Security + Measure Up #2 Flashcards
Pass the First Time
What is a security benefit of migrating an intranet application to the cloud?
A. Increased scalability under load
B. Reduced connectivity
C. Increased control of resources
D. Availability of multitenancy
D. Availability of multitenancy
Cloud providers often have robust security measures in place to support multi-tenant environments, ensuring data isolation, compliance, and enhanced security protocols for all tenants
A company hosts a customer feedback forum on its website. Visitors are redirected to a different website after opening a recently posted comment. What kind of attack does this MOST likely indicate?
A. Code injection
B. Directory Transversal
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
D. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
In an XSS attack, an attacker injects malicious scripts into content that is then displayed to other users. When users view the compromised content, the malicious scripts can execute, causing redirects to malicious sites, stealing cookies, or other malicious activity
A user reports they receive a certificate warning when attempting to visit their banking website. Upon investigation, a security administrator discovers the site is presenting an untrusted SSL certificate. Which of the following attacks has the administrator MOST likely uncovered?
A. Downgrade
B. Birthday
C. On-path
D. Zero day
C. On-path attack (formerly known as a man-in-the-middle attack). This type of attack involves intercepting the communication between the user and the website, presenting a fake SSL certificate to the user, and potentially capturing sensitive information.
What can be done to prevent an internet attacker from using a replay attack to gain access to a secure public website?
A. Deploy the web server in the internal network
B. Require user name and password for authentication
C. Deploy the web server in a perimeter network
D. Timestamp session packets
D. Timestamp session packets
By including timestamps in session packets, any attempts to replay old packets can be detected and discarded, ensuring that only valid, current sessions are accepted. Timestamping makes replay attacks significantly harder to execute since the attacker would need to send the packets within a very short time window.
A security administrator performs a vulnerability scan for a network and discovers an extensive list of vulnerabilities for several Windows-based servers. What should the administrator do FIRST to mitigate the risks created by these vulnerabilities?
A. Install HIDS software
B. Create application deny lists
C. Install missing patches
D. Remove any unnecessary software
C. Install missing patches
Installing patches addresses known vulnerabilities in the software, providing an immediate improvement in security by fixing the issues identified by the vulnerability scan. This step is crucial to mitigate risks effectively and quickly. The other actions are also important, but addressing known vulnerabilities through patching should be the priority.
All computers in an organization come with TPM installed. What type of data encryption most often uses keys generated from the TPM?
A. Full disk encryption
B. File encryption
C. Data in transit encryption
D. Database encryption
A. Full disk encryption
TPM is typically used in full disk encryption solutions like Bitlocker for Windows. It generates and stores cryptographic keys that can be used to encrypt the entire contents of a disk, providing robust security for data at rest
A user opens an attachment that is infected with a virus. The user’s boss decides operational controls should be implemented so that this type of attack does not occur again. What should the boss do?
A. Implement aggressive anti-phasing policies on email servers
B. Schedule security awareness training for end users
C. Install fingerprint scanners at all user workstations
D. Enable TLS enforcement for all servers sessions
B. Schedule security awareness training for end users
Operational controls involve procedures and policies that are implemented to enhance security through day-to-day operations. Scheduling security awareness training for end users is an operational control that focuses on educating employing about security threats, such as viruses in email attachments. By increasing awareness, users are less likely to open malicious attachments in the future.
Which key is used to encrypt data in an asymmetric encryption system?
A. The sender’s public key
B. The sender’s private key
C. The recipient’s private key
D. The recipient’s public key
D. The recipient’s public key
In an asymmetric encryption system (also known as public-key cryptography), each participant has a pair of keys:
Public Key: This key is shared openly and can be distributed to anyone.
Private Key: This key is kept secret by the owner and is not shared.
When encrypting data to send to a recipient securely, the sender uses the recipient’s public key.
The sender encrypts the data using the recipient’s key.
Since the public key is available to anyone, this process ensures that only the intended recipient can decrypt the message.
The recipient uses their private key to decrypt the data.
Only the recipient has the private key, so only they can access the encrypted information.
Encrypt with recipient’s public key
decrypt with recipient’s private key
This ensures that only the intended recipient can decrypt and read message, maintaining confidentiality
A security engineer receives an alert indicating that DNS tunneling has been detected in the environment. What is a hacker’s motivation for using this attack?
A. Service disruption
B. Chaos
C. Data exflitration
D. Blackmail
C. Data exfiltration
DNS tunneling is a method used by attackers to encapsulate and send data through DNS queries and responses, effectively bypassing traditional security measures. Since DNS traffic is typically allowed through firewalls and not closely scrutinized, it provides a cover channel for transferring data.
Primary Motivation: The main reason hackers use DNS tunneling is for data exfiltration. They can secretly extract sensitive information from the target network without detection.
