Seminars - Some Basic First Few Weeks Stuff (Dustin) Flashcards

1
Q

Polyclonal vs Monoclonal Antibody Definitions

A
  • Polyclonal: product of many different B cell clones. Antibodies recognize different epitopes of same antigen
  • Monoclonal: only 1 type of B cell products it, and antibodies are specific for only one epitope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is avidity in terms of antibodies?

A

Combined strength of many different bonds between antibodies and antigens.

IgM has high avidity because it’s a pentamer with 10 binding sites, whereas IgG only has 2 binding sites and thus lower avidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some good uses for immunodiffusion?

A

Detection of solule antigens or antibodies from body fluids

e.b. bacterial, viral antigens, transferrin, Ig classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some things that can be detected by serum electrophoresis?

A
  • Multiple myeloma: most important. Shows narrow M spike in the gamma range (monoclonal gammopathy)
  • Chronic Liver Failure
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Polyclonal gammopathies: many things with inflammation like hepatitis, AIDS, RA, endocarditis etc show broad increases in the gamma range
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Immuno electrophoresis can be used to help diagnose:

A
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Chronic Inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Direct and indirect agglutation are used to test for:

A

Direct: ABO blood group, Widal test, typhoid fever

Indirect for both ABO and Rh (Rh does not produce direct response) - used in Coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the direct and indirect Coombs test and what do they test for?

A
  • Direct Coombs: Fetal red blood cells are coated to see if they’re Rh+ coated with maternal anti-Rh IgG. Just one step: add anti-human antibodies to see if they agglutinate
  • Indirect Coombs: take maternal serum and test if it has anti-Rh antibodies by first adding Rh+ RBCs, then adding the anti-human antibodies to see if they agglutinate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What lab test is more commonly used for ABO blood groups besides the two-sided ABO test?

A

Micro-column Agglutination Test

Tube has antibodies against IgG, IgM, and C3d. Add patient blood and centrifuge.

Direct and/or indirect agglutination occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some diagnostic uses of passive agglutination?

A
  • Rheumatoid factor latex test: IgM antibodies that attack Fc receptor of IgG
  • hCG latex test (pregnancy)
  • CRP latex test: test for inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do we generate monoclonal antibodies in the lab?

A

Inject a mouse with antigen, wait for it to produce antibodies to that antigen, isolate the mouse’s B cells

Now fuse those B cells with an immortal myeloma cell

Get hybridoma cell that can produce those antibodies indefinitely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When doing immunohistochemistry, are the primary antibodies monoclonal or polyclonal?

What about the secondary antibodies?

A

Primary are monoclonal: only recognizes very specific antigen

Secondary are polyclonal: recognize many epitopes of the first Ab, are better able to give a strong signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference in method between indirect ELISA and sandwhich ELISA?

A

Indirect ELISA: starts with antigen bound to the test container. Test to see if you have antibodies to that antigen in your sample. Add secondary antibodies that label with an enzyme -> color product.

Sandwhich ELISA: starts with antibodies bound to the test container. Captures any antigens you want to test. Then add secondary antibodies to form “sandwhich” and also have enzyme -> color product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does ELISPOT work?

What is an example of something it could be used to diagnose?

A

ELISPOT is similar to Sandwich ELISA, but tests the products secreted by living cells. Has Ab against specific products of cells. Shows up as dark spots when colored enzyme added.

Example: test for latent TB by having living T-cells exposed to TB and seeing if they activate and begin secreting IFN gamma (ELISPOT has anti-IFN Abs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference between RIA and IRMA?

A

RIA: Radioimmuno Assay: Similar to Competitive ELISA, but with radioactive labeling instead of enzyme. Radiolabelled antigen competes for an unlabelled Ag binding site. More radiosignal means weaker competition (negative result)

IRMA: Immunoradiometric Assay: Similar to Sandwich ELISA. Stronger signal = more antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the advantage of confocal microscopy vs traditional light microscopy?

A

Confocal microscopy allows 3D imaging.

The light is focused on specific points and a laser-scanning microscope can read those with multiple images that combine to show the object in 3 dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of specimens are immunofluorescence ideal for?

