydatidiform mole / Teratoma