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Semester 5 > Semester 5 Nursing > Flashcards

Semester 5 Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

Puerperal sepsis is a _____ infection of any part of the female reproductive tract following child brith or miscarriage

A

Bacterial

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2
Q

Scientific mothering is when?

A

women seek scientific/medical advice regarding proper mothering techniques

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3
Q

What does the term wedlock mean?

A

The state of being married

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4
Q

Frederick Truby King established what society in NZ?

A

RNZ plunket society

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5
Q

What year was the plunket society established?

A

1907

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6
Q

Which Prime Minister established the welfare state 1930-1960?

A

Michael Joseph Savage

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7
Q

Who set up state housing in NZ?

A

PM Michael Joseph Savage

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8
Q

____ rights were seen in the 1960s

A

womens

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9
Q

What year was the child health program review?

A

1998

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10
Q

Bill English established the ____ ____ strategy in 1998

A

Child Health

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11
Q

In what year was the agenda for children introduced?

A

2002

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12
Q

The UNICEF innocenti report card- 6 dimensions of child wellbeing reports that NZ has the ____ to worst teen pregnancy rates

A

2nd!!!

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13
Q

The ‘triple jeopardy’ by Asher 2008 identifies what three things that effect people in NZ (3 P’S)

A
  1. Poor access to health care
  2. Poor housing
  3. Poverty
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14
Q

The three most common causes of death in young people aged 15-24 include

A

Injury
Suicide
Cancer

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15
Q

The three most common causes of death in infants include

A

SIDS
Congenital anomalies
Suffocation in bed

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16
Q

What is the name of the contemporary indigenous health initiative in NZ driven by Maori Cultural values?

A

Whanau Ora

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17
Q

Between what years were health targets introduced into NZ?

A

2007-2008

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18
Q

What risk factor is the most common from preventing children/youth from reaching optimal health

A

Smoking

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19
Q

The 3 most common hormones in pregnancy are?

A
  1. Beta HCG
  2. Oestrogen
  3. Progesterone
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20
Q

Where is Beta HCG produced

A

The placenta

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21
Q

When the uterus enlarges during pregnancy what effects does it have on the respiratory system?

A

Diaphragmatic breathing due to increased pressure and hyperventilation due to the increased tidal volume

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22
Q

During pregnancy why does cardiac output increase?

A

Because the mother needs an increased blood flow to the placenta

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23
Q

If CO increased what other 2 factors will increase

A

HR & SV

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24
Q

Is it normal for blood pressure to drop during pregnancy?

A

Yes because of wide spread vasodilation due to pregnancy hormones

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25
Q

As plasma volume increases due to pregnancy it contributes to peripheral ____

A

oedema

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26
Q

The mothers plasma volume will most likely increase by __ to ___ %

A

40 to 50 %

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27
Q

RBC often decrease by ___ % which may lead to___?

A

25 % & anaemia

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28
Q

Why does the mothers RBC decrease?

A

Because the plasma volume increases

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29
Q

During pregnancy do clotting factors increase or decrease ?

A

Increase

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30
Q

An increase in clotting factors leads to what risk factor for pregnant women?

A

Deep vein thrombosis

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31
Q

What muscoskeletal changes can be seen during pregnancy? (Name 5)

A
  1. Abdominal cavity growth
  2. Lorodosis
  3. Carpel tunnel syndrome
  4. Sciatica due to compression of nerve
  5. Muscle cramping
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32
Q

What are the 4 most common effects pregnancy has on the skin/dermatological function?

A
  1. Stretch marks
  2. Increased pigmentation
  3. Spiderangiodema
  4. Flushing
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33
Q

What gland increases in function to produce more hormones during pregnancy?

A

Pituitary gland

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34
Q

______ gland hypertrophy causes an increase in _____ secretion which may result in a mucus ____

A

Cervical - mucus - plug

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35
Q

What hormone causes vaginal lactobacilli proliferation, reducing vaginal pH and protecting it from pathogens?

A

Oestrogen

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36
Q

Hormones and breast changes
______ allows for the lactiferous duct system of the breast to develop
______ causes the breast lobules to enlarge

A

Oestrogen

Progesterone

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37
Q

The breast lobule cells create what?

A

Milk

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38
Q

Renal blood flow increases by 40% during pregnancy

True or false?

A

True

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39
Q

Two common complication from an increase in renal blood flow/ increased GFR include?

