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Biomed-Sem 1 - Mock 2 > Semester 1. Q&A > Flashcards

Semester 1. Q&A Flashcards

1
Q

Briefly define a positive feedback system and state two examples

A

Output reinforces the input (amplifies)

Blood clotting, uterine contractions during labour, lactation, immunity, enzyme reactions

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2
Q

List three functions of a cell plasma membrane

A

Transport in/out of cell Immunological identity Receptors for hormones etc

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3
Q

State the function of ribosomes? Where would you find ribosomes inside a cell?

A

Protein factories of cell/protein synthesis
Found embedded into the rough endoplasmic reticulum and mobile in cytoplasm

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4
Q

Define the following terms relating to genetics: 5a) Gene

A

Subunit of chromosome, holding information to pass on genetic traits

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5
Q

Define the following terms relating to genetics: 5b) Mutation

A

Change in genetic sequence. Eg substitution, deletion, addition, inversion

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6
Q

Define the following terms relating to genetics: 5c) Histone

A

A protein which DNA coils around

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7
Q

Compare the terms ‘Active’ and ‘Passive’ transport

A

Passive: Crossing plasma membrane, moving down concentration gradient, no energy required.
Active: Crossing plasma membrane, moving up the concentration gradient, energy required

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8
Q

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false: 8a) Moving up a concentration is an example of passive transport

A

F

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9
Q

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false: 8b) Osmosis is an example of passive transport

A

T

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10
Q

Describe the difference between endocrine and exocrine glsnds

A

Endocrine discharge their secretion into the blood and lymph eg. Adrenals, pituitary etc

Exocrine glands discharge their secretion in ducts eg saliva, sweat, enzymes

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11
Q

List three examples of serous membranes

A

Pleura, pericardium, peritoneum

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12
Q

List the three cells found in bone and state the role of each

A

Osteocytes – Mature bone cells needed for bone metabolism/exchange of nutrients/wastes
Osteoblasts – Build bone
Osteoclasts – Bone resorption. Break down bone.

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13
Q

What is the term used to describe the basic unit of compact bone? Consider why is this type of bone referred to as ‘Compact’?

A

Osteon

Osteons are densely compact with little/no space in between. Rings of extracellular matrix (lamella) assist in this dense structure. As a result compact bone is physically strong and provides mechanical support

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14
Q

Name a hormone that increases osteoclastic activity. Indicate a possible disease that may result from excessive activation of this type of cell

A

Parathyroid hormone

Osteoporosis (via hyperparathyroidism)

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15
Q

What type of joint is the hip and shoulder?

A

Synovial – ball and socket

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16
Q

Explain the role of the intervertebral discs

A

Shock absorption.
Allows movement of adjacent vertebrae/Allows spinal and general body mobility

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17
Q

List five risk factors for osteoporosis. How might this disease present clinically?

A

Genetics. Poor diet. Female. Early menopause. No HRT/oestrogen supplement. Smoking. Alcohol. Long term steroid use. Ethnicity. Sedentary lifestyle. Hyperparathyroidism

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18
Q

A 35 year old female patient presents with bilateral hand, wrist, shoulder and ankle pain. She is experiencing morning stiffness and general malaise. In addition she has noticed a deformity of her wrist which is gradually worsening, 9a) What disease might this presentation indicate? 9b) How might this disease be investigated in conventional medicine?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis / Blood test (Rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of people with RA and is fairly diagnostic. Inflammatory markers eg. ESR/CRP also elevated). X-Ray/MRI might also provide some information /

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19
Q

What gender and age group are at the highest risk of gout? List two causes of gout

A

Men

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20
Q

What disease might this presentation indicate?

A

Blood test (Rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of people with RA and is fairly diagnostic. Inflammatory markers eg. ESR/CRP also elevated). X-Ray/MRI might also provide some information

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21
Q

What gender and age group are at the highest risk of gout?

A

Men over 40 yrs

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22
Q

List two causes of gout

A

High purine intake eg. Red wine, shellfish etc. Dehydration

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23
Q

List three functions of the muscular system

A

Movement. Body position. Heat production. Storing (glycogen and oxygen). Moving substances

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24
Q

Define the term striated. Indicate which types of muscle are striated.

