Semester 1 Biology part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Restriction endonucleases

A

-Cuts desired gene (from DNA) of desired organism
-Recognition sites are palindromic

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2
Q

DNA ligase

A

-Can rejoin sticky ends between nucleotides, reforms the sugar phosphate backbone
-Can return plasmid to bacterial cells

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3
Q

Process of genetic engineering

A

-Genes are taken from one organism and inserted into another host organism
-Alters genetic makeup of organism=transgenic organism
-Bacteria, yeast, viruses (phages) usually used as recipient cells
-The rapid reproduction of these microorganisms enables transferred gene to be amplified

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4
Q

In vivo

A

Where copies are made inside a living organism

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5
Q

In vitro

A

Where copies are made outside a living organsim e.g a lab/test tube

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6
Q

Outline the steps of PCR

A

-Reaction mix contains primers, template DNA, nucleotides and DNA polymerase
-Mixture heater to 95 deg, H bonds are broken between bases, strands separate
-Cool to 45-65 deg so primers bind to DNA strands
-Increase temp to 70-75 deg, DNA polymerase joins adjacent nucleotides together via complementary base pairing
-2 double stranded molecules are produced
-Repeat cycle many times

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7
Q

What factors limit PCR

A

-Primers running out
-Nucleotides run out
-Enzymes denature

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8
Q

Why are 2 different primers used in PCRs

A

-Sequences at the end of target sequence are different
-One is at the beginning and one is at the end

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9
Q

Formula for calc DNA strands

A

2^n
but remember to X2 if asking for the number of strands as DNA is double stranded

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10
Q

What is a primer

A

-A short single stranded DNA
-Its bases are complementary to the part of the DNA to be copied

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11
Q

Why are primers used

A

-Defines the section to be copied
-Allows attachment of polymerase

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12
Q

Define Genetic markers

A

-They enable genetically engineered bacteria to be detected and isolated for culturing

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13
Q

Antibiotic resistance marker genes

A

-Used to be used as marker genes,
-But due to risk of spread of antibiotic resistance by horizontal gene transmission between species safer methods have been developed

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14
Q

Flurorescent marker gene

A

-GFP gene codes for production of green fluorescent protein
-Cloned gene is added to GFP gene
-Successfully transformed bacteria are identified under UV light as they fluoresce

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15
Q

How to obtain gene products (plasmid)

A

-Bacteria that takes up the recombinant plasmid will replicate during cell division producing a colony
-Bacterial colonies can be harvested and stored
-Plasmid can be purified, digested with restriction endonucleases and analysed using gel electrophoresis to confirm presence of foreign DNA
-Bacterial cells are cultured and produce desired gene product in large amounts.

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16
Q

How does reverse transcriptase work in producing a required gene

A

-mRNA is used as a template to produce required gene
e.g to produce insulin mRNA strand complementary to insulin gene is used
-mRNA mixed with free DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase enzyme
-Reverse transcriptase joins adjacent nucleotides together to produce fragment of DNA
-DNA produced is called cDNA

-cDNA can be converted into double stranded DNA using DNA polymerase

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17
Q

Describe how electrophoresis works

A

-DNA sample is extracted, mixed with a loading buffer
-Placed into wells and a current is applied
-DNA migrates towards the anode (positive electrode) due to DNA’s negative phosphate group
-DNA separates according to size, smaller fragments travel quicker and larger fragments get trapped

-Fragments can be stained with Fluorescent dye and placed under UV light
-Gel can be photographed to record the position and fragments of DNA can be extracted from gel

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18
Q

Gene probes

A

-Short single-stranded lengths of DNA (15-20 bases long)
-Its bases are complementary with the DNA/allele/gene

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19
Q

What does a radioactive probe do

A

-Binds to specific base sequences
-Makes DNA visible using autoradiography

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20
Q

Describe the procedures involved in the production of a genetic fingerprint from a sample of DNA taken from a crime scene. (6 Marks)

A

-DNA is cut;
-using restriction enzyme;
-electrophoresis;
-separates according to length/mass/size;
-DNA made single-stranded;
-transfer to membrane/ Southern blotting;
-apply probe;
-radioactive/ single stranded/ detected on film/ fluorescent;
-reference to tandem repeats/VNTRs/minisatellites;
-patten unique to every individual:

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21
Q

Uses of genetic fingerprinting

A

-Forensic science, characterise victims using small amounts of genetic material

-Phylogenetic studies, allows evolutionary links to be investigated

-Screening of blood and blood products , to detect contamination by viruses to prevent further infections