A

Incontinence and polyuria

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40
Q

The hormone progesterone or oestrogen? causes the renal ureters to dilate/constrict? allowing for more filtrate to pass through

A

Progesterone - dilate

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41
Q

What type of muscle does progesterone relax?

A

Smooth Muscle

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42
Q

The smooth muscle relaxation caused by progesterone and increased pressure in the abdomen may result in one main gastrointestinal complication known as _____

A

GORD

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43
Q

Once an egg is fertilised it is known as a?

A

Zygote

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44
Q

When zygote cells begin to divide it forms a ___cyst?

A

Blastocyst

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45
Q

How long to blastocysts float around the uterus for?

A

1 day

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46
Q

On what day following ovulation does implantation of the blastocyst occur?

A

Day 5

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47
Q

The blastocyst has 3 layers of cells

True or false?

A

False it has 2

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48
Q

The inner layer of blastocyst cells will become the ____ following fertalisation

A

Foetus

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49
Q

The outer layer of blastocyst cells will become the foetal part of the placenta following fertilisation and are now known as ___?

A

Trophoblast cells

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50
Q

What hormone other than oestrogen and progesterone are tested for to detect pregnancy?

A

HCG- Human chorionic gonadotropin

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51
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin is released by the ____blasts

A

trophoblasts

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52
Q

If a pregnant women in her third trimester had a blood tests done, would her haematocrit be increased or decreased?

A

Decreased because plasma volume is higher then RBC volume

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53
Q

A decreased haematocrit is considered normal in pregnancy resulting in physiological anaemia of pregnancy ? True or false ?

A

True!!!

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54
Q

A pregnant woman heart rate usually increases by how many bpm to compensate for the extra blood flow?

A

20 bpm

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55
Q

Is it normal for a pregnant woman to have mild cardiac hypertrophy?

A

Yes because of the increased blood flow resulting in an increased HR, SV and CO. The hypertrophy will decrease after delivery

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56
Q

What hormone causes vasodilation?

A

Progesterone

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57
Q

Is a low blood pressure or high blood pressure normal in pregnancy?

A

Low! because progesterone causes vasodilation

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58
Q

The enlarging uterus may push up on the pelvic veins which may result in ______ veins and peripheral _____

A

Varicose veins and peripheral oedema

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59
Q

If the uterus enlarges and pushes on the bladder it will cause?

A

Frequent urination

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60
Q

Do the kidneys size increase during pregnancy? why? why not?

A

Yes because of the increased blood flow - its a compensatory mechanism

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61
Q

Hydroureter is the term known for?

A

Enlarged ureters

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62
Q

Do pregnant women experience milk respiratory alkalosis or acidosis ? and why?

A

alkalosis

Because progesterone relaxes the thorax muscles which increases tidal volume and decreases CO levels in the blood.

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63
Q

Resp alkalosis enables the _____ transfer to the foetus

A

oxygen

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64
Q

Oestrogen increases or decreases vascularisation? which causes sinus congestion and nose bleeds true or false?

A

Increases - true

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65
Q

Smooth muscle relaxation caused by progesterone decreases or increases peristalsis which causes ____?

A

decreases - constipation

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66
Q

What is the hormone responsible for milk production?

A

Prolactin

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67
Q

Melanocyte stimulating hormone is released from the anterior pituitary gland which causes the areola to ____ and the line down the stomach to darken known as the linea ___

A

Darken - Nigra

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68
Q

The hager sign is seen when the ?

A

Uterus softens

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69
Q

What does the term lordosis refer to?

A

Lower back pain due to curving inward of the spine from weight of foetus

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70
Q

The sperm penetrates the ____ _____ using enzymes on its head

A

Zona pellucida

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71
Q

The outer layer of an ovum is known as the?

A

Corna Radiata

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72
Q

Name 5 of the common cardinal signs of pregnancy

A
  1. Amenorrhea
  2. Nausea and vomiting
  3. Breast tenderness
  4. Lethargy
  5. Polyuria
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73
Q

What causes nausea and vomiting in pregnant women?

A

Fluctuation of hormones

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74
Q

What does the term chloasma refer to ?

A

Dark patches forming on the skin during pregnancy (usually on the face)

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75
Q

What is the medical term for stretch marks

A

Striae gravidarum

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76
Q

What does the term hyperplasia mean?

A

Enlarged organ

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77
Q

The maternal foetal circulation consists of 1 umbilical vein and 2 umbilical arteries True or false ?

