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Immunology & Serology > MTAP IS2 > Flashcards

MTAP IS2 Flashcards

1
Q

Study of the fluid components in the blood, especially antibodies

A

Serology

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2
Q

It is the removal of complement proteins in serum

A

Serum inactivation

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3
Q

2 examples of serum inactivation

A

Heat to 56C for 30 mins

Chemical procedure: CHOLINE CHLORIDE

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4
Q

True or False:

When more than 4 hours has elapsed, the specimen is heated to 56C for 15 mins

A

FALSE

10 mins

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5
Q

What is added to the concentrate to make the reagent the proper strength for testing

A

Water/Saline

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6
Q

Dilution formula:

A

Dilution = amount of solute/total volume

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7
Q

Indicator of an antibody’s strength

A

Titer

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8
Q

Titer is the highest division that gives a ___ result

A

Positive result

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9
Q

The proportion of people who have a specific disease or condition and who have a positive test

A

Sensitivity

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10
Q

Proportion of people who do not have the disease or condition and who have a negative test

A

Specificity

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11
Q

Test that involves antigen-antibody reaction

A

Immunoassays

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12
Q

Unknown is found in the _____

A

Specimen

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13
Q

Known is found in the _____

A

Reagent

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14
Q

Detect unknown antigen in specimen by using known or commercial anti-sera

A

DIRECT immunoassay

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15
Q

Detect the presence of unknown antibodies in the serum of patient by using known commercial antigen

A

INDIRECT immunoassay

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16
Q

Type of immunologic reaction which is a combination of antigen-antibody

A

Primary

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17
Q

Primary immunologic reaction produces a _____ reaction

A

Non-visible

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18
Q

Type of immunologic reaction which demonstrate antigen-antibody reaction

A

Secondary

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19
Q

Secondary immunologic reaction occurs in vitro or in vivo?

A

IN VITRO

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20
Q

Secondary immunologic reaction produces a _____ reaction

A

Visible

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21
Q

Type of immunologic reaction which occurs in vivo

A

Tertiary

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22
Q

Examples of Secondary immunologic reaction (2)

A

Agglutination

Precipation

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23
Q

Examples of Tertiary immunologic reaction (2)

A

Phagocytosis

Opsonization

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24
Q

Precipitation reaction is first noted by who?

A

Kraus

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25
Q

Involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody

A

Precipitation reaction

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26
Q

Optimum precipitation occurs in the _____

A

zone of equivalence

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27
Q

True or False:

In the zone of equivalence the reaction is visible

A

True

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28
Q

Zone of antibody excess

A

Prozone

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29
Q

Zone of antigen excess

A

Postzone

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30
Q

Precipitation reaction that occurs in a FLUID MEDIUM

A

Light scattering

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31
Q

2 Examples of Light Scattering

A

Turbidimetry

Nephelometry

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32
Q

A measure of the turbidity or cloudiness of a solution

A

Turbidimetry

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33
Q

Measure light that is scattered in a particular angle

A

Nephelometry

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34
Q

Turbidimetry is recorded in what unit?

A

Absorbance units

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35
Q

Nephelometry is recorded in what unit?

A

mg/dL

IU/mL

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36
Q

A purified high-molecular weight complex polysaccharide derived from seaweed

A

Agarose

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37
Q

No electrical current is used but produces a longer turn-around time

A

Passive immunodiffusion

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38
Q

Rate of diffusion is affected by (4)

A

Size of particles
Temp
Gel viscosity
Hydration

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39
Q

Single Diffusion, Single Dimension is also known as what test?

A

Ouidin test

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40
Q

End result of Ouidin test

A

Precipitin line

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41
Q

Ouidin test is semi-quantitative or semi-qualitative?

A

Semi-quantitative

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42
Q

Single Diffusion, Double Dimension is also known as what test?

A

Radial Immunodiffusion

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43
Q

End result of Radial immunodiffusion

A

Precipitin ring

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44
Q

2 methods of Radial Immunodiffusion

A

Fahey & McKelvey method

Mancini method

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45
Q

Kinetic Diffusion is also known as?

A

Fahey & McKelvey method

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46
Q

Endpoint Diffusion is also known as?

A

Mancini method

47
Q

Diameter is proportional to log of conc.

A

Fahey & McKelvey method

48
Q

Square of diameter is

proportional to the conc.

A

Mancini method

49
Q

Double Diffusion, Double Dimension is also known as what test?

A

Ouchterlony Technique

50
Q

Pattern produce when there is a common epitope

A

Smooth curve

51
Q

Pattern produced when compared antigens share no common epitopes

A

Intersection

52
Q

Pattern produced when there is a partial identity

A

Spur formation

53
Q

4 Examples of Electrophoretic techniques

A

Rocket Electrophoresis
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)
Immunofixation Electrophoresis
Counter Immuno- electrophoresis (CIE)

54
Q

Other names of Rocket Electrophoresis (2)

A

Laurell Technique

One Dimension Electroimmunodiffusion

55
Q

RID + electrophoresis

A

Rocket Electrophoresis

56
Q

It is founded by Grabar + Williams

A

Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)

57
Q

Double diffusion + electrophoresis

A

Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)

58
Q

Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP) is useful in the identification of _____

