Sergeant DAVIDSON'S recommended to learn for Sum 2 topics. Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Section 109 of the Mental Health Act 1992.

A

Police powers in relation to person appearing to be mentally disordered in public place.

(1) If any person is found wandering at large in any public place and acting in a manner that gives rise to a reasonable belief that he or she may be mentally disordered, any constable may, if he or she thinks that it would be desirable in the interests of the person or of the public to do so
(a) Take that person to a Police station, hospital, or surgery, or to some other appropriate place; and
(b) Arrange for a medical practitioner to examine the person at that place as soon as practicable.
2. If the medical practitioner clears the patient they shale be released forthwith.
5. Detention of a patient shale last no more than 6 hours or the time it takes to conduct the assessment examination, whichever is shorter.

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2
Q

Describe Section 110C of the Mental Health Act 1992

A

Powers of Police when urgent assistance required.

(1) A constable called to the assistance of a medical practitioner.
(a) may enter the premises where the person or proposed patient is and,
(b) must if not in uniform produce I.D. to the occupier.

(2) A constable who enters the premises under (1) may (a) detain the patient or person at the request of the medical practitioner.
(b) take the patient or person to another place advised by the medical practitioner and detain there.

(3) Detentions shale last no longer than 6 hours or the time it take to conduct a medical examination, administer a sedative drug or conduct an assessment examination, whichever is shorter.

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3
Q

Describe Section 41 of the Mental Health Act 1992

A

Police assistance of a Duly Appointed Officer (employees of mental health services appointed as DAO)

Pretty much the same as 109 and 110C. Constables need to assist these people the same way they assist medical practitioners in these circumstances.

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4
Q

Describe a Restricted Patient

A

These are patients who are subject to a compulsory treatment order but are
considered to present a danger to the public.

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5
Q

Describe a Special patient

A

These are patients who are detained by way of a court order if they are found
to be criminally insane or unfit to plead. The category also includes people
on remand for a psychiatric report.

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6
Q

What power may you use to stop someone you believe is suffering from a mental illness and should not be driving?

A

Section 121 LTA, FARMED

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7
Q

Who issues a Protection Order?

A

The Courts.

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8
Q

How long before a Temporary Protection Order becomes permanent if not challenged?

A

3 Months.

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9
Q

Describe “applicant” in regards to a protection order.

A

The person who is applying for the Protection order (victim). The person who is at risk from another.

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10
Q

Describe “Respondent” in regards to a protection order

A

The person of whom the Protection order is being served against.

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11
Q

What are the 3 standard conditions of a Protection Order?

A
  1. No Violence of any kind, including encouraging anyone else to be violent towards the applicant.
  2. Where parties are not living in the same dwelling house. They must not make any contact with the protected person (whether by
    telephone, electronic message, correspondence or
    otherwise) unless it is reasonably necessary in an
    emergency, or is permitted under a custody or access
    order, or under a special condition. They must also not loiter in or around any place where the applicant is known to frequent. e.g. where the applicant works or where the applicants children attend school.
  3. No weapons.
    Under section 21, the respondent must:
    • as soon as practicable after they are served with the copy of the protection
    order, but in any case no later than 24 hours after such service and
    • on demand made, at any time, by any member of the police surrender to a
    member of the police;
    • any weapon in the respondent’s possession or under the respondent’s control and
    • any firearms licence held by the respondent.
    Firearms licences held by the respondent are deemed to be:
    • suspended when a temporary protection order is issued and
    • revoked when a protection order becomes a final order.
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12
Q

What is the penalty for attempts offence?

A

Half the length for the offence they attempted to carry out. e.g. Burglary attempt would be max 5 years imprisonment.

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13
Q

What is the penalty for parties to an offence?

A

Same as the offence they were party to.

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14
Q

Under parties to offences describe “Procures”

A

Obtains, acquires or brings about

Example: Pete wants a stereo from The Warehouse. He asks Anton to steal it for him

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15
Q

Under parties to offences describe “Counsels”

A

Gives advice, instigates or plans

Example: (R v Baker) Baker wrote a letter to a friend telling him how to blow a safe. Baker was convicted of actually blowing the safe.

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16
Q

Under parties to offences describe “Incites”

A

Urges on or stirs up

Example: Pete yells at Sam “Oi punch him in the plums, bro!!”.

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17
Q

Under parties to offences describe “Abets”

A

Encourages or assists

Example: Pete gives Wiremu a taiaha to hit Jason.