A

True

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78
Q

The 2 umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated or oxygenated? blood away from the foetus to the _____

A

deoxygenated - placenta

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79
Q

The medical term for enlarged kidneys is?

A

Hydronephrosis

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80
Q

What hormone increases the RAAS

A

Oestrogen

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81
Q

What is ptyalism

A

Excessive production of saliva

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82
Q

An amniocentesis is preformed at week ?

A

Week 12

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83
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

An agent that causes malformation of an embryo

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84
Q

Give 3 examples of teratogens

A
  1. Chemicals
  2. Medications
  3. Infections
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85
Q

When a baby does not grow to normal foetal weight during pregnancy it is known as?

A

Intra-uterine growth restriction

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86
Q

The two stages of the prenatal period include

A

Embryonic period and foetal period

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87
Q

As the uterus enlarges and pushes on the pelvic veins _____ ____ and _____ _____ may occur

A

Varicose veins

Peripheral Oedema

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88
Q

Physiological anaemia in pregnancy causes what two complications for mother & baby?

A

Baby being born preterm or with a low birth weight

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89
Q

A low level of oxygen in the blood? and tissues? caused by anaemia are known as

A

Hypoxemia - blood

Hypoxia - tissues

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90
Q

Signs and symptoms of anaemia/hypoxemia/hypoxia include?

A

Pallor
Claudication
Hyperventilation
Lethargy

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91
Q

Claudication is when the mother experiences ?

A

Cramping pain in her leg caused by obstruction of an artery

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92
Q

Diaphosphoglycerate or DPG works by controlling the movement of oxygen or carbon dioxide? from RBC’s into the bodies tissues or cells?

A

Oxygen - Tissues

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93
Q

Magnesium deficiency leaves pregnant women susceptible to ? Therefore magnesium sulphate is often prescribed if women have preeclampsia

A

Seizures/ eclampsia

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94
Q

Nifedipine is a _____ _____ blocker

A

Calcium channel

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95
Q

Nifedipine is often prescribed for pregnancy induced hypertension and preeclampsia. What is its mode of action?

A

Calcium channel blockers (Nifedipine) work by blocking calcium channels, reducing calcium ions which relaxes the cardiac muscle (myometrium) and relaxes arterial smooth muscle, reducing the hearts workload and decreasing BP

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96
Q

What are the two main causes of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  1. Hormone imbalances

2. Gastroperisis/gastric dysrhythmias

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97
Q

Gastroparesis occurs when? and results in?

A

There is slow emptying of solid food from the stomach and results in nausea and vomiting

98
Q

Intrahepatic cholestasis is the medical condition occurring in the ____ trimester of pregnancy and is characterised by _____ from _____ cells building up in the liver and impairing ____ function

A
  1. Third
  2. Bile
  3. Liver
  4. Liver
99
Q

Haemolysis is the term known for?

A

Ruptured RBC’s

100
Q

The 2 main symptoms of cholecystitis are

A
  1. Pruritus (severe itchy skin)

2. Jaundice

101
Q

Cholecystitis is when there is _____ of the gall bladder

A

inflammation

102
Q

Which vitamin is used in the treatment of cholecystitis ?

A

Vitamin K

103
Q

Placenta abruption is when?

A

The placenta detaches from the uterus and is a medical emergency

104
Q

When a pregnant women has bleeding within the first 20 weeks of pregnancy it is known as a?

A

Threatened abortion

105
Q

B-HCG is made by the?

A

Placenta during pregnancy

106
Q

What does PAPP-A stand for (antenatal test)

A

Pregnancy associated plasma protein - A

107
Q

True or false, toxoplasmosis is a disease which is caused by an infection of the toxoplasma gondii parasite and is an optional antenatal test?

A

True!

108
Q

When a baby’s neural tube does not form properly causing defects in the spinal cord and bones of the spine it is known as which medical condition?

A

Spina bifida

109
Q

Which form of ultrasound is used to identify maternal and foetal blood flow?

A

A doppler

110
Q

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is performed how?

A

By inserting a needle into the mothers abdomen guided by ultrasound into the umbilical cord to extract some foetal blood for testing

111
Q

Pre-eclampsia only effects women after __ weeks gestation and can occur after __ weeks following delivery

A

20 - 6

112
Q

What are the 2 characteristics of preeclampsia ?