Attackers use DNS tunneling to stealthily transfer data out of a network.
The alert indicates potential unauthorized data extraction.
Defenders should monitor DNS traffic and implement security measures to detect and block suspicious DNS activities.
As part of a change management process, a security administrator determines that a planned patch causes services to fail on some servers. What should the administrator do to address this finding?
A. Include the finding in a new statement of work (SOW)
B. Update the memorandum of understanding (MOU)
C. Update the standard operating procedures for severs
D. Record the finding in impact analysis documentation
D. Record the finding in impact analysis documentation
In the context of a change management process, it’s essential to thoroughly assess and document the potential impacts of any planned changes. When the security administrator discovers that a planned patch causes core services to fail on some servers, the immediate and appropriate action is to record this finding in the impact analysis document.
Impact Analysis Documentation is a critical component of change management. It evaluates the potential consequences of a change, considering factors like:
Risks and impacts on systems and services
Compatibility issues with existing infrastructure
Mitigation strategies to address identified problems
By recording the finding:
Decision Making: Stakeholders can make informed decisions about whether to proceed with the patch, delay it, or seek alternative solutions.
Risk Management: It helps in identifying risks early and planning accordingly to prevent service disruptions.
Communication: Ensures that all relevant parties are aware of the potential issues associated with the change.
To enhance availability, an organization has configured authentication and storage that provide redundancy for on-premises servers. However, the organization must ensure that all data is encrypted between the data center and the private cloud network. What should the organization do to meet this requirement?
A. Configure IPsec in transport mode between routers in each location.
B. Deploy a NAT gateway and only permit inbound connections from the cloud network.
C. Deploy NGFW appliances in the data center and cloud and share X.509 certificates
D. Configure an IPsec tunnel between the data center and cloud gateway routers.
D. Configure an IPsec tunnel between the data center and cloud gateway routers.
To ensure that all data is encrypted between the data center and the private cloud network, the most effective solution is to set up an IPsec tunnel in tunnel mode between the gateway routers.
IPsec Tunnel Mode:
Full Packet Encryption: Encrypts the entire IP packet, including both the payload and the original IP headers.
Gateway-to-Gateway Security: Ideal for establishing secure connections between networks over an untrusted medium like the internet.
Secure Data Transmission: Provides confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity for all data traversing the tunnel.
By configuring IPsec in tunnel mode on the routers at both the data center and the cloud gateway, all traffic between these points is automatically encrypted. This meets the organization’s requirement to ensure that all data is encrypted between the two locations.
By configuring an IPsec tunnel between the data center and cloud gateway routers, the organization can:
Encrypt All Data: Ensure that every piece of data transmitted between the two locations is encrypted.
Enhance Security: Protect against eavesdropping, tampering, and interception.
Maintain Performance: Utilize hardware-accelerated encryption on routers to minimize impact on network performance.
Simplify Management: Centralize encryption policies on gateway devices.
An organization plans to contract with a provider for a disaster recovery site that will host server hardware. When the primary data center fails, data will be restored, and the secondary site will be activated. Costs must be minimized. Which type of disaster recovery should the organization deploy?
A. Mobile site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Cold site
D. Cold site
A cold site is a backup facility with basic infrastructure-power, cooling, and physical space-but no active hardware or data.
Cost: It’s the least expensive option because you are not maintaining hardware or up-to-date data at the site.
Recovery Time: In the event of a failure, the organization needs to bring in hardware and restore data from backups, which means a longer recovery time.
Suitability: Ideal for organizations that want to minimize costs and can tolerate longer downtime during disaster recovery.
Since the organization wants to minimize costs and is prepared to restore data and activate the secondary site after a failure (accepting a longer recovery time).
A security analyst has been tasked with implementing secure access to a file server that stores sensitive data. The analyst plans to create rules using the IP addresses of systems that will be allowed to connect to the server. The analyst has been instructed to minimize costs and administrative overhead. Which device is the best solution in this scenario?
A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
B. Web Application Firewall (WAF)
C. Layer 4 Firewall
D. Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)
C. Layer 4 Firewall
IP Address-Based Filtering:
Functionality: Layer 4 firewalls operate at the transport layer of the OSI model. They are designed to filter traffic based on source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, and protocols.
Alignment with Requirements: This directly aligns with the analyst’s plan to create rules using the IP addresses of systems allowed to connect. It provides precise control over which devices can access the sensitive file server.
Minimized Costs:
Cost-Effective: Compared to more advanced firewalls like Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs), a Layer 4 firewall is less expensive to procure and maintain.
Simplicity: With fewer features and complexities, it reduces the upfront investment and ongoing operational costs.