-Pateint monitoring, Success of treatments e.g chemotherapy can be followed. DNA produced can be used in gene therapy

-Genetic screening, collecting info about different diseases especially those that can be passed onto offsprings

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22
Q

What is DNA sequencing used for

A

-Used to determine sequence of nucleotides in a sample
-DNA sample used may have been obtained from southern blotting

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23
Q

What will the reaction tube contain for DNA sequencing and state the role of each

A

-Large quantity of DNA
-DNA primers, radioactively labelled 32^P (starts the sequencing and radioactivity allows presence of primer to be detected)
-All 4 DNA nucleotides: ATCG (align via CBP)
-DNA polymerase (joins nucleotides together)
-Terminator nucleotides (terminates the extension of DNA strand as it forms dideoxy nucleotide)

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24
Q

Outline the process of DNA sequencing

A

-DNA polymerase uses radioactive primer to form complementary DNA strand
-DNA nucleotides are joined together using sample of DNA as template
-The random addition of chemically modified nucleotide stops synthesis of DNA strand… majority of reaction continues but can be terminated later on
-Due to random termination a tube will have a set of different sized DNA fragments as DNA molecules are terminated by different nucleotides at diff positions
-All fragments are radioactive due to their primers

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25
Q

Why is it better to start with mRNA from pancreas cells rather then using their DNA

A

-Doesn’t have to be spliced to remove introns
-Specific mRNA is found in pancreas cells
-There are multiple copies of mRNA

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26
Q

Which enzyme converts mRNA into single-stranded DNA

A

Reverse transcriptase

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27
Q

Which enzyme converts single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA

A

DNA polymerase

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28
Q

What do DNA markers consists of

A

Fragments of DNA of known size

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29
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do spindle fibres form

A

Metaphase

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30
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur

A

Interphase

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31
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do sister chromatids get pulled to opposite poles of the cell

A

Anaphase

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32
Q

In which stages of the cell cycle are chromosomes not visible

A

Interphase and Telophase

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33
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle does the nuclear membrane break down

A

Prophase

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34
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle does the nuclear membrane reform

A

Telophase

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35
Q

In which stages of the cell cycle is the DNA presented as chromatins

A

Interphase and Telophase

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36
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle are 2 daughter cells produced

A

Telophase

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37
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes begin to shorten and thicken

A

Prophase

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38
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes move to the equator of the cell

A

Metaphase

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39
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle are cell organelles replicated

A

Interphase

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40
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle is DNA polymerase activated

A

Interphase

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41
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do the centrioles move to the poles

A

Prophase

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42
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do the spindle contracts

A

Anaphase

43
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle are protein synthesis and RNA synthesis active

A

Interphase

44
Q

Importance of meiosis

A

-Produces genetic variation in gametes
-Ensures each generation possesses constant number of chromosomes

45
Q

How to tell when meiosis or mitosis is occurring in a life cycle

A

2n—> n (meiosis)
2n—->2n (mitosis)
n—-> 2n (mitosis)

46
Q

Non disjunction

A

-When a pair of chromosomes does not separate during anaphase
-Both chromosomes pass to the same daughter cell
-Common in meiosis but can occur in mitosis

47
Q

Name of bacterium that causes Pulmonary tuberculosis

A

-Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, rod shaped

48
Q

Course of infection of Pulmonary tuberculosis

A

-Once bacterium is inhaled it grows and replicates within the upper regions of lungs, where there is plentiful supply of oxygen
-Phagocytic WBCs ingest bacteria
-Bacteria encased in tubercles, or nodules
-In healthy people the immune system prevents TB In nodules from developing further
-The bacteria are inactive and do not replicate

-But in people with immunosuppression bacteria may become activated and replicate
-If replicated, may cause damage/destroy alveolar wall and blood capillaries
-Can results in fibrosis and a reduction in gas exchange
-TB can also spread to other organs body and cause damage

49
Q

Symptoms of Pulmonary tuberculosis

A

-Persistent coughing
-Breathing difficulties and chest pains
-Fatigue and loss of appetite, leading to weight loss
-Fever and night sweats

50
Q

Symptoms of Asthma and causes of these

A

.Shortness of breath~ due to constriction of bronchioles
.Wheezing noise~ caused by air passing through constricted bronchioles
.Tightening of chest~ due to not being able to ventilate lungs properly
.Coughing ~ A reflecx response to clear out narrow bronchioles of any obstruction