A
  1. Hypertension

2. Proteinuria

113
Q

Which is not a symptom of preeclampsia ?

Hypertension, peripheral oedema, nocturia, urinary retention, and proteinuria

A

Nocturia

114
Q

Name 4 risk factors for developing preeclampsia ?

A
  1. Pre exisiting HTN
  2. Age above 35 years
  3. First pregnancy
  4. Obesity
115
Q

Complete the sentence: Normally during pregnancy the spiral arteries dilate __ to __ times their normal size and develop into large uritalplacental arteries to allow for an _____ blood flow to the ____.

A

5 to 10 times
Increased
Foetus

116
Q

Complete the sentence: In pre-eclampsia these spirals become _____ causing them to ____ resulting in a decreased _____ _____ to the placenta. This hypoperfusion may result in _____ _____ _____ and foetal _____.

A 
Fibrous 
Narrow 
Blood flow 
Intrauterine growth restriction 
Death
117
Q

True or false? In pre-eclampsia the hypoperfused placenta results in the release of pro inflammatory mediators which cause the endothelial lining to dysfunction resulting in vasodilation and HTN

A

False

- It is vasoconstriction!!!

118
Q

When diagnosing pre-eclampsia the mothers systolic BP must be above? and her diastolic must be above?

A

140mmHg

90mmHg

119
Q

Can there be local areas of vasospasm during pre-eclampsia ? Yes or no ?

A

Yes

120
Q

Due to vasospasm during pre-eclampsia the decreased blood flow can cause damage to the glomereolus resulting in what?

A

Proteinuria

Oliguria

121
Q

Endothelial cell damage from pre-eclampsia may also cause the formation of tiny thrombi/clots which cause RBCs to slam against the clot and one another resulting in RBC destruction, this is known as the _ _ _ _ _ syndrome and is a common complication of pre-eclampsia

A 
HELLP 
Haemolysis 
Elevated 
Liver enzymes 
Low 
Platelets
122
Q

Why can a women with pre-eclampsia develop eclampsia ?

A

This is because the damaged endothelium allows more fluid to pass in and out, resulting in peripheral, pulmonary and CEREBRAL oedema, this cerebral oedema is what can cause seizures to occur

123
Q

What is the preferred choice of treatment for eclampsia ? and if this is contraindicated what other medication may be used ?

A

Magnesium sulphate

Lorazepam (benzodiazepine drug that produces a calming effect)

124
Q

When a fertilised egg implants outside of the uterus for example in the fallopian tube it is known as ?

A

An ectopic pregnancy

125
Q

If symptomatic symptoms will include?

A

Abdominal pain
Tachycardia
Shock
Nausea and vomiting

126
Q

Name 4 risk factors predisposing women to developing an ectopic pregnancy

A
  1. IUD
  2. previous EP
  3. Salpingitis
  4. Pelvic inflammatory disease
127
Q

Chronic inflammation of the fallopian tube is known as?

A

Salpingitis

128
Q

What are the 2 most common complications on an EP?

A

Rupture and infection from surgery

129
Q

Why would a Beta HCG test be performed every 48 hours when diagnosing an EP?

A

Because the BHCG level should double every 48 hours if the pregnancy is viable

130
Q

If the mother is asymptomatic, no treatment may be put in place, however if symptomatic the chemotherapy agent methotrexate may be used which ____ rapidly divining cells, or _____ may be performed especially if the EP has _____.

A

Inhibits, surgery, ruptured

131
Q

Premature labour has many causes, name 4 of them

A
  1. Stress
  2. Inflammation or infection which induces labour
  3. Placental abruption (when the placenta detaches from the uterus)
  4. Uterine distension from e.g. twins or polyhydramnios (stretching of myometrium causes contractions)
132
Q

Placental abruption causes premature labour because?

A

The bleeding from the placenta detaching from the uterine wall causes the uterus to contract, which slows the bleeding but induces labour

133
Q

Premature labour is before __ weeks

A

37 weeks

134
Q

What are the complications for babys who are born premature?

A

cerebral palsy, developmental delays, impaired learning and visual issues

135
Q

tocolytic therapy may be used (however is not common) to delay delivery until steroids have taken effect, true or false?

A

True

136
Q

Steroids such as glucocorticoids are given so that the infants _____ develop fast before delivery and promote the creation of ______ which prevents the _____ from collapsing

A

Lungs, surfactant & alveoli

137
Q

An increased amount of amniotic fluid is known as?