Reduced Administrative Overhead:
Ease of Management: Layer 4 firewalls are simpler to configure and manage due to their straightforward rule sets based on IP addresses and ports.
Quick Deployment: The simplicity allows for faster implementation without the need for specialized training or extensive management.
Secure Access Control: Allows the analyst to create IP-based rules to control access to the sensitive server.
Cost efficiency: Keeps costs low by avoiding unnecessary features and higher-priced equipment.
Low Administrative Overhead: Simplifies management with straightforward configurations, reducing the time and resources needed for administration.
By choosing a Layer 4 firewall, the organization achieves effective security tailored to its needs without incurring unnecessary expenses or complexity.
An organization’s users are redirected to a dummy vendor website that uses a stolen SSL certificate. The users unknowingly make purchases on the site using a corporate credit card. What should the organization do to mitigate this risk?
A. Configure all browser to use OCSP
B. Validate each vendor site’s CSR
C. Deploy PKI for certificate management
D. Validate the certificate with the CA
A. Configure all browser to use OCSP
Online Certificate Status Protocol
Stolen SSSL Certificate: Attackers are using a stolen SSL certificate to impersonate a legitimate vendor website.
User Risk: Users are being misled into making purchases on the fraudulent site using corporate credit cards.
Trust Exploitation: The browsers trust the stolen certificate because they’re not checking its revocation status.
OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) is a protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate. It allows browsers to perform real-time checks with the Certificate Authority (CA) to verify whether a certificate is still valid or has been revoked.
Configuring all browsers to use OCSP ensures:
Browsers Automatically Verify Certificates: Users’ browsers will check the revocation status of SSL certificates in real-time.
Enhanced Security: Access to sites with revoked or invalid certificates will be blocked or will prompt a warning, reducing the risk of fraudulent transactions.
User Transparency: Protection is provided without requiring additional actions from users, maintaining a seamless experience.
Which of the following best describes a digital signal?
A. A message hash encrypted with the sender’s public key
B. A message hash encrypted with the sender private key
C. A message hash encrypted with the recipient’s public key
D. A message hash encrypted with the recipient’s private key
Answer: B. A message hash encrypted with the sender’s private key
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows a sender to authenticate their identity and ensure the integrity of a message. It involves the following steps:
Hashing the Message:
The sender applies a hash function to the original message to generate a fixed-size hash value (message digest).
This hash value uniquely represents the contents of the message.
Encrypting the Hash with the Sender’s Private Key:
The sender encrypts the hash value using their private key.
This encrypted hash is the digital signature.
Appending the Signature:
The digital signature is attached to the original message and sent to the recipient.
Verification Process by the Recipient:
Decrypting the Signature:
The recipient uses the sender’s public key to decrypt the digital signature, retrieving the original hash value.
Hashing the Received Message:
The recipient independently computes the hash of the received message using the same hash function used by the sender.
Comparing Hash Values:
The recipient compares the decrypted hash (from the signature) with the newly computed hash.
If they match, it confirms that the message has not been altered and authenticates the sender.
Why Option B is Correct:
Authentication: Encrypting the hash with the sender’s private key ensures that the signature could only have been created by the sender, as only they possess their private key.
Integrity: Any alteration to the message would result in a different hash value upon verification, indicating tampering.
Non-Repudiation: The sender cannot deny sending the message, as the digital signature is uniquely tied to their private key.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Option A (A message hash encrypted with the sender’s public key):
The sender’s public key is available to anyone. Encrypting with the public key does not authenticate the sender, as anyone could perform this action.
Typically, the recipient’s public key is used for encrypting messages to ensure confidentiality, not for creating digital signatures.
Option C (A message hash encrypted with the recipient’s public key):
Encrypting with the recipient’s public key is used to ensure that only the recipient can decrypt the message (confidentiality), not to create a digital signature.
This does not provide authentication of the sender’s identity.
Option D (A message hash encrypted with the recipient’s private key):
The recipient’s private key should never be known or used by the sender.
Encrypting with the recipient’s private key doesn’t make sense in this context and does not create a valid digital signature.
Summary:
A digital signature is best described as a message hash encrypted with the sender’s private key (Option B).
This process provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation, ensuring that the message is from the claimed sender and has not been altered.
To increase security and prevent active attacks on a branch office network, an organization connects an IPS to a network tap. The IPS shows alerts for active attacks, but the network still suffers multiple breaches in quick succession. What should the organization do to address this situation?
A. Require a VPN for all connections
B. Replace the IPS with a firewall
C. Implement an SD-WAN
D. Place the IPS device inline
Answer: D. Place the IPS device inline
Explanation:
The organization should place the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) device inline within the network traffic flow to actively prevent attacks and enhance security. Here’s why this is the most effective solution:
Current Scenario
IPS Connected to a Network Tap:
A network tap is a passive device that copies network traffic for monitoring purposes.