51
Q

Causes of asthma

A

-If an asthmatic person comes across dust mites, pollen or animal fur (anything that irritates their lungs), muscles contract and bronchioles become thinner
-Lining of bronchioles become inflamed, start to swell
-Bronchiole lining overproduces sticky mucus, this obstructs flow of air into the alveoli
-Asthma reduces flow of air down the bronchioles , therefore lower volume of oxygen reaches the alveoli

52
Q

How is asthma different from other lung diseases

A

-SA of alveoli and elasticity of the lungs not affected
-Fibrosis due to scarring does not occur

53
Q

How does an inhaler work during an asthma attack

A

-Drugs in inhaler cause the bronchiole walls to relax and widen
-Greater volume of air, and so oxygen can reach the lungs

54
Q

Causes of emphysema

A

-Mainly caused by smoking/ air pollution (leads to irreversible lung damage)
-Caused by progressive destruction of alveoli wall leading to development of larger air spaces
-SA of alveoli is reduced and alveolar walls become damaged and thicken
-Therefore gas exchange is less efficient due to reduced SA and increased dd across thickened alveolar wall
-Loss in elasticity of lung tissue so air not forced out of lungs during expiration, reduces CG and so rate of diffusion

55
Q

What does emphysema lead to

A

-Lungs ability to supply the blood with oxygen is progressively decreased, individual becomes breathless even with minimum exercise
-Lack of oxygen to muscles of body reduces respiration and energy availability

56
Q

Symptoms of emphysema and causes

A

-Shortness of breath, due to loss of elasticity in lungs so cannot be fully emptied and inhaling fresh air is difficult
Chronic cough, consequence of lung damage and body attempt to remove tissue and mucus. This cannot be removed due to destroyed cillia on bronchioles
-Bluish skin coloration, due to low levels of oxygen in blood as a result of poor diffusion in lungs

57
Q

Define cardiovascular disease and how it can lead to myocardial infarction

A

-Disease of the heart and circulatory system
-CHD affects coronary arteries that supply heart muscles with glucose and oxygen for respiration
-Reduced flow of blood usually caused by presence of fatty deposits (AKA atheromas) which can increase the risk of myocardial infarction (heart attack)

58
Q

Which lung disease(s) affect SA of lungs

A

Emphysema and TB

59
Q

Which lung disease(s) affect CG for gas exchange in lungs

A

Asthma, Emphysema and Fibrosis

60
Q

Which lung disease(s) affect thickness of membranes

A

Fibrosis and TB

61
Q

What is cholesterol and what are the different types

A

-Cholesterol is an essential component of plasma membranes, transported in blood as lipoproteins

-HDL~ removes cholesterol from the tissue and transports it to liver for excretion, protecting the arteries against heart disease
-LDL~ transports cholesterol from liver to tissues, including artery walls. When they infiltrate can lead to development of atheroma and heart disease

62
Q

How does diet affect the risk of developing cardiovascular disease

A

-Consuming animal fat with a higher proportion of saturated fats and LPL can increase risk of atheroma and other associated diseases

63
Q

How does excercise affect the risk of developing cardiovascular disease

A

-Decreases the levels of lipids in the blood, used in respiration
-An increase in the rate of blood flow during exercise reduces the build-up of fat deposits and the formation of clots

64
Q

How is arteriosclerosis formed

A

-Starts with deposition of yellow fatty streaks containing a high proportion of cholesterol in the inner coat of arteries
-Deposits form in endothelium
-Later fibres are deposited in the cholesterol and these solidify, process known as arteriosclerosis
-Deposits are known as atheromatous plaques and as these increase in size it protrude into the lumen of artery and begins to block it

65
Q

What is an atheroma and what can it lead to

A

-The presence of fatty material (mainly cholesterol and low-density lipoproteins) within wall of an artery under endothelial lining of the artery
-As atheroma builds up, it bulges out into lumen of the artery. Blood flow is reduced and blood pressure increases

-Blood flow in coronary arteries may become reduced due to a blockage caused by presence of atheroma

66
Q

Which diseases can also be linked to atheromas

A

-Thrombosis
-Aneurysm
-Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

67
Q

What is an aneurysm

A

-Atheromas that lead to blood clots being formed that weaken the artery walls
-These weakened points swell forming balloon like blood filled structures= an aneurysm
-Aneurysm burst leading to haemorrhages and loss of blood to body part