A

Muscle fibres in parallel bundles Skeletal and cardiac are both striated

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25
Q

What is the function of the following in skeletal muscle:

A

3a) Transverse tubules: Allows quick transmission of electrical impulse inside myocyte for fast contraction

3b) Myoglobin: A protein that binds oxygen (for respiration)

3c) Creatine phosphate: A stored form of ATP, ready for use when required

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26
Q

What two molecules are needed for skeletal muscle contraction? What two molecules are needed for skeletal muscle relaxation?

A

Contraction = Calcium and ATP

Relaxation = Magnesium and ATP

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27
Q

Explain why some muscle appears red in colour. What type of respiration is indicated in muscle with a red appearance?

A

High quantities of myoglobin and rich blood supply

Aerobic respiration

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28
Q

What muscle is the antagonist of biceps brachii?

A

Triceps brachii

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29
Q

State three locations where smooth muscle is found in the body

A

Blood vessels. Walls of hollow organs. Airways. Eye (iris and ciliary body)

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30
Q

Briefly explain why a patient experiences weakness in Myasthenia Gravis, by making reference to the neuromuscular junction

A

Autoimmune

Antibodies bind to acetylcholine ACH receptors at neuromuscular junction

Preventing transmission of nerve impulse along sarcolemma

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31
Q

What is the difference between a muscle strain and tear?

A

Strain = over stretching of muscle where muscle is still whole

Tear = The muscle is no longer whole

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32
Q

What condition does this presentation suggest?

A

Impingement syndrome

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33
Q

Identify a possible allopathic treatment

A

Anti-inflammatory drugs. Steroid injection. Surgery. Physio

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34
Q

Describe what is meant by the term ‘mucociliary escalator’

A

Mucous is produced by goblet cells in the respiratory membrane, which traps foreign particles that are inhaled. The cilia sweep to remove the mucous up towards the epiglottis, where the majority is then swallowed via the oesophagus. (First line of immune defence)

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35
Q

Consider the possible effects of smoking on the mucociliary escalator and consider the possible consequences by damaging this system

A

Smoking can kill the cilia in the airways. As a result the mucous cannot be effectively removed and accumulates in the bronchioles/alveoli causing obstruction and coughing (bronchitis). Furthermore, as foreign particles are not removed, the risk of infection is higher

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36
Q

List three functions of the larynx

A

Air passageway. Production of sound and speech. Prevents food entering trachea (epiglottis covers tracheal opening during swallowing)

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37
Q

Explain how alveoli are structurally adapted to perform the function of gas exchange

A

Large surface area maximises gas exchange. One cell thick allows for fast and passive transport. Pulmonary capillaries are also essentially continuous with alveolar wall to shorten distance for gas exchange.

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38
Q

Explain the role of the respiratory system in regulating blood pH

A

Carbon dioxide reacts with water in the blood to form carbonic acid (excess hydrogen ions = which lowers pH/making the blood more acidic).

If you breathe out excess carbon dioxide, less carbonic acid is formed and so blood becomes more alkaline. (consider hyperventilation vs carbon dioxide retention such as in COPD)

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39
Q

Describe the process (pathophysiology) of how nasal polyps are formed?

A

Chronic inflammation in nasal mucosa -> increased permeability of mucosa -> water leaks into mucosa and with effects of gravity gets pulled down

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40
Q

State two symptoms of acute bronchitis

A

Cough and sputum production (yellow/green)

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41
Q

Briefly explain why patients with asthma commonly experience wheezing as a symptom (consider the effects of asthma on the bronchioles)

A

Inflammation in walls of bronchioles leads to swelling (remember swelling is one of the cardinal signs/consequences of inflammation). This narrows the bronchiole lumen and so air travels through a narrowed space leading to wheezing.

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42
Q

State two symptoms of acute bronchitis

A

Cough and sputum production (yellow/green)

Example sentence: “The patient presented with a persistent cough and yellow-green sputum.”

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43
Q

Briefly explain why patients with asthma commonly experience wheezing as a symptom (consider the effects of asthma on the bronchioles)

A

Inflammation in walls of bronchioles leads to swelling (remember swelling is one of the cardinal signs/consequences of inflammation). This narrows the bronchiole lumen and so air travels through a narrowed space leading to wheezing.

Additional information: Wheezing is a common symptom in asthma due to the narrowed airways.

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44
Q

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is a disease associated with what two respiratory conditions?

A

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking (90%!)

Additional information: Smoking is the leading cause of COPD.

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45
Q

Describe a common cause of a pulmonary embolism

A

DVT in leg, breaks off to form an embolism

Example sentence: “The patient developed a pulmonary embolism due to a deep vein thrombosis in the leg.”