The IPS, connected via the tap, is operating in passive mode.
Limitations:
The IPS can detect and alert on malicious activities.
It cannot intervene or block malicious traffic because it’s not in the direct path of network traffic.
Outcome:
Despite alerts, the network continues to suffer breaches because the IPS isn’t able to actively prevent the attacks.
Recommended Solution
Place the IPS Device Inline:
Inline Deployment:
The IPS is positioned directly in the path of network traffic between the source and destination.
All incoming and outgoing traffic passes through the IPS.
Active Prevention Capability:
The IPS can inspect packets in real-time.
It can block, drop, or modify malicious traffic immediately upon detection.
Benefits:
Immediate Response: Stops attacks before they impact network resources.
Enhanced Security: Prevents unauthorized access, exploits, and malware propagation.
Reduced Breaches: Active intervention reduces the likelihood of successful breaches.
Why Other Options are Less Effective
A. Require a VPN for All Connections:
VPNs encrypt data in transit and secure remote access connections.
Limitations:
Does not prevent attacks originating from within the network.
Encryption alone doesn’t stop malicious traffic; it might even mask threats from security devices.
B. Replace the IPS with a Firewall:
Firewalls control traffic based on predefined security rules and are essential for perimeter security.
Limitations:
Traditional firewalls may not have deep packet inspection or advanced threat detection.
Replacing the IPS could reduce visibility into sophisticated attacks.
Complementary Roles: Firewalls and IPS devices serve different functions and are often used together.
C. Implement an SD-WAN:
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) optimizes WAN connections using software-based management.
Limitations:
Enhances network performance and flexibility but is not designed primarily for security.
Does not provide intrusion prevention capabilities needed to stop active attacks.
Implementation Considerations
Network Design:
Ensure the IPS is properly integrated into the network without causing bottlenecks.
Consider network redundancy to prevent single points of failure.
Performance:
Verify that the IPS can handle network throughput requirements to avoid latency.
Utilize IPS devices with appropriate capacity and performance specifications.
High Availability:
Deploy the IPS with failover capabilities to maintain network uptime in case of device failure.
Policy Configuration:
Update IPS signatures regularly to detect the latest threats.
Configure policies to balance security and false positives, ensuring legitimate traffic isn’t blocked.
Monitoring and Maintenance:
Continuously monitor IPS alerts and logs.
Analyze incidents to refine IPS rules and improve security posture.
Conclusion
By placing the IPS device inline, the organization moves from passive detection to active prevention of attacks. This change allows the IPS to:
Inspect and Act on Traffic in Real-Time: Block malicious packets before they reach their target.
Prevent Breaches: Reduce or eliminate successful attacks resulting in breaches.
Enhance Overall Security: Strengthen defenses against a wide array of threats.
An administrator sets up a VM for testing different versions of an application. The administrator wants to be able to return to the baseline state as quickly as possible between each test. What should the administrator do?
A. Configure a sandbox environment
B. Implement automatic change management
C. Create a snapshot of the VM
D. Run a full backup of the host
The administrator should C. Create a snapshot of the VM.
Explanation:
Creating a snapshot of the virtual machine captures its exact state at a specific point in time—including the operating system, installed applications, configurations, and settings. This means that after testing different versions of the application, the administrator can quickly revert the VM back to this baseline state with minimal downtime. It’s a fast and efficient way to reset the environment between tests without the need to reinstall or reconfigure the system.
Why the Other Options Aren’t Ideal:
A. Configure a sandbox environment:
While sandboxing can isolate applications for testing and enhance security, it doesn’t provide a quick method to revert the entire system to a previous state. It focuses more on containing changes rather than facilitating rapid rollbacks.
B. Implement automatic change management:
Change management tracks and manages changes to the system but doesn’t help in rapidly returning to a baseline state. It’s about oversight and control, not swift restoration.
D. Run a full backup of the host:
Full backups are essential for disaster recovery but are time-consuming to create and restore. Using them between each test would be inefficient and would significantly slow down the testing process.
Additional Insights:
Leveraging VM snapshots not only accelerates the testing cycle but also offers flexibility:
Multiple Testing Scenarios: You can create multiple snapshots at different stages to branch out testing paths without affecting the primary baseline.
Resource Efficiency: Snapshots consume less storage compared to full backups since they only record changes from the time of the snapshot.
Integration with Automation Tools: Incorporate snapshot management into automation scripts to further streamline the process, allowing for automated revert actions after test completions.
Have you considered integrating continuous integration/continuous deployment (CI/CD) tools into your testing environment? This could automate the deployment of application versions and work hand-in-hand with your snapshot strategy to enhance efficiency even further.