68
Q

How does an atheroma lead to a Myocardial infarction

A

-When an atheroma breaks through lining of endothelium of blood vessel this results in the formation of a thrombus
-Thrombus reduces blood flow along coronary artery
-Sometimes thrombus is carried from its place of origin and blocks another artery elsewhere

69
Q

Myocardial infarction

A

-Caused by the reduced supply of oxygen to the heart muscle
-The heart muscle tissue is deprived of oxygen , glucose and nutrients so cannot respire and die
-Some heart attacks result in the heart-stopping completely

70
Q

Formation of Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

A

-Atheroma may cause blockage which increase the chance of clots blocking arteries
-These clots often arise from carotid arteries ( in neck) and travel to brain, blocking arteries supplying cerebellum
-Known as ischaemic stroke, most common type

71
Q

Cystic Fibrosis cause

A

-A recessive gene mutation results in missing amino acid (phenylalanine) in CFTR protein
-So channel protein unable to function effectively in membrane
-Cl- ions remain in cell, which results in entry of Na+ ions to balance charge
-Due to high ion conc in cell (low water potential), water enters cell from mucus lining the cell
-Leads to the secretion of large amounts of thick, sticky mucus by epithelial cells in lungs and pancreas

72
Q

What can thick mucus in CF lead to

A

-Accumulation of thick mucus in lungs, narrows air passages restricting air flow= breathing difficulties
-Increases dd in alveoli and reduces SA for gas exchange= decreases amount of O2 entering blood
-Traps microorganisms as cillia cannot move mucus up the oesophagus, results in repeated lung infections
-Males are mainly infertile and females frequently, as mucus blocks ducts in reproductive system

73
Q

Implication of gene therapy on CF

A

-Healthy Gene that produces CFTR has been cloned
-Liposomes and viruses used as vectors to transfer CFTR gene into epithelial cells
-Vectors mixed in liquid and squirted into respiratory passages using aerosol inhaler
-Treatment repeater every few weeks as epithelial cells die
-Clinical trials have been partly successful in altering the epithelial cells in lungs

74
Q

Phenylketonuria PKU

A

-Caused due to an inability to convert AA phenylalanine to AA tyrosine
-Sufferers have faulty phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme (PAH), which is found in liver
-Excess phenylalanine is converted to toxins if not hydrolysed which can affect cognitive development

-If not treated during infancy can lead to severe learning difficulties and reduced life expectancy (~30 yrs)

75
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia

A

-Disease in which RBCs change shape in low O2 concs

76
Q

How is sickle cell anaemia caused

A

-Substitution mutation on chromosome 11, where amino acid glutamic acid is replaced by valine in Hb
-Valine makes Hb of sickle cell sufferers less soluble after losing O2
-Hb will come out of solution and crystallised into rigid rod like fibres
-This changes shape of RBCs from circular flat disc to a sickle shape

77
Q

Symptoms of sickle cell anaemia and how they are caused

A

–Sickle RBCs block capillaries and vessels preventing normal blood flow
-Results in painful arms, legs, back and stomach
-Secondary symptoms include enlarging of heart, kidney damage, poor growth and sufferers more prone to infection
-Codominant disease rather than recessive

78
Q

Thalassemia

A

-Name given to a range of different inherited disorders caused by abnormalities in Hb
-Two types ⍺ and β
- ⍺ involves absence of one of both ⍺ globin genes so Hb lacks one or both ⍺ polypeptides
-β involves absence of one of both β globin genes so Hb lacks one or both of the β polypeptides

79
Q

Symptoms of thalassemia

A

-Symptom severity depends on how many globin genes have been deleted
-Suffereres tend to have glass stones and problems with spleen

80
Q

Treatment for Sickle cell and Thalassemia

A

-Regular blood transfusions

81
Q

Sex chromosome abnormalities

A

-Caused by non-disjunction of one or more sex chromosomes
-This is caused by replicated chromosomes being unable to segregate during anaphase 2
-Occasionally can produce a viable embryo

82
Q

Symptoms of Klinefelters syndrome (XXY)

A

-Trisomic male

-Smaller testes and infertility (sperm never produced)
-Little facial hair
-Voice pitched higher than normal
-Educational difficulties and behavioural problems

83
Q

Symptoms of Turners Syndrome (XO)