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46
Q

What is the most common plasma protein? Briefly explain its role

A

Albu with its hydrophilic nature plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance in the body & maintains osmotic pressure & is a carrier of lipids and steroid hormones.

– Carrier of substances eg. Lipid/steroid hormones. Maintains osmotic pressure (attracts water)

Additional information: Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance in the body.

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47
Q

Describe Haematopoiesis/Haemopoeisis

A

Production of all blood cells (takes place in red bone marrow. In foetus occurs in liver)

Example sentence: “Haematopoiesis is the process of blood cell production in the body.”

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48
Q

Define an Erythrocyte

A

A biconcave shaped cell that transports oxygen

Example sentence: “Erythrocytes are specialized cells responsible for oxygen transport in the blood.”

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49
Q

Define Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

A hormone that stimulates erythropoeisis

Additional information: Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels.

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50
Q

Mast Cell

A

A type of white blood cell that secretes histamine and heparin

Additional information: Mast cells play a role in allergic reactions and inflammation.

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51
Q

Please answer the following questions on haemolysis/4a) What is the average life span of an erythrocyte?

A

90-120 days

Additional information: Erythrocytes have a limited lifespan in circulation.

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52
Q

Please answer the following questions on haemolysis/4c) Name the yellow pigment formed in the process of haemolysis.

A

Spleen

Example sentence: “Bilirubin, the yellow pigment formed in haemolysis, is processed by the spleen.”

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53
Q

Please answer the following questions on haemolysis/4b) Where does most haemolysis take place?

A

Bilirubin

Additional information: Most haemolysis occurs in the liver where bilirubin is processed.

54
Q

What are monocytes referred to when they are found in tissue? What is the main function of this cell found in tissue?

A

Macrophages

Additional information: Macrophages play a key role in immune response and tissue repair.

55
Q

Where are ABO antigens found? What blood groups could be donated to someone with blood group AB+?

A

On surface of erythrocytes
All blood groups as it is the universal recipient! So O- O+ A- A+ B- B+ AB- AB+

Additional information: ABO antigens determine blood compatibility for transfusions.

56
Q

Please answer the following questions on anaemia/7a) List five general signs and symptoms of anaemia

A

Tachycardia, thin/thread pulse, palpitations, shortness of breath on exertion, pallor, irritability, tiredness/fatigue

Example sentence: “The patient exhibited symptoms of anaemia including pallor and fatigue.”

57
Q

Please answer the following questions on anaemia/7b) State a sign or symptom that might help differentiate a haemolytic anaemia from these general signs and symptoms of anaemia

A

Jaundice (due to excess RBC breakdown/bilirubin production) and splenomegaly

Additional information: Jaundice is a common feature of haemolytic anaemias.

58
Q

What gender is generally affected by haemophilia and why?

A

Boys because X-Linked recessive disease

Additional information: Hemophilia is more prevalent in males due to its inheritance pattern.

59
Q

Identify a symptom that would suggest thrombocytopenia

A

Easy bleeding

Additional information: Thrombocytopenia is characterized by low platelet counts leading to bleeding tendencies.

60
Q

State two causes of megaloblastic anaemia. Then explain why they are called this name

A

Vitamin B12 and B9/folate deficiency
Megaloblastic because they are large, immature, dysfunctional red blood cells, often still containing a nucleus

Additional information: Megaloblastic anaemia is characterized by large, abnormal red blood cells.

61
Q

Name an artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary artery. Umbilical artery

Additional information: Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

62
Q

List the following regions in order of blood flow, beginning with the superior/inferior vena cava:

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta

Additional information: This sequence represents the flow of blood through the heart and body.

63
Q

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the following?/ 3a) Blood vessel diameter:

A

Increase

Additional information: Parasympathetic stimulation leads to vasodilation.

64
Q

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the following?/3b) Blood pressure:

A

Descrease

Additional information: Parasympathetic activity tends to lower blood pressure.

65
Q

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the following?/3c) Heart rate:

A

Decrease

Additional information: Parasympathetic input slows down heart rate.

66
Q

4a) List, in order, the components of the conductive system of the heart, beginning with the Sino-Atrial node.

A

SA node, AV node, AV bundle/bundle of his, right and left bundle branches, purkinje fibres

Additional information: The conductive system coordinates the heart’s electrical activity.

67
Q

4b) The SA node can also be referred to as what?

A

Pacemaker of the heart

Additional information: The SA node sets the heart’s rhythm.