A

Sections / microscope slides with cells

IF uses immunohistochemistry (normally indirect but potentially also direct) to label antigens, light them up or color them to be visible with microscopy. For example, can identify B cell lymphoma with anti-CD20 Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does Western Blot work?

A
  1. SDS PAGE: Take bio sample of cell lysate, separate the proteins from it with gel electrophoresis. Use SDS to neutralize their charges
  2. Blotting: Transfer to a blot/membrane to prevent the pattern from changing via diffusion
  3. Labeling: Use primary and secondary antibodies to label
18
Q

How does a lateral flow test work?

A
  1. Get antibodies for the antigen you want to target, attach those antibodies to a colored latex bead (passive agglutination)
  2. On a strip, have one “control” antibody section that targets the antibodies themselves to see if your latex-Ab thing works.
  3. Also put your “test” antibody section that binds the Ag-Ab mix
  4. If you see both the “control” and “test” sections as colored, then you have a positive result on a working test
19
Q

What can the lateral flow test be used for?

(many things, and this was an MCQ question on my midterm.. lot of things)

A
  • H. pylori IgG - Rapid test
  • Pregnancy test (hCG)
  • Rotavirus
  • Adenovirus
  • Hemoglobin – Fecal occult blood
  • Helicobacter pylori stool antigen
  • Morphine (300 ng) Test
  • E. Coli O antigen
  • HIV
20
Q

What (generally, like what types of things), can the following lab techniques measure:

  • ELISA, RIA, IRMA, lateral flow
  • ELISPOT
  • Western Blot
  • Immunocytochemistry
A
  • ELISA, RIA, IRMA, lateral flow: soluble antigens from body fluids (urine, blood etc)
  • ELISPOT: products of secretory cells
  • Western Blot: soluble proteins from lysed cells
  • Immunocytochemistry: cell/tissue antigens in situ
21
Q

What are two absolute indications to use flow cytometry for routine clinical measurements?

A
  1. Hematological disorders: diagnosis of Leukemia and recurrence, multidrug resistance, minimal residual disease (MRD), monitoring bone marrow transplantation
  2. Immunodeficiencies: like AIDS
22
Q

What are the 2 most important things about a cell that flow cytometry tells us?

(gonna list the 2 minor things on the answer card too but dont worry about it)

A
  1. Size: How big the cell is relatively. Comes out as forward scatter
  2. Granularity: deflects light, comes out as side scatter. Distinguishes granulocytes

(other two minor things: relative light intensity and time)

23
Q

Scatter plot: try to identify which cells are where

A
24
Q

Which CD markers are used in flow cytometry to identify:

NKT

NK

γδT

B

B1

A

NKT: CD3+ CD56+

NK: CD3-, CD56+

γδT: CD3+, γδTCR+, CD4 and 8 -

B: CD19

B1: CD5+

25
Q

Which markers are used in flow cytometry to identify:

Th1

Th2

Th17

Treg

(this one is a lot harder)

A

Th1: IFNγ+, IL-12+, TNFα, β +

Th2: IL-4,5,10,13 +

Th17: IL-17 +, TGF β+

Treg: CD25+, CD4+, Foxp3+

26
Q

What type of graph/test is this?

What is the purpose of this particular graph?

If the CD3+ section shifts upwards (higher peak), what does that mean? What if the CD3+ peak is the same, but it all shifts to the left?

A

FCM histogram

  • Shows difference between T cells and others that are CD3-, with the ratio of antigen presenting cells.
  • Higher peak = more T cells expressing CD3+
  • Shifts to the left = less antigen is expressed per T cell
27
Q

Which part of cells does immunophenotyping use to identify them?

A

Their protein pattern

28
Q

CD3 is X axis, CD4 is Y axis

So which box represents Th cells and which represents Tc cells?

A

Th is top right box

Tc is bottom right box, also maybe some γδT

Others are various cells that are negative for both, or a few CD4+ non-T cells (some monocytes, macrophages, etc have CD4)

29
Q

What is this graph a representation of, and what technique is done to make this graph?

What important information does it give you?

A

Cell Cycle Analysis** via **Propidium Iodide (PI) Staining

Stains DNA, shows # of DNA molecules. The normal 46 are in G0G1 stage. Some are replicating and have 2x. Very few are between, in S phase. Others have less than 46 and are in apoptosis.