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18
Q

Under parties to offences describe “Aids”

A

Helps; gives actual assistance in the commission of the offence

Example: the ‘lookout’ at a burglary

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19
Q

Flow chart for parties to offence

A

Procures
Counsels —> Abets —> Aids
Incites

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20
Q

What can the courts do if someone contravenes a PSO?

A

Reissue the same PSO
Issue a new PSO
Issue a protection order.
Do nothing.

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21
Q

Describe person at risk in a PSO.

A

The person of which the PSO is there to protect.

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22
Q

Describe the “bound person” in a PSO

A

The person of whom the PSO is taken out against.

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23
Q

What is the longest a PSO can go for?

A

5 Days

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24
Q

How long do police have to issue a PSO?

A

48 Hours

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25
Q

How long can someone be detained for to issue a PSO

A

2 Hours

26
Q

When must firearms licenses and firearms be surrendered upon a PSO being issued?

A

Immediately

27
Q

What are the elements of Possession of offensive weapons or disabling substances in a public place?
Crimes Act 1961 Section 202A(4)(a)

A

Without lawful authority or reasonable excuse.

Has with him or her.

In any public place.

Any knife OR any offensive weapon OR any disabling substance.

28
Q

What are the elements of Possession of offensive weapons or disabling substances in any place?
Crimes Act 1961 Section 202A(4)(b)

A

Has in his or her possession.

In any place.

Any offensive weapon OR any disabling substance

In circumstances that prima facie show an intention to use it to commit an offence involving bodily injury or the threat or fear of violence.

29
Q

What is a disabling substance?

A

Means any anaesthetising or other substance produced for use for disabling persons, or intended by any person having it with him or her for such use.

30
Q

What is the definition of an offensive weapon in a public place?

A

Means any article made or altered for use for causing bodily injury, or intended by the person having it with him or her for such use.

31
Q

What is the definition of an offensive weapon in any place?

A

Means any article capable of being used for causing bodily injury.

32
Q

What sections under the Search and Surveillance Act 2012 can we use to search for offensive weapons.

A

Section 27
Searching people in public places without search warrant if offence against section 202A(4)(a) of Crimes Act 1961 suspected.

Section 28
Stopping and searching vehicles without warrant if offence against section 202A of Crimes Act 1961 suspected

33
Q

What are the two types of sexual violation?

A
  1. Sexual violation by Rape

2. Sexual violation by Unlawful Sexual Connection.

34
Q

What are the elements for Indecent Assault?

A

Section 135

Indecently

Assaults

Another person.

35
Q

What are the elements for Indecent Act in a public place?

A

Section 125

Anyone who wilfully does any indecent act.

In any place

To which the public have or are permitted to have access

Or within view of any such place.

36
Q

What are the elements for Indecent Act with Intent to Insult OR Offend?

A

Section 126

With intent to insult or offend

Any person

Does any indecent act

In any place
.

37
Q

What are the elements for indecent exposure?

A

In or within view of any public place

Intentionally and Obscenely

Exposes any part of his or her genitals.

38
Q

Define Consent

A

“Consent is a person’s conscious and voluntary agreement to something desired or proposed by another.”

39
Q

What are the type of firearms license categories?

A

A: Full licence for the possession and use of conventional firearms (not pistols, restricted weapons or MSSAs)

B: Pistols, providing the owner is a member of a pistol club

C: Collections, restricted weapons and use of weapons in theatrical performances

D: Firearms dealers

E: Military style semi-automatic firearms

40
Q

How often do you need to renew a firearms license?

A

Every 10 Years

41
Q

How long have you got to update your address if you move, on your firearms license?

A

30 days

42
Q

How long do you have to produce your firearms license if asked?

A

7 days

43
Q

Define section 66 of the Arms Act

A

Occupier of premises or driver of vehicle deemed to be in possession of firearm, airgun, pistol, imitation firearm, restricted weapon, or explosive found therein

For the purposes of this Act every person in occupation of any land or building or the driver of any vehicle on which any firearm, airgun, pistol, imitation firearm, restricted weapon, or explosive is found shall, though not to the exclusion of the liability of any other person, be deemed to be in possession of that firearm, airgun, pistol, imitation firearm, restricted weapon, or explosive, unless he proves that it was not his property and that it was in the possession of some other person.

44
Q

What age are you allowed to own a air gun?

A

Between 16-18 with a firearms license and the permission of your legal guardian.

