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Cyber Warrior Program > File Security + Flashcards > Flashcards

File Security + Flashcards

Pass the First Time

1
Q

What are the properties of a secure information processing system?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability (and Non-repudiation).

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2
Q

What term is used to describe the property of a secure network where a sender cannot deny having sent a message?

A

Non-repudiation

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3
Q

A multinational company manages a large amount of valuable intellectual property (IP) data, plus personal data for its customers and account holders. What type of business unit can be used to manage such important and complex security requirements?

A

A security operations center (SOC)

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4
Q

A business is expanding rapidly and the owner is worried about tensions between its established IT and programming divisions. What type of security business unit or function could help to resolve these issues?

A

Development and Operations (DevOps) is a cultural shift within an organization to encourage much more collaboration between developers and system administrators. DevSecOps embed the security function within these teams as well.

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5
Q

Availability

A

The fundamental security goal of ensuring that computer systems operate continuously and that authorized persons can access data that they need

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6
Q

CIA triad

A

The three principles of security control and management. Also known as the information security triad. Also referred to in reverse order as the AIC triad.

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7
Q

CISO

A

Chief Information Security Officer
Typically the job title of the person with overall responsibility for information assurance and systems security. Sometimes referred to as Chief Information Officer (CIO)

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8
Q

Confidentiality

A

The fundamental security goal of keeping information and communications private and protecting them from unauthorized access.

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9
Q

CSIRT (Computer Security Incident Response Team)

A

Team with responsibility for incident response. The CSIRT must have expertise across a number of business domains (IT, HR, legal, and marketing for instance).

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10
Q

DevSecOps

A

A combination of software development, security operations, and systems operations, and refers to the practice of integrating each discipline with the others.

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11
Q

integrity

A

The fundamental security goal of keeping organizational information accurate, free of errors, and without unauthorized modifications.

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12
Q

ISSO (Information Systems Security Officer)

A

Organizational role with technical responsibilities for implementation of security policies, frameworks, and controls.

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13
Q

NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology)

A

Develops computer security standards used by US federal agencies and publishes cybersecurity best practices guides and research.

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14
Q

Non-Repudiation

A

The security goal of ensuring that the party that sent a transmission or created data remains associated with that data and cannot deny sending or creating that data.

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15
Q

SOC (security operations center)

A

The location where security professionals monitor and protect critical information assets in an organization.

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16
Q

You have implemented a secure web gateway that blocks access to a social networking site. How would you categorize this type of security control?

A

It is a technical type of control (implemented in software) and acts as a preventive measure.

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17
Q

A company has installed motion-activated floodlighting on the grounds its premises. What class and function is this security control?

A

It would be classed as a physical control and its function is both detecting and deterring.

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18
Q

A firewall appliance intercepts a packet that violates policy. It automatically updates its Access Control List to block all further packets from the source IP. What TWO functions is the security control performing?

A

Preventive and corrective

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19
Q

If a security control is described as operational and compensating, what can you determine about its nature and function?

A

That control is enforced by a person rather than a technical system, and that the control has been developed to replicate the functionality of a primary control, as required by a security standard.

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20
Q

If a company wants to ensure it is following best practice in choosing security controls, what type of resource would provide guidance?

A

A cybersecurity framework and/or benchmark and secure configuration guides.

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21
Q

CIS (Center for Internet Security)

A

A not-for-profit organization (founded partly by SANS). It publishes the well-known “Top 20 Critical Security Controls” (or system design recommendations).

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22
Q

Cloud Security Alliance

A

Industry body providing security guidance to CSPs, including enterprise reference architecture and security controls matrix.

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23
Q

Compensating Control

A

A security measure that takes on risk mitigation when a primary control fails or cannot completely meet expectations.

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24
Q

Corrective Control

A

A type of security control that acts after an incident to eliminate or minimize its impact.

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25
Q

Detective Control

A

A type of security control that acts during an incident to identify or record that it is happening.

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26
Q

deterrent control

A

A type of security control that discourages intrusion attempts.

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27
Q

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

A

Provisions and requirements protecting the personal data of European Union (EU) citizens. Transfers of personal data outside the EU Single Market are restricted unless protected by like-for-like regulations, such as the US’s Privacy Sheild requirements.

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28
Q

GLBA (Gramm-Leach Bliley Act)

A

A law enacted in 1999 that deregulated banks, but also instituted requirements that help protect the privacy of an individual’s financial information that is held by financial institutions.

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29
Q

ISO/IEC 27K (Internatinal Organization for Standardization 2700 Series)

A

A comprehensive set of standards for information security, including best practices for security and risk management, compliance, and technical implementation.

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30
Q

ISO/IEC 31K (International Organization for Standardization 31000 Series)

A

A comprehensive set of standards for enterprise risk management.

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31
Q

Managerial Control

A

A category of security control that gives oversight of the information system.

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32
Q

Operational Control

A

A category of security control that is implemented by people.

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33
Q

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project)

A

A charity and community publishing a number of secure application development resources.