A

Polyhydramnios

138
Q

Amniotic fluid is produced by the foetuses ?

A

Liver

139
Q

True or false? If the polyhydramnios does not correct itself, problems with the baby are suspected

A

True

140
Q

At 38 weeks the mother should have ___ L of amniotic fluid

A

One litre

141
Q

If bleeding occurs before 24 weeks it is called? and after 24 weeks its called?

A

Threatened abortion

Antepartum haemorrhage

142
Q

What may cause an antepartum haemorrhage?

A

A threatened abortion, ectopic pregnancy, placenta previa and placental abruption

143
Q

Name 4 complications of an antepartum haemorrhage

A
  1. Foetal death
  2. Anaemia
  3. Sepsis
  4. Acute kidney injury
144
Q

If a mother looses over ____mL of blood following a natural birth and over 1000mL of blood following a c section it is classed as a postpartum haemorrhage

A

500 mL

1000mL

145
Q

It is hard to tell how much blood has been lost following birth, however common characteristic include a 10% decrease in haematocrit levels, hypertension, and decreased O2 sats

A

False! should be hypotension

146
Q

What are the 4 T’s that cause a post partum haemorrhage?

A
  1. Tone (soft uterus)
  2. Trauma (damage to genitals)
  3. Tissue (placental fragments)
  4. Thrombin (clotting condition)
147
Q

What is the common medication class used to stop bleeding (think of clotting)

A

Thrombolytic’s

148
Q

Treating a post partum haemorrhage would include ____massage, medication use, ______ transfusion and _____ and _____ replacement

A

Uterine, blood, fluid and electrolyte

149
Q

What is placenta previa ?

A

When the placenta implants over the lower uterus close to the cervical os (Normally the placenta implants at the top of the uterus- fundus)

150
Q

Because the placenta is attached at the bottom of the uterus the chance for ______ is much higher after 20 weeks gestation

A

Bleeding

151
Q

Is it true that the only known causes for placenta previa is uterine damage from previous pregnancies and poorly vascularised endometrium?

A

Yes

152
Q

What are the 3 most common complications arising from placenta previa

A

Blood loss
Premature labour
Foetal hypoxia

153
Q

How can placenta previa be diagnosed ? (1 method)

A

Ultrasound

154
Q

Severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy is known as ?

A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

155
Q

What is the cause of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Fast increase in hormones

156
Q

Anaemia in pregnancy may result in ______ of the blood and ______ of the tissues

A

Hypoxemia

Hypoxia

157
Q

What is the biggest risk of anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Having a preterm baby

158
Q

The cause of gestational diabetes is?

A

The placenta produces hormones such as growth hormone and placental lactogen which causes a decrease in insulin sensitivity

159
Q

Is GDM insulin resistant or dependent ?

A

Resistant

160
Q

Does the mothers increased BGLs effect the foetus?

A

Yes the foetus also has their glucose levels increased resulting in an increase in insulin secretion which means more glucose is taken up by the cells resulting in macrosomia

161
Q

Is GDM usually asymptomatic ?

A

Yes

162
Q

There are two tests done to determine/diagnose GDM, what are they

A

Oral glucose tolerance test - Polycose test - non fasting test 50g
Fasting blood glucose test.

163
Q

In a fasting blood glucose test the BGL is taken after fasting then __ hours after a __g glucose load is given

A

2 hours

75g

164
Q

In a fasting blood glucose test the mothers BGL should be below ?

A

9.0mmol/L

165
Q

What are some of the management/treatment options for GDM?

A

Diet and exercise
Oral hypoglycemic medications e.g. metformin
Insulin

166
Q

Does insulin cross the placenta?

A

No !

167
Q

Does the oral hypoglycemic medication metformin cross the placenta ?

A

Yes however it does not effect the child

168
Q

Name 4 complications for the baby with a mother who has GDM?

A
  1. Macrosomia
  2. Shoulder dystocia (because of macrosomia)
  3. Hyperbilirubinemia (due to an increase in cells in blood)
  4. Respiratory distress syndrome (risk of)
169
Q

Name 4 complications for the mother with GDM

A
  1. C section
  2. Risk of developing T2 DM
  3. Increased risk of infection
  4. Hypertension
170
Q

If the foetus has an increase in glucose and it begins excreting glucose in the urine causing polyuria causing an increase in amniotic fluid the mother is at risk of developing

A

Polyhydramnios

171
Q

Cholestasis is another abnormal complication arising from pregnancy, cholestasis can be classed into 2 sub groups _____ cholestasis and _____ cholestasis

A

Hepatocellular and obstructive

172
Q

What does cholestasis mean ?

