Seizures Flashcards

1
Q

Define status epilepticus

A
  • a single seizure ≥5 minutes in length

or

  • >2 seizures without recovery of consciousness between seizures

Status epilepticus is a neurologic emergency, and treatment should be initiated in all patients with continuous seizure activity lasting more than 5 minutes

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2
Q

most common causes of status epilepticus
include

A

subtherapeutic antiepileptic levels
preexisting neurologic conditions, such as prior CNS infection, trauma, or stroke
acute stroke
anoxia or hypoxia
metabolic abnormalities
alcohol or drug intoxication or withdrawal

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3
Q

True or false

After 5 minutes,
seizures are
less likely to spontaneously terminate,
less likely to be controlled with antiepileptic drugs, and
more likely to cause neuronal damage

A

True

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4
Q

As seizures surpass the 5-minute mark, what dramatic changes occur at the cellular level?

A
  • Decreased expression and internalization of γ-aminobutyric acid receptors, coupled with increased expression of both glutamine and N-methyl-d-aspartate receptors, lead to a great diminished seizure threshold
  • The blood–brain barrier is also compromised, leading to CNS penetration of potassium and albumin, both of which are hyperexcitatory CNS chemicals
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5
Q

What happens after 20 minutes?

A
  • After 20 minutes, hypotension, hypoxia, metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, hypoglycemia, cardiac dysrhythmias, and pulmonary edema frequently develop.
  • This hyperexcitatory milieu makes standard antiseizure therapies much less effective in seizure termination.
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6
Q

What happens in nonconvulsive status epilepticus?

A

the patient is comatose or has fluctuating abnormal mental status or confusion, but no overt seizure activity is present

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7
Q

What are the findings suggestive of non-convulsive status epilepticus?

A

a prolonged postictal period after a generalized seizure

subtle motor signs such as twitching, blinking, and eye deviation

fluctuating alterations in mental status

or unexplained stupor and confusion

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8
Q

The goal of treatment in status epilepticus is?

A

seizure control as soon as possible and within 30 minutes of presentation

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9
Q

 why do we avoid IV fluids containing glucose?

A

as phenytoin is not compatible with glucose-containing solutions

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10
Q

Initial laboratory evaluation includes

A

blood glucose, a metabolic panel including calcium and magnesium, lactate, and if appropriate, a pregnancy test, a toxicology screen, and anticonvulsant levels.

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11
Q

True or false

 Do not attempt lumbar puncture during status epilepticus.

A

True

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12
Q

If bacterial meningitis or encephalitis is suspected clinically, then

A

immediately start empiric antibiotic or antiviral therapy

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13
Q

Which drug is still considered the initial agent of choice if IV access is available?

A

IV lorazepam

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14
Q

In established status epilepticus, follow benzodiazepines with longer- acting antiepileptic agents:

A

fosphenytoin or phenytoin; levetiracetam; valproate; or lacosamide

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15
Q

One of these antiepileptic agents should be started within _________of diagnosis

A

20 minutes

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16
Q

This drug is effective but has serious side effects; the Food and Drug Administration has issued a black-boxed warning for hepatic failure and pancreatitis, and should not be administered along with phenytoin

A

Valproic acid

17
Q

This drug is very effective, is quick to administer, and has few interactions and side effects.

The precise mechanism of action is unknown, but it may inhibit voltage-dependent calcium channels and facilitate γ-aminobutyric acid inhibitory transmission.

it is rapidly gaining favor as a first- line drug for established status epilepticus

A

Levetiracetam

18
Q

Mechanism of action of Levetiracetam

A

inhibit voltage-dependent calcium channels and facilitate γ-aminobutyric acid inhibitory transmission

19
Q

Dose of levetiracetam

A

20 to 60 milligrams/kg IV

20
Q

Refractory status epilepticus is defined as

A

persistent seizure activity despite the IV administration of adequate amounts of two antiepileptic agents and usually exceeds 60 minutes

21
Q

First line agent for refractory status epilepticus

22
Q

Second line agent for refractory status epilepticus

23
Q

Third line agents in the refractory status epilepticus

A

Barbiturates, such as phenobarbital (up to 20 milligrams/kg IV) or pentobarbital

24
Q

Third Line agent in refractory status epilepticus

25
Mechanism of action of ketamine
N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist and helps block the hyperexcitatory pathway
26
Give the treatment for status epilepticus
27
A transient focal deficit (usually unilateral) following a simple or complex focal seizure is referred to as________________ and should resolve within __________
Todd’s paralysis 48 hours
28
Clinical features that help to distinguish seizures from other nonseizure attacks include the following
• Abrupt onset and termination most attacks begin abruptly Most seizures last only 1 or 2 minutes • Lack of recall • Purposeless movements or behavior during the attack • postictal confusion and lethargy
29
Differential diagnosis of seizures
Syncope pseudo seizures hyperventilation syndrome movement disorders migraine
30
In a patient with a well- documented seizure disorder who has had a single unprovoked seizure, the only tests that may be needed are _____________ and _______________.
glucose level pertinent anticonvulsant medication levels
31
These tests can prove helpful in distinguishing true seizures from a pseudoseizure
A seizure may result in a lactate-driven, wide anion gap metabolic acidosis. Most lactate abnormalities will clear within 30 minutes. The prolactin level may also be elevated for a brief period (15 to 60 minutes) immediately after a seizure.
32
the most common cause of a breakthrough seizure
A very low serum anticonvulsant drug level suggests medication noncompliance
33
Lumbar puncture in the setting of an acute seizure is indicated if
the patient is febrile or immunocompromised or if subarachnoid hemorrhage is suspected and the noncontrast head CT is normal.