68
Q

Please answer the following questions exploring cholesterol:/5a) State a possible consequence of high levels of circulating Low Density Lipoproteins (LDLs)?

A

Atherosclerosis

Additional information: High LDL levels contribute to plaque buildup in arteries.

69
Q

The SA node can also be referred to as what?

A

Pacemaker of the heart

70
Q

State a possible consequence of high levels of circulating Low Density Lipoproteins (LDLs)?

A

Atherosclerosis

71
Q

What allopathic medication is used in an attempt to lower cholesterol?

A

Statins

72
Q

What is the function of High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)?

A

Statins

73
Q

List four symptoms of a stroke

A

Sudden weakness, slurring speech, numbness, tingling, confusion, visual loss, headache, unsteadiness

74
Q

Identify the major symptoms of haemorrhoids

A

Bright red blood on faeces/toilet paper

75
Q

What side of the heart do these symptoms suggest failure of?

A

right

76
Q

Briefly explain a possible reason why the patient is experiencing haemorrhoids

A

Back flow of blood gradually enters the liver via the inferior vena cava.

Increasing pressure within the liver and resulting in portal hypertension.

Creating high pressure through venous system draining most of abdominal contents ie. Rectum hence haemorrhoids as it distends/dilates rectal veins

77
Q

List a common cause of pericarditis

A

Pericardial effusion (fluid accumulation in pericardial cavity) or constrictive pericarditis.

78
Q

Explain how you might differentiate between pericarditis and angina pectoris in relation to the pain relieving factors

A

Pericarditis is relieved by sitting upright and leaing forward (worsened by deep breathing and lying supine.) Angina is instead relieved by rest/stopping exercise entirely

79
Q

Identify a possible complication of pericarditis

A

Pericardial effusion (fluid accumulation in pericardial cavity) or constrictive pericarditis

80
Q

Name two monosaccharides and two polysaccharides

A

Glucose, fructose, galactose Starch, glycogen, cellulose

81
Q

List the three main layers of the GIT wall.

A

Mucosa layer, Submucosa, Muscularis

82
Q

Name the nerve plexus found in the outer layer and state its function

A

Myenteric plexus

83
Q

List five functions of saliva

A

Digestion, lubricating, cleansing, defence, taste, buffer, waste removal

84
Q

What is the function of the hormone Cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

Stimulates pancreatic juice secretion,

Stimulates bile secretion.

Decreases stomach motility

85
Q

State two functions of bacteria found in the large intestine

A

Digestion. Production of vitamins eg. K

86
Q

The gall bladder is on the posterior surface of what organ?

A

Liver

87
Q

What does the gall bladder secrete and what is the function of this substance?

A

Bile – emulsifies fats

88
Q

List five functions of the liver

A

Cleansing, detoxification, bile production, haemolysis, synthesis of plasms proteins, metabolism of fats, glucose, amino acids. Heat production, storage of vitamins and synthesis of vitamins.

89
Q

surface of what organ?

A

Liver

90
Q

“The pancreas has both an endocrine and exocrine function” – Explain further what is meant by this statement, giving examples where possible

A

Endocrine – Hormones secreted into blood directly. Eg. Insulin, glucagon. To regulate blood sugar levels
Exocrine – Secretes pancreatic enzymes eg. Pancreatic lipase into duodenum to assist in digestion

91
Q

Explain the role of the stomach in Vitamin B12 absorption

A

Secretes intrinsic factor which is needed for the absorption of B12 in the terminal ileum

92
Q

Consider why this condition might lead to an increased risk of oral/upper respiratory/digestive tract infections

A

Saliva contains IgA and lysozyme – therefore reduced saliva will compromise immune function in the region

93
Q

List two possible causes of Xerostomia

A

Drugs (antidepressants), radiotherspy, Sjogrens syndrome, stress/anxiety, dehydration

94
Q

Compare GIT involvement between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative Colitis

A

Crohn’s – Tends to affect terminal ileum but can affect any part of the GIT. Skip lesions. Transmural GIT involvement
UC – Only affects colon. Ulceration/superficial layer involvement

95
Q

Compare the appearance of stools between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative Colitis

A

Crohn’s – Loose, semi-solid
UC – Frequent and watery/bloody/mucous

96
Q

What type of disease is Coeliac?