A

Monoclonal proteins

59
Q

Immunoprecipitation + electrophoresis

A

Immunofixation Electrophoresis

60
Q

In Immunofixation Electrophoresis, serum samples are electrophoresed in ____ separate lanes on an agarose gel

A

Six (6)

61
Q

It will exhibit faintly staining bands

A

HYPOGAMMAGLOBULINEMIAS

62
Q

It will show darkly staining bands in

the gamma region

A

Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemias

63
Q

It will will result in dark and narrow

bands in specific lane

A

Monoclonal antibody

64
Q

Used for difficult to characterize anomalous proteins

A

Immunofixation Electrophoresis

65
Q

Better for typing large monoclonal gammopathies

A

Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)

66
Q

True or False:

Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP) is more challenging than Immunofixation Electrophoresis

A

TRUE

67
Q

Ag and Ab are placed on the well directly opposite each other

A

Counter Immuno- electrophoresis (CIE)

68
Q

In Counter Immuno- electrophoresis (CIE) the Antibody will go to ______ and the Antigen will go to _____

A 
Antibody = cathode (-)
Antigen = anode (+)
69
Q

Process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when a specific antibody is present.

A

Agglutination reactions

70
Q

Antibodies that cause agglutination

A

Agglutinins

Especially IgM

71
Q

2 step process of agglu reaction:

A
  1. Sensitization

2. Lattice formation

72
Q

Types of Agglutination reactions (5)

A 
Direct Agglutination
Passive-Indirect Agglutination
Reverse Passive Agglutination
Co-agglutination
Agglutination- Inhibition
73
Q

Antigens are found naturally on the surface of the particles

A

Direct Agglutination

74
Q

Used to serotype Salmonella species

A

Kauffman and White Serotyping

75
Q

Used for Typhoid fever

A

Widal Test

76
Q

Used for Typhus

A

Weil-Felix

77
Q

Test for detecting cold agglutinins in

Mycoplasma infection

A

Cold Agglutinin Test

78
Q

Antigen is artificially attached to a particulate carrier

A

Passive-Indirect Agglutination

79
Q

Detects: antibodies to viruses

A

Passive-Indirect Agglutination

80
Q

Antibody are attached to particulate carriers

A

Reverse Passive Agglutination

81
Q

Often used to detect microbial antigens

A

Reverse Passive Agglutination

82
Q

Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of agglutination.

A

Co-agglutination

83
Q

Carrier used in Co-agglutination

A

Bacterium

84
Q

Based on competition between particulate and soluble antigens for limited antibody combining sites

A

Agglutination- Inhibition

85
Q

Measuring the number of residual non agglutinating particles in a specimen.

A

Particle-Counting Immunoassay (PACIA)

86
Q

Specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations

A

Flocculation

87
Q

Non treponemal tests (2)

A

VDRL & RPR

88
Q

Reagin is derected using ____

A

Cardiolipin

89
Q

Measures the ability of the patient’s antibody to neutralize infectivity

A

Neutralization

90
Q

2 Types of Neutralization tests:

A

Toxin neutralization

Virus neutralization

91
Q

True or False:

Precipitation and agglutination are considered labeled assays

A

FALSE

unlabeled assays

92
Q

Antibody that can trigger complement

activation

A

complement-fixing antibody

93
Q

Postive and Negative result in Complement Fixation Test

A

Positive: No hemolysis
Negative: Hemolysis

94
Q

Designed for antigens and antibodies that may be small in size or present in very low concentrations

A

Labelled Immunoassay

95
Q

In Competitive immunoassay the amount of bound label is ______ to the concentration of the labeled
antigen

A

Inversely proportional

96
Q

In Non-Competitive immunoassay the amount of label measured is ____ to the amount of patient antigen

A

Directly proportional

97
Q

Do not need a separation step

A

Homogenous

98
Q

Types of Labeled Immunoassays (5)

A 
Radio immunoassay
Fluorescent immunoassay
Enzyme immunoassay
Rapid immunoassay
Chemiluminescent immunoassay
99
Q

Pioneered by Yalow and Berson

A

Radio immunoassay

100
Q

Most common radioactive substance

A

125I – gamma counter

101
Q

It uses SCINTILLATION COUNTER

A

Radio immunoassay

102
Q

He discovered Fluorescent immunoassay

A

Albert Coons

103
Q

FITC stands for?

A

Fluorescein isothiocyanate

104
Q

It produces a Green color

A

FITC (Fluorescein isothiocyanate)

105
Q

It produces an orange-red color

A

Tetramethyl rhodamine

106
Q

One disadvantage of this immunoassay is Quenching

A

Fluorescent immunoassay

107
Q

Process that decreases intensity of fluorescence

A

Quenching

108
Q

ANTIBODY that is conjugated with a fluorescent tag is added directly to UNKNOWN ANTIGEN that is fixed to a microscope slide

A

Direct Immunofluorescent

109
Q

FTA-ABS stands for?

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption test

110
Q

It is a specific test for syphilis

A

FTA-ABS: fluorescent treponemal

antibody-absorption test

111
Q

Naturally occurring molecules that catalyze certain biochemical reactions

A

Enzymes

112
Q

Assays in a PLASTIC CARTRIDGE

A

Rapid immunoassay

113
Q

Emission of light caused by a chemical reaction

A

Chemiluminescent immunoassay

114
Q

Uses a Luminometer

A

Chemiluminescent immunoassay

Immunology & Serology (6 decks)

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