A

Bile inactivity

173
Q

Which hormone inhibits bile secretion?

A

Oestrogen, hence why cholestasis may occur in pregnancy

174
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a mother with cholestasis ?

A

Jaundice, pruritis, light coloured stool (urobilinogen) and biliurine, liver enzymes may be elevated due to liver damage

175
Q

What is cholecystitis ?

A

Inflammation of the gall bladder

176
Q

Why may cholecystitis occur in pregnancy?

A

Because gall stones may be blocking the opening of the gall bladder

177
Q

Gametogenesis is the formation of gametes and can be further divided into _________ and ________

A

Spermatogenesis (production of sperm cells) and oogenesis (production of an ovum)

178
Q

Spermatogenesis begins with what hormone?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone

179
Q

Which two hormones does the pituitary gland secrete following stimulation from gonadotropin releasing hormone?

A

LH & FSH

180
Q

Is the following process correct?
1. Inside the seminiferous tubules the spermatogonium produces a spermatocyte 2. this primary spermatocyte (diploid 46 chroms) undergoes meiosis I creating the 3. Secondary spermatocyte (haploid 32 chroms) which undergoes 4. meiosis II creating four spermatids and then 5. 4 sperm cells

A

Yes it is !

181
Q

Where are sperm cells stored ?

A

The epididymus

182
Q

The ______ turns into the _____ oocyte which then, when the girl reaches puberty will undergo meiosis I to produce a _____ oocyte. The secondary oocyte will remain in metaphase II of meiosis until the____ enters the egg.

A

Oogonium, primary, secondary and sperm

183
Q

What three hormones facilitate glandular tissue growth in the breasts for breast feeding?

A

Human placental lactogen (placenta)
Progesterone (placenta)
Prolactin (anterior pituitary gland)

184
Q

True or false? Normally when prolactin is secreted progesterone prevents milk let down, therefore once the placenta is delivered and the progesterone reduces, milk let down can occur for breastfeeding?

A

True !

185
Q

What stimulates milk let down once the progesterone has decreased?

A

The baby latching and sucking

186
Q

What role does oxytocin play in breastfeeding ?

A

Oxytocin acts on myoepithelial cells which squeeze milk out into the ducts

187
Q

What are the three steps of an induction of labour?

A
  1. Prostaglandin gel/pessary(tablet) into vagina
  2. ARM (Artificial rupture of membranes)
  3. Oxytocin
188
Q

Why is a prostaglandin gel/pessary used?

A

To ripen the cervix

189
Q

What does oxytocin cause?

A

Uterine contractions

190
Q

Name the most common risk of medical induction and how it is treated ?

A

Foetal distress and is treated by carrying out an emergency c section

191
Q

Name 5 indications for an indiction of labour

A
  1. Post maturity - foetus older then 41 weeks
  2. Pre-eclampsia
  3. Rupture of membranes without onset of labour
  4. GDM
  5. Infection
192
Q

When the baby is born with its head down it is known as the ______ position

A

Vertex

193
Q

During middle active labour the mother will have 1 contraction every ____ minutes which last between ___ and ____ seconds

A

2-3 mins lasting 45-60 seconds

194
Q

How many stages of labour are there ?

A

3 + 4th which is bonding time

195
Q

Muscle contractions, cervix ripening and baby being pushed down by contractions is known as what stage?

A

The first stage

196
Q

The second stage of labour involves

A

The birth of the baby

197
Q

The third stage of labour involves

A

Delivering the placenta

198
Q

Uterotonic drugs may be given in the third stage of labour and promote

A

uterine contractions

199
Q

When bleeding occurs after delivery caused by a soft, distended and poor muscular toned uterus it is called a _____ post partum haemorrhage

A

Atonic

200
Q

Risk factors for a PPH include ?

A

Retained placenta, multiple pregnancies (high parity= # of children) and placenta previa

201
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of PPH

A

Visible bleeding, pallor, decreased BP, altered LOC, bloated uterus

202
Q

PPH management may include: Rub up a contraction, oxytocin, emptying of the uterus, surgery and possible resuscitation of the mother, true or false?