A

Autoimmune

97
Q

Identify one possible complication of Coeliac

A

Osteoporosis, anaemia, bowel cancer

98
Q

State two symptoms of Coeliac

A

Diarrhoea, bloating, flatulence, abdominal pain, weight loss, lethargy, mouth ulcers

99
Q

List two significant causes of diverticulitis

A

Low fibre diet and high intraabdominal pressure. Weak connective tissue

100
Q

List four symptoms of acute pancreatitis. Identify one cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Peri-umbilical pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, fever/chills

101
Q

Explain why patients suffering from liver cirrhosis might experience the following symptoms: Jaundice

A

Obstruction of liver. Reduction in percentage of normal hepatocyte function, reducing ability of liver to conjugate bilirubin and/or excrete it efficiently into GIT so it is reabsorbed into the blood where is can cause yellowing of the skin and mucous membranes

102
Q

Explain why patients suffering from liver cirrhosis might experience the following symptoms: Ascites

A

Portal hypertension due to hepatic obstruction

103
Q

List three risk factors for gallstones

A

Female, obesity, pregnancy, genetic, Oral contraceptive pill, forties, still fertile

104
Q

Define the term ‘Upregulation’

A

Increase in the number of receptors on a target cell due to hormone deficiency

105
Q

Name the two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland

A

ADH and Oxytocin

106
Q

List three functions of Cortisol. What are the implications of long term cortisol release?

A

Gluconeogenesis, proteolysis, lipolysis, inhibit immune response, anti-inflammatory

107
Q

List three functions of Oxytocin

A

Uterine contractions, milk ejection, bonding, anti-inflammatory

108
Q

TSH

A

Secreted By Anterior pituitary

109
Q

Prolactin

A

Secreted By Anterior pituitary

110
Q

ADH

A

Secreted By Posterior pituitary / (Hypothalamus)

111
Q

Aldosterone

A

Secreted By Adrenal Cortex

112
Q

Insulin

A

Secreted By Pancreas (Beta cells)

113
Q

List three functions of Oxytocin

A

Uterine contractions, milk ejection, bonding

Anti-inflammatory

114
Q

Identify a cause of hyperprolactinaemia

A

Pituitary tumour, acromegaly, PCOS

115
Q

Contrast Diabetes Insipidus and Mellitus in relation to urine.

A

Both present with polyuria. However Insipidus is very dilute, bland urine. Mellitus is sweet urine (glucosuria) and hence “mellitus” = sweet

116
Q

What molecule is needed for the production of thyroid hormones?

A

Iodine

117
Q

List five symptoms of Hypothyroidism.

A

Tiredness, malaise, goitre, anorexia, cold intolerance, puffy eyes, depression, dry/brittle hair, loss of eyebrows, deep voice, bradycardia

118
Q

Describe the physical appearance of a person suffering from Cushing’s syndrome

A

Central weight gain, thin extremities and thin skin. Easy bruising, buffalo hump

119
Q

State four complication of Diabetes Mellitus

A

Micro and macrovascular complications: Retinopathy, nephropathy, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia

120
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the epidermis?

A

Stratified keratinized epithelium

121
Q

Does the epidermis contain blood vessels?

A

No

122
Q

How long does it take to replace the epidermis?

A

40 days

123
Q

Explain the purpose of sweating in the body

A

Excretion of wastes eg urea. Thermoregulation (reduces body temperature)

124
Q

Describe the appearance of a macule

A

Change in surface colour without elevation or depression, well defined

125
Q

List common causes of atopic dermatitis (eczema)

A

Food (milk, eggs, soy, wheat), airborne (dust, mites, moulds), S.aureus

126
Q

Describe the appearance of psoriasis

A

Red scaly plaques, silvery scales, maybe bleeding

127
Q

Compare the appearance of acne vulgaris and acne rosacea

A

Vulgaris – Open blackheads or whiteheads, damaged tissue, inflammatory papules, pustules, possible scarring

Rosacea – Facial flushing, especially across nose/cheeks. Inflammation. Oily skin with papules and pustules but NO blackheads

128
Q

State two functions of the spleen

A

Phagocytosis, storage of blood, haemolysis, maturation of B lymphocytes

129
Q

Explain the role of lymphatic nodes

A

Filtering and removing foreign matter such as microbes, cell debris, inhaled particles etc

130
Q

List four symptoms of lymphedema

A

Severe fatigue, heavy, swollen limb, discolouration of overlying skin, thickened overlying skin, recurrent skin infections

Biomed-Sem 1 - Mock 2 (3 decks)

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