A

-Monosomic female, missing X chromosome

-Small uterus, infertility (ovaries are absent)
-Shrotness of stature
-Puffy fingers with deep set finger nails, hair line is lower than normal

84
Q

Cause of downs syndrome (trisomy 21)

A

-3 Chromosomes
-Non disjucntion on chromosome 21
-Egg cell has 24 rather then 23 chromosimes

85
Q

Symptoms of downs syndrome

A

-Short starture and relatively small skull due to poor skeletal development
-Coarse straight hair
-Flat and rounded face
-Eyelids that slant upwards

86
Q

Health conditions associated with downs syndrome

A

-Hearing and vision and problems
-Heart disorders e.g congenital heart disease
-Thyroid problem
-Increased risk of respiratory infections

87
Q

What leads to a tumour forming

A

-Rapid uncontrolled cell division and growth results in a group of abnormal cells = tumour

88
Q

Effects of tumours

A

-Abnormal cell growth may damage organs, affecting their function
-May cause blockages in blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and ducts
-Exert pressure on other organs which can lead to pressure on nerves and brain
-Cause new capillary networks to form which divert blood away from tissues

89
Q

Compare benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign
-Slow growing
-Non-cancerous, does not metastasis as tumour is enclosed by fibrous tissue
-Cells remain differentiated (specialised)
-Cell nucleus has normal appearance

Malignant
-Fast growing
-Cancerous, do metastasis as tumour is not enclosed
-Cells often undifferentiated (non-specialised)
-Cell nucleus is larger and darker, as it contains more genetic info

90
Q

Role of Proto-oncogenes

A

Stimulate cell division

91
Q

Role of Tumor suppressor genes

A

Genes slow cell division

92
Q

What does a mutated Proto-oncogene lead to

A

-knowns as Oncogene (cancer-causing gene)
-Stimulates cells to divide to quickly

93
Q

What does a mutated Tumor suppressor gene lead to

A

-Allows rate of cell division to increase

94
Q

Risk factors for cancer

A

-Old age
-Chemical carcinogens e.g cigarette tar
-Obesity
-Alcohol
-Smoking
-Ionising radiation e.g UV light, X rays, Gamma rays, benzene
-Diet
-Genetic predisposition e.g ovarian and breast cancers can be inherited

95
Q

How does diet increase and decrease the risk of developing cancer

A

-If diet consists of a lot of processed meat, cooking meat till it chars and fat (free radicals) increases risk of cancer
-Can be decreased by eating fruit and vegetables (antioxidants that protect against free radicals) and fibre (decreases transit time)

96
Q

Common type of cancer: Breast

A

Screening programme=mammogram for women aged 50-71

Symptoms:
-Lump in breast/armpit
-Nipple discharge

Main treatment:
Surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, hormonal therapy

97
Q

Common type of cancer: Cervical

A

Screening programme= smear test for women aged 25-64

Symptoms:
-Unpleasant smelling vaginal discharge
-Persistent lower back pain
-Discomfort during intercourse

Main treatment:
Surgery, Radiotherapy, Chemotherapy

98
Q

Common type of cancer: Prostrate

A

No screening programme

Symptoms
-Difficulty/changes in urination
-Blood in urine or semen

Main treatment
Surgery, Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, Hormonal therapy

99
Q

Surgery as a treatment for cancer

A

Can be used for diagnosis and removal of tumour (sometimes surrounding tissues)

100
Q

Radiation as a treatment for cancer

A

Ionizing radiation induces DNA damage, triggers cell death

Radiation diagnoses are divided to allow for recovery of normal tissue, reducing side effects

101
Q

Chemotherapy as a treatment for cancer

A

-Damages DNA of rapidly dividing cells, tirggering cell death
-Damages cellular spindle apparatus, preventing cell death
-Inhibits DNA synthesise e.g inhibiting DNA helicase and DNA polymerase

102
Q

Immunotherapy as a treatment for cancer

A

Interleukin 2 induces a small remission rate (reduction in signs and symptoms of cancer) in some cancers

103
Q

Monoclonal antibodies as a treatment for cancer

A

-Antibodies are produced to recognise cancer cells and mark them for destruction by immune system
-Radioactive atoms and chemo drugs can be attached to antibodies as well

104
Q

Hormonal therapy as a treatment for cancer

A

Some tumours e.g breast and prostrate respond well to the inhibition of certain hormones e.g Tamoxifen reduces oestrogen activity (used for breast cancer)