A

True

203
Q

What pain relief strategies may be used ? (non pharmacological and pharmacological)

A
  1. Heat or cold therapy
  2. Inhaled nitrous oxide
  3. Epidural
  4. IM pethidine
204
Q

How long to c sections traditionally take?

A

40 to 60 minutes from start to finish

205
Q

How long is the recovery period following a c/s?

A

4-6 weeks

206
Q

Name 4 reasons for a c/s

A
  1. Foetal distress
  2. Macrosomia
  3. Breech position
  4. Placenta previa
207
Q

What are 5 risks of a c/s for the mother?

A
  1. Infection
  2. Haemorrhage
  3. Reduced fertility
  4. Longer recovery time
  5. Emotional trauma
208
Q

What are 3 risks of c/s for baby

A
  1. Respiratory distress syndrome
  2. Separation from mother
  3. Injury to baby
209
Q

What percentage of mothers experience the baby blues?

A

50-80%

210
Q

How long due the baby blues usually last for?

A

1-3 days

211
Q

When the uterus changes from a pregnant state to a non pregnant state it is known as?

A

Involution

212
Q

The term autolysis refers to the destruction of ____ or tissues by their own ____

A

Cells - Enzymes

213
Q

Decudia is the uterine lining during pregnancy, true or false ?

A

True

214
Q

The term ‘lochia’ refers to ?

A

Vaginal discharge after giving birth

215
Q

There are 3 stages of discharge following delivery they are lochia ____ lochia ____ and linea ____

A

Rubra - red (3-4 days)
Serosa - pink (4-10 days)
Alba - yellow/white (10-28 days)

216
Q

How many days does it take for the cervix to return back to small slit?

A

4 days

217
Q

The perineum is located where ?

A

between the anus and the vagina

218
Q

What are the best treatments of perineal pain?

A
  1. Ice packs for first 24 hours
  2. Analgesia
  3. Hygiene
  4. Positioning
  5. Rest
219
Q

The mothers cardiac output increases by ___ to ___% following birth and returns to normal in 1 hour

A

80-100%

220
Q

Following pregnancy is a mother at higher or lower risk of of VTE? why?

A

Yes because there is increased blood coagulation activity

221
Q

When mammary glands change from a non secretory to a secretory state it is known as ?

A

Lactogenesis

222
Q

The medical term for milk production is?

A

Galactopoiesis

223
Q

The APGAR test stands for ?

A 
Activity - should be active 
Pulse - should be over 100bpm
Grimace (reflexes) - should have a prompt responce to stimulation 
Appearance- Pink
Respiration- Crying
224
Q

In regards to the foetuses heart the foramen ovale lies between the ____ and _____ _____

A

Right and left atria

225
Q

When a babys toes fan out it is known as what reflex?

A

Babinski

226
Q

In paediatric nursing it is important to create a ______ environment and try to _____ cares to prevent constant interruptions

A

Safe and group

227
Q

When carrying out paediatric observations you should always complete the most invasive ones first? yes or no

A

No! carry out least invasive like HR, sats and RR

228
Q

EDD stands for ?

A

Estimated date of delivery (counting last week from last period + nine months

229
Q

Name some common breast changes that occur?

A

Breast growth, areola darken, fullness, tenderness, painful

230
Q

From what week will the uterus be palpable from?

A

Week 12

231
Q

When you are experiencing contractions but arent in labour they are known as ?

A

Braxton Hicks contractions

232
Q

In which trimester is the foetal heart audible?

A

2nd trimester

233
Q

What is the B4 school check?

A

Aims to identify issues with learning before school starts

234
Q

What does the B4 school check include?

A 
Measures growth and height of child 
Vision and hearing tests 
Immunisation status
Dental checks 
SDQ for teacher and caregivers
235
Q

What disease is caused by untreated strep throat resulting in inflammation and oedema of the heart, skin, brain and joints?

A

Rheumatic fever

236
Q

Bronchiolitis is a _____ lower respiratory tract ____

A

Viral - Infection

237
Q

Name the two most common viruses that cause bronchiolitis ?

A

Rhinovirus and RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)

238
Q

What part of the lungs does bronchiolitis effect?

A

The bronchioles

239
Q

Bronchiolitis causes increased _____ production and _____ of the airways

A

mucus- airways

240
Q

How is the RSV virus spread?

A

Direct contact with mucus secretions and contaminated objects

Semester 5 (3 decks)

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