The below graph shows cancer with S phase and G2/M elevation. Particularly diagnostic for bone marrow cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemias.

30
Q

How can a multidrug resistance protein (for example, one that expels antibiotics from bacteria) be tested with FCM analysis? (2 ways)

A
  1. Detection by immunophenotyping: antibodies that target the protein
  2. Provide immuofluorescent substrates to see how well the protein is able to expell them. It will be brighter if it does not expell the substrate.
31
Q

If you want to check for HIV infection with ELISA, what would you check with the indirect ELISA method?

What would you check with the sandwich ELISA method?

A

Indirect ELISA: check for anti-HIV IgG antibodies. Lets you know if the infection is older

Sandwich ELISA: detect HIV virus protein (antigen) from serum. Will be positive earlier in infection

If sandwich ELISA is positive but indirect is negative, then you have a more recent infection

32
Q

How do we check for the presence of complement system via lysis of red blood cells?

A
  1. Sheep RBCs + anti-RBC antibodies -> agglutination of those RBCs, which condense to bottom of tube
  2. Add human (test) serum: the RBCs are then lysed via the classical pathway of complement activation, turning the tube red
  3. If you do the same at a higher temperature, it doesnt work because complement proteins are denatured
33
Q

The complement fixation (consumption) test tests for what?

How does it work?

A

Tests if there are serum antibodies for a particular antigen

  1. Add the antigen and complement into test tube, then add serum. If the person has antibodies to that antigen, the complement will become “fixed” to the Ab-Ag complex
  2. Add Sheep RBCs plus anti-sheep RBC antibodies.

If complement was fixed to the original Ab-Ag complex, then there will be no complement to lyse the cells (postive result). If the there was cell lysis (tube turns red), then the serum lacked that antibody and complement attacked and lysed the sheep RBCs (negative result)

34
Q

What does the CH50 test check for?

A

Tests the concentration of complement proteins by which testing serum dilution lyses 50% of sheep RBCs.

All complement proteins (C1-C9) need to be present to form MAC.

Typical value is 142-279

35
Q

When would the CH50 be high?

When would it be low?

A

CH50 high: acute inflammation only. C1, C3, CRP etc are acute phase proteins. Chronic inflammation is normalized

CH50 low: genetic defects, liver insufficiency, autoimmune diseases or others that use up complement

36
Q

What is the major complication of complement defects that impair MAC?

What about defects of C3b that impair phagocytosis?

A

Impaired MAC: only causes recurrent Neisseria infections

Impaired C3b: recurrent bacterial infections in general

(Other complement defects can cause rheumatological disorders, glumerulonephritis, and generalized edema)

37
Q

If C3 level and C4 level are reduced, what does that indicate?

What if only C3 is reduced, while C4 is normal?

A

Both C3 and C4 reduced: the classical pathway has been activated

Only C3 reduced: the alternative pathway has been activated (doesnt use C4)

38
Q

What is defective with HANE?

A

C1 inhibitor is defective in hereditary angioedema (HANE)

C1 complex continuously made, but more importantly C1 inhibitor also inhibits kallikrein. Without it, bradykinin is overproduced, causing similar edema effects to histamine.

They receive normal serum as treatmnet because it has C1 inhibitor.

39
Q

Syncitiotrophoblasts, fibroblasts, keratinocytes, endothelial cells, and mesangial cells are not typically considered part of the immune system. However, they all can secrete which interleukin?

A

IL-6

The main acute phase reaction cytokine

(IL-1 can replace its function if it’s deficient)

40
Q

Chemokines: the names below are based on their structure. What are the other names?

CXCL8

CCL5

A

CXCL8: IL-8

(IL-8 is most important chemokine to know. Released by macrophages at first-line defense, attracts neutrophils)

CCL5: RANTES

41
Q

Lymphocyte extravasation: a naive T cell will keep rolling along HEV with weak connections until it encounters what?

A

Until it encounters an activating chemokine that activates lymphycte and begins having conformational change of integrin molecules. This will begin adhesion, and then transendothelial migration will follow

42
Q

Why don’t HeLa cells form a monolayer when doing cell cultures with them?

A

Because they lack contact inhibition