Which type of threat actor is MOST likely to become an advanced persistent threat (APT)?
A. Insider threat actor
B. Shadow IT threat actor
C. Nation-state threat actor
D. Unskilled attacker
Answer: C. Nation-state threat actor
Explanation:
An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is a prolonged and targeted cyberattack in which an intruder gains access to a network and remains undetected for an extended period. APTs are characterized by:
Sophistication: Use of advanced hacking techniques and tools.
Persistence: Maintaining long-term access to the target system.
Resource Intensity: Significant resources are devoted to planning, executing, and sustaining the attack.
Specific Targets: Often aimed at high-value targets like governments, critical infrastructure, or large corporations.
Why Option C is Correct:
Nation-State Threat Actors:
Resources and Funding: Nation-states have substantial resources and funding to support complex cyber operations.
Expertise: They employ skilled teams of hackers and cybersecurity experts capable of developing or acquiring advanced tools and zero-day exploits.
Objectives: Motivated by political, economic, or strategic goals such as espionage, intelligence gathering, or disrupting another nation’s operations.
Long-Term Operations: Capable of sustaining prolonged attacks while remaining undetected, fitting the “persistent” aspect of APTs.
Examples:
Stuxnet: Believed to be developed by the U.S. and Israel to target Iran’s nuclear facilities.
APT28 (Fancy Bear): Associated with Russian military intelligence, involved in various espionage activities.
APT40: Linked to China’s Ministry of State Security, targeting maritime, defense, and aerospace sectors.
Why the Other Options Are Less Likely:
A. Insider Threat Actor:
Characteristics:
Insiders are individuals within an organization who may intentionally or unintentionally cause harm.
They have authorized access, making it easier to retrieve sensitive information.
Limitations:
Typically lack the external resources and broad objectives associated with APTs.
Their impact is often limited to the scope of their access and may not involve prolonged undetected activities.
Conclusion:
While dangerous, insider threats are usually not categorized as APTs unless collaborating with external advanced actors.
B. Shadow IT Threat Actor:
Definition:
Shadow IT refers to information technology systems and solutions built and used inside organizations without explicit organizational approval.
Risks:
Can introduce vulnerabilities due to lack of oversight.
Not an external threat actor but an internal practice that may be exploited.
Conclusion:
Shadow IT is a phenomenon, not a threat actor, and thus is not likely to be an APT.
D. Unskilled Attacker:
Characteristics:
Also known as “script kiddies,” they use existing scripts or tools without deep understanding.
Motivated by curiosity, notoriety, or low-level financial gain.
Limitations:
Lack the expertise and resources to conduct sophisticated, prolonged attacks.
Their activities are more opportunistic rather than targeted and persistent.
Conclusion:
Unskilled attackers are unlikely to become APTs due to their limited capabilities.
Summary:
Nation-State Threat Actors are the most likely to become Advanced Persistent Threats because they have:
Strategic Motivations: Political, economic, or military objectives.
Significant Resources: Funding, technology, and skilled personnel.
Advanced Capabilities: Ability to develop or acquire sophisticated tools and techniques.
Persistence: Willingness and means to conduct long-term operations while evading detection.
A security analyst monitors operations for an organization with its main office in New York City. The analyst receives a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) alert indicating impossible travel for an on-premises user. Which of the following statements explains this finding?
A. A logon outside of normal working hours was attempted.
B. A brute force password attack was perpetrated against the user
C. A series of failed logons have locked the account out
D. A logon for the user account was attempted from a foreign IP
Answer: D. A logon for the user account was attempted from a foreign IP
Explanation:
An “impossible travel” SIEM alert is triggered when a user’s account is accessed from two geographically distant locations within a time frame that makes it impossible for the user to physically travel between them. This is a common indicator of a potential security breach, such as credential compromise.
Why Option D is Correct
D. A logon for the user account was attempted from a foreign IP
Geographical Discrepancy: The user’s account was accessed from an IP address associated with a location far from New York City (possibly another country).
Impossible Travel: Given the short time frame between logins from New York City and the foreign location, it’s physically impossible for the user to have traveled that distance.
Security Concern: This suggests that someone else, possibly an attacker, is using the user’s credentials from a remote location.
Why the Other Options Are Less Likely
A. A logon outside of normal working hours was attempted
Time-Based Alerts: Logging in outside of normal hours might trigger an alert for unusual activity but doesn’t relate to “impossible travel.”
No Geographical Factor: This option doesn’t involve a change in physical location, which is key to an impossible travel alert.
B. A brute force password attack was perpetrated against the user
Multiple Failed Attempts: A brute force attack involves repeatedly trying different passwords until one works.
Failed Logins: This would generate alerts for multiple failed logins, not impossible travel.