18 plus with or without firearms license

45
Q

What are the elements of Unlawful Carriage OR Possession of a Firearm OR Airgun OR Pistol OR Restricted Weapon OR Explosive?

A

Except for some lawful proper and sufficient purpose

Carries OR Is in possession of

Firearm
OR
Airgun
OR
Pistol
OR
Restricted Weapon
OR
Explosives
46
Q

What are the elements of Carrying an imitation firearm?

A

Except for some lawful proper and sufficient purpose

Carries

An imitation firearm

47
Q

What are the elements for Discharging firearm OR air gun OR pistol OR restricted weapon in or near a dwelling house OR public place?

A

Without reasonable cause

Discharges

A Firearm
OR
Air gun
OR 
Pistol
OR
Restricted weapon

In or near a dwelling house
OR
In or near a public place

So as to endanger property
OR
So as to endanger any person
OR 
So as to annoy any person
OR
So as to frighten any person
48
Q

What are the elements for Presenting a Firearm?

A

Except for some lawful and sufficient purpose

Presents

Firearm
OR
Air gun
OR
pistol
OR 
Any restricted weapon

At another person

49
Q

What are the elements for presents anything?

A

Except for some lawful and sufficient purpose

Presents

At any other person

Anything

In the circumstances, is likely to lead that person to believe that it is a

Firearm 
OR
Air gun
OR
Pistol
OR
Restricted weapon
50
Q

Define Section 40 of The Arms Act 1983

A

(1) Every person in possession of any firearm, airgun, pistol, or restricted weapon shall, on demand, give his full name, address, and date of birth to any member of the Police who is in uniform or who produces evidence that he is a member of the Police.

(2) If any person refuses to give those details the police may
(a) caution that person; and
(b) if that person continues to refuse police may arrest that person without warrant.
(3) Max penalty
3 months in imprisonment AND/OR $1000 fine.

51
Q

Describe presumption for supply (drugs)

A

The following amounts are regarded as an indication of “possession for
supply”

  • 0.5g of cocaine or heroin
  • 5g of morphine
  • 5g of methamphetamine
  • 56g of other controlled drug
  • 100 cannabis cigarettes
  • 28g of cannabis.

Possession of these drugs alone is not generally enough to prove a presumption for supply, you must also have supporting evidence, eg utensils, tick book etc

52
Q

What do you need
to prove for a
prima facie
case?

A

Possession
Knowledge
Usable Quantity

53
Q

What are the elements for Possession OR Use of Controlled Drugs?

A
Procure
OR
Possess
OR
Consume
OR 
Smoke 
OR 
Otherwise use

Any controlled drug

54
Q

What are the elements of cultivation of prohibited plants?

A

Cultivates

A prohibited plant

55
Q

What are the elements of Permits use of Premises OR Permits use of vehicle?

A

Knowingly permits

Any premises
OR
Any vehicle
OR 
Other mode of conveyance

To be used for the purpose of the commission of an offence against the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975

56
Q

What are the elements of possession of instrument (pipe or utensils)?

A

Has in his possession

Any pipe
Or
Any Utensils

For the purpose of the commission of an offence against the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975

57
Q

What are the elements of possession of instruments (syringe or needle)?

A

Has in his possession

Any syringe
OR
Any Needle

For the purpose of the commission of an offence against the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975

58
Q

What are the elements for possession of equipment, material, substances?

A

Has in his possession

Any equipment or material capable of being used in, or for, producing or manufacturing a controlled drug or in the cultivation of a prohibited plant.

OR

Any precursor substance.

With intent to use it for producing/manufacturing/cultivating a controlled drug

59
Q

What are the deaths that need to be reported to the coroner?

A
Self inflicted deaths (suicide)
Causes unknown
Unnatural deaths
Medical and surgical deaths
Birth deaths (including mothers that die giving birth)
Institutional deaths
Enactment deaths (eg corrections act)
60
Q

Define the first purpose of the three purposes of a coroners inquiry

A
  1. The fact that a person has died (COR31)
  2. The identity of the deceased. (POL265A)
  3. The cause of death (Pathologist’s report)
  4. Where and when the death occurred (POL47 or 47A)
  5. The circumstances of the death (Statements, job sheets, depositions).
61
Q

What are the three deaths that require an inquest?

A
  1. Self inflicted (suicide).
  2. Any institutional deaths.
  3. Any death in which the coroner is not satisfied that the cause or the circumstances of the death have been clearly established.