No Successful Login from Distant Location: Unless the attacker successfully logs in from a distant location, it doesn’t explain the impossible travel alert.
C. A series of failed logons have locked the account out
Account Lockout: Repeated failed login attempts leading to lockout indicate a possible attack but not impossible travel.
No Successful Remote Access: Since the account is locked, there wouldn’t be a successful login from a foreign IP.
Key Points
Impossible Travel Alert:
Definition: An alert that signifies a user’s account was accessed from two locations that are too far apart to travel between in the given time frame.
Implication: Possible credential compromise and unauthorized access.
Action Items for the Security Analyst:
Investigate the Foreign Login: Verify if the user was traveling or if the login was unauthorized.
Check for Credential Compromise: Determine if the user’s credentials have been stolen.
Implement Security Measures:
Password Reset: Prompt the user to change their password immediately.
Multi-Factor Authentication: Enforce MFA to add an extra layer of security.
Monitor Account Activity: Keep an eye on the account for any further suspicious activities.
Conclusion
Option D provides the most accurate explanation for the impossible travel SIEM alert. It points directly to a login attempt from a foreign IP address, which is consistent with the definition of impossible travel and indicates a potential security breach that requires immediate attention.
A company is configuring a secure web server. What must be submitted to a CA when requesting an SSL certificate?
A. OCSP
B. CSR
C. OID
D. CRL
Answer: B. CSR
Explanation:
When a company is configuring a secure web server and needs to obtain an SSL/TLS certificate, it must submit a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) to a Certificate Authority (CA). The CSR is a specially formatted block of text that includes information the CA needs to create the certificate.
What is a CSR?
Certificate Signing Request (CSR):
A CSR contains identifying information about the applicant:
Common Name (CN): Typically the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the server.
Organization (O): Legal name of the company.
Organizational Unit (OU): Division of the organization handling the certificate.
City/Locality (L) and State/Province (S).
Country (C): Two-letter country code.
Public Key: The CSR includes the public key that will be included in the certificate.
Digital Signature: The CSR is signed using the applicant’s private key to prove ownership of the public key.
Why is a CSR Needed?
Verification: The CA uses the information in the CSR to verify the applicant’s identity.
Certificate Creation: The CSR provides the necessary details to generate the SSL certificate that will secure communications to the web server.
Security: By generating the CSR on the server where the certificate will be installed, the private key remains secure and is never transmitted.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol):
OCSP is a protocol used to check the revocation status of digital certificates in real-time.
It is used by clients to verify that a certificate is still valid, not something submitted to a CA when requesting a certificate.
C. OID (Object Identifier):
An OID is a unique identifier used in certificates to identify a specific object or attribute, such as a policy or algorithm.
While OIDs may be included in certificates, they are not something the applicant submits separately to the CA.
D. CRL (Certificate Revocation List):
A CRL is a list published by a CA that contains certificates that have been revoked before their expiration date.
It is used by clients to check if a certificate is still trustworthy.
Applicants do not submit a CRL when requesting a new certificate.
Summary
To request an SSL certificate for a secure web server, the company must generate a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) and submit it to a Certificate Authority. The CA will then verify the information and issue a certificate that browsers can trust, enabling secure HTTPS connections to the web server.
An nmap scan of open ports include TCP ports 21, 22, 23, 80, 443, and 990. Which three ports indicate that unsecure protocols are in use on the computer? Select three
A. 23
B. 990
C. 22
D. 443
E. 21
F. 80
Answer:
The three ports that indicate that unsecure protocols are in use are:
A. 23
E. 21
F. 80
Explanation:
Let’s analyze each port and the protocols associated with them to determine which ones are considered insecure.
A. Port 23 (Telnet)
Protocol: Telnet
Purpose: Used for remote command-line login and communication.
Security:
Insecure: Telnet transmits data, including usernames and passwords, in plaintext.
Vulnerabilities: Susceptible to eavesdropping and interception by attackers using packet-sniffing tools.
Recommendation: Replace with SSH (Secure Shell) on port 22 for encrypted communication.
E. Port 21 (FTP)
Protocol: FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
Purpose: Used for transferring files between a client and a server.
Security:
Insecure: FTP also transmits data, usernames, and passwords in plaintext.
Vulnerabilities: Exposed to interception and man-in-the-middle attacks.
Recommendation: Use SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) or FTPS (FTP Secure) for secure file transfers.
F. Port 80 (HTTP)
Protocol: HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)
Purpose: Foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.
Security:
Insecure: HTTP does not encrypt data between the client and server.
Vulnerabilities: Information like login credentials and session cookies can be intercepted.
Recommendation: Use HTTPS (HTTP Secure) on port 443, which employs SSL/TLS encryption.
Additional Information on Other Ports:
B. Port 990
Protocol: FTPS (FTP Secure)
Purpose: An extension of FTP that adds support for SSL/TLS encryption.
Security:
Secure: Encrypts data transmission, protecting credentials and file contents.
Conclusion: Secure protocol.
C. Port 22
Protocol: SSH (Secure Shell)
Purpose: Provides secure remote login and other secure network services.
Security:
Secure: Encrypts data, preventing eavesdropping, interception, and tampering.
Conclusion: Secure protocol.
D. Port 443
Protocol: HTTPS (HTTP Secure)
Purpose: Secure version of HTTP using SSL/TLS encryption.
Security:
Secure: Encrypts communication between the client and server.
Conclusion: Secure protocol.
Summary:
Unsecure Protocols:
Port 21 (FTP): Plaintext file transfers.
Port 23 (Telnet): Plaintext remote command execution.
Port 80 (HTTP): Plaintext web traffic.
Secure Protocols:
Port 22 (SSH): Encrypted remote access.
Port 443 (HTTPS): Encrypted web traffic.
Port 990 (FTPS): Encrypted file transfers.
Recommendation:
For enhanced security, it’s advisable to:
Disable or restrict access to ports running insecure protocols if they are not needed.
Implement secure alternatives:
Replace FTP with SFTP or FTPS.
Replace Telnet with SSH.
Use HTTPS instead of HTTP for web services.
Use firewalls and access control lists (ACLs) to limit exposure to unsecure services.
Answering Your Question:
The three ports indicating unsecure protocols are in use are:
A. 23 (Telnet)
E. 21 (FTP)
F. 80 (HTTP)
A company is pursuing a PCI DSS certification. The company wants to implement secure management of the entire cryptography key lifecycle for the enterprise and prevent outside access to cryptographic keys. What should the company use?
A. HSM
B. CA
C. TPM
D. NIPS
Answer: A. HSM
Explanation:
To securely manage the entire cryptography key lifecycle and prevent outside access to cryptographic keys—especially in pursuit of PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) certification—the company should implement a Hardware Security Module (HSM).
Why HSM Is the Correct Choice
Secure Key Storage: An HSM is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys. It provides a tamper-resistant environment for cryptographic operations, ensuring that keys are stored securely and are protected from unauthorized access.
Comprehensive Key Lifecycle Management: HSMs handle the entire lifecycle of cryptographic keys, including generation, distribution, storage, rotation, and destruction. This end-to-end management is crucial for maintaining robust security practices within the enterprise.
Regulatory Compliance: PCI DSS has stringent requirements for the protection of cryptographic keys used in processing payment information. HSMs are designed to meet these standards by providing features like:
Role-Based Access Control: Limits key access to authorized personnel only.
Audit Logging: Tracks all key management activities for compliance reporting.
Physical Security Measures: Protects against tampering with features like intrusion detection and secure enclosures.
Performance and Scalability: HSMs can perform cryptographic operations rapidly and efficiently, which is essential for enterprise environments where high performance is required without compromising security.
Isolation from External Threats: By keeping cryptographic keys within a dedicated hardware device, HSMs prevent outside entities from accessing or extracting sensitive keys, significantly reducing the risk of key compromise.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable
B. Certificate Authority (CA):
Function: A CA issues digital certificates that validate the ownership of encryption keys used in secure communications.
Limitations: While a CA plays a role in managing public key infrastructures (PKI), it does not provide the hardware-based secure storage and management of cryptographic keys within the organization’s environment.
Usage: CAs are more about establishing trust in external communications rather than securing internal key management.
C. Trusted Platform Module (TPM):
Function: A TPM is a specialized chip on an endpoint device that stores cryptographic keys specific to that device.
Limitations:
Device-Specific: TPMs are designed for individual devices and are not suitable for enterprise-wide key management.
Limited Scope: They do not manage the full key lifecycle across multiple systems or handle high-volume cryptographic operations required by servers processing payment data.
D. Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS):
Function: A NIPS monitors network traffic to detect and prevent security threats and attacks.
Limitations:
Unrelated to Key Management: NIPS does not handle cryptographic keys or their lifecycle management.
Focus: Its primary role is to identify and stop malicious network activity, not to secure cryptographic operations.
Conclusion
Implementing a Hardware Security Module (HSM) is the most effective solution for the company’s needs:
It secures cryptographic keys within a tamper-resistant hardware device.
Provides comprehensive key lifecycle management, handling everything from key generation to destruction.
Aligns with PCI DSS requirements, aiding in achieving and maintaining compliance.
Prevents unauthorized access to cryptographic keys, enhancing overall security.
By choosing an HSM, the company invests in a robust security infrastructure that not only meets regulatory standards but also fortifies the protection of sensitive data against potential breaches.
An organization is concerned that privilege creep may lead to data exfiltration. Which principle or practice should the organization implement to mitigate this risk?
A. Job rotation
B. Least privilege
C. Discretionary access
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: B. Least privilege
Explanation:
To mitigate the risk of privilege creep leading to data exfiltration, the organization should implement the principle of least privilege. This security practice involves granting users only the minimum levels of access—or permissions—that are essential to perform their job functions.
Why Least Privilege is the Correct Choice
Minimizes Access Rights: By restricting user access to only what is necessary, the organization reduces the chances of unauthorized access to sensitive data.
Prevents Accumulation of Privileges: Regularly reviewing and adjusting user permissions ensures that employees do not retain access rights they no longer need as they change roles or responsibilities.
Reduces Attack Surface: Limiting privileges makes it more difficult for malicious actors to exploit user accounts to exfiltrate data.
Enhances Accountability: With precise access controls, it’s easier to track user activities and identify potential security breaches.
Why the Other Options Are Less Effective
A. Job Rotation
Definition: Employees periodically change roles within the organization.
Limitation: While it helps in cross-training staff and potentially detecting fraudulent activities, it doesn’t address the accumulation of access rights. In fact, it may increase privilege creep if access rights from previous roles are not removed promptly.
C. Discretionary Access
Definition: Access control model where the data owner decides who has access.
Limitation: Can lead to inconsistent permission assignments and lacks centralized control, making it harder to enforce strict access policies and prevent privilege creep.
D. Mandatory Vacations
Definition: Requiring employees to take time off to detect fraud or irregularities.
Limitation: While it can help uncover unauthorized activities by ensuring others perform the absent employee’s duties, it doesn’t prevent the gradual accumulation of unnecessary privileges.
Conclusion
Implementing the least privilege principle is the most effective practice to address privilege creep and mitigate the risk of data exfiltration. It ensures that users have appropriate access aligned with their current job responsibilities and that excess privileges are revoked in a timely manner.
Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to be internal? (Choose two)
A. Insider
B. Shadow IT
C. Nation-state
D. Hacktivist
E. Organized crime
The two threat actors most likely to be internal are:
A. Insider
B. Shadow IT
Explanation
Let’s delve into each option to understand why Insider and Shadow IT are the correct choices.
A. Insider
An Insider threat actor is someone within the organization who has authorized access to its resources. This individual could be:
Employees
Contractors
Business partners
Characteristics:
Authorized Access: They have legitimate access to systems and data.
Motivations:
Malicious Intent: Sabotage, theft of intellectual property, or fraud.
Negligence: Unintentionally causing harm through careless actions.
Impact: Can bypass security measures since they are trusted entities.
Examples:
An employee stealing customer data to sell on the black market.
A staff member accidentally deleting critical files due to lack of training.
B. Shadow IT
Shadow IT refers to information technology systems and solutions built and used inside organizations without explicit organizational approval.
Characteristics:
Unauthorized Implementation: Employees use tools or services without IT department knowledge.
Internal Origin: Initiated by insiders seeking to improve efficiency or bypass restrictions.
Risks:
Security Vulnerabilities: Unvetted software may have exploitable weaknesses.
Compliance Issues: May lead to non-compliance with regulations.
Examples:
Using personal cloud storage services to share company documents.
Installing unauthorized messaging apps for team communication.
Why the Other Options Are Less Likely Internal
C. Nation-State
Definition: Government-sponsored groups conducting cyber-espionage or attacks.
External Actor: Operate outside the target organization.
Motivation: Political, economic, or military advantages.
D. Hacktivist
Definition: Individuals or groups hacking to promote political or social agendas.
External Actor: Not affiliated with the target organization.
Motivation: Ideological beliefs, activism.
E. Organized Crime
Definition: Criminal organizations engaging in cybercrime for financial gain.
External Actor: Attack from outside the organization.
Activities: Ransomware attacks, fraud, identity theft.
Visual Summary
plaintext
Copy
| Threat Actor | Internal | External |
|——————-|———-|———-|
| Insider | ✔ | |
| Shadow IT | ✔ | |
| Nation-State | | ✔ |
| Hacktivist | | ✔ |
| Organized Crime | | ✔ |
Mitigating Internal Threats
To address risks posed by internal threat actors:
Implement the Principle of Least Privilege:
Limit access rights for users to the bare minimum permissions they need.
Conduct Regular Security Training:
Educate employees about security policies and the risks of unauthorized tools.
Establish Clear Policies and Procedures:
Define acceptable use of IT resources and consequences for violations.
Monitor and Audit Systems:
Use monitoring tools to detect unusual activities.
Encourage a Security-First Culture:
Promote awareness and make security everyone’s responsibility.