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34
Q

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

A

Information security standard for organizations that process credit or bank card payments.

35
Q

Physical Control

A

A type of security control that acts against in-person intrusion attempts.

36
Q

Security Control

A

A technology or procedure put in place to mitigate vulnerabilities and risk and to ensure the confidentiality of data, integrity, and availability (CIA) of information.

37
Q

SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act)

A

A law enacted in 2002 that dictates requirements for the storage and retention of documents relating to an organization’s financial and business operations.

38
Q

SSAE SOC (Statements on Standards for Attestation of Engagements Service Organization Control)

A

Audit specifications designed to ensure that cloud/hosting providers meet professional standards. A SOC2 Type II report is created for a restricted audience, while SOC3 reports are provided for general consumption.

39
Q

Technical Control

A

A category of security control that is implemented as a system (hardware, software, or firmware). Technical controls may also be described as logical controls.

40
Q

Which of the following would be assessed by likelihood and impact: vulnerability, threat, or risk?

A

Risk. To assess likelihood and impact, you must identify both the vulnerability and the threat posed by a potential exploit.

41
Q

True or false? Nation state actors primarily only pose a risk to other states

A

False
Nation state actors have targeted commercial interests for theft, espionage, and extortion.

42
Q

You receive an email with a screenshot showing a command prompt at one of your application servers. The email suggests you engage the hacker for a day’s consultancy to patch the vulnerability. How should you categorize this threat?

A

This is either gray hat (semi-authorized) hacking. If the request for compensation via consultancy is an extortion threat (if refused, the hacker sells the exploit on the dark web), then the motivation is purely financial gain and can be categorized as black hat. If the consultancy is refused and the hacker takes no further action, it can be classes as gray hat.

43
Q

Which type of threat actor is primarily motivated by the desire for social change?

A

Hacktivist

44
Q

Which three types of threat actor are most likely to have high levels of funding?

A

State actors, criminal syndicates, and competitors.

45
Q

You are assisting with writing an attack surface assessment report for a small company. Following the CompTIA syllabus, which two potential attack vectors have been omitted from the following headings in the report? Direct access, Email, Remote and wireless, Web and social media, Cloud.

A

Removable media and supply chain.

46
Q

APT (advanced persistent threat)

A

An attackers ability to obtain , maintain and diversify access to network systems using exploits and malware.

47
Q

Attack Surface

A

The points at which a network or application receives external connections or inputs/outputs that are potential vectors to be exploited by a threat actor.

48
Q

Attack Vector

A

A specific path by which a threat actor gains unauthorized access to a system. Also referred to as a vector.

49
Q

Black Hat

A

A hacker operating with malicious intent.

50
Q

Criminal Syndicates

A

A type of threat actor that uses hacking and computer fraud for commercial gain. Also referred to as organized crime.

51
Q

Gray Hat

A

A hacker who analyzes networks without seeking authorization, but without many overtly malicious intent.

52
Q

Hacker

A

Often used to refer to someone who breaks into computer systems or spreads viruses, Ethical Hackers prefer to think themselves as experts on and explorers of computer security systems.

53
Q

Hacktivist

A

A threat actor that is motivated by social issue or political cause.

54
Q

Insider Threat

A

A type of threat actor who is assigned privileges on the system that cause an intentional or unintentional incident.

55
Q

Intentional Threat

A

A threat actor with a malicious purpose.

56
Q

Script Kiddie

A

An inexperienced, unskilled attacker that typically uses tools or scripts created by others.

57
Q

Shadow IT

A

Computer hardware, software, or services used on a private network without authorization from the system owner.

58
Q

State Actor

A

A type of threat actor that is supported by the resources of its host country’s military and security services. Also referred to as a nation state actor.

59
Q

Supply Chain Attack

A

An attack that targets the end-to-end process of manufacturing, distributing, and handling goods and services.

60
Q

Threat

A

The potential for an entity to exercise a vulnerability (that is, to breach security).

61
Q

Threat Actor

A

The person or entity responsible for an event that has been identified as a security incident or as a risk.

62
Q

Unintentional Threat

A

A threat actor that causes a vulnerability or exposes an attack vector without malicious intent.

63
Q

Vulnerability

A

A weakness that could be triggered accidentally or exploited intentionally to cause a security breach.

64
Q

White Hat

A

A hacker engaged in authorized penetration testing or other security consultancy.

65
Q

You are consulting on threat intelligence solutions for a supplier of electronic voting machines. What type of threat intelligence source would produce the most relevant information at the lowest cost?

A

For critical infrastructure providers, threat data sharing via an Information Sharing and Analysis Center (ISAC) is likely to be the best option.

66
Q

Your CEO wants to know if the company’s threat intelligence platform makes effective use of OSINT. What is OSINT?

A

Open-source intelligence (OSINT) is cybersecurity-relevant information harvested from public websites and data records. In terms of threat intelligence specifically, it refers to research and data feeds that are made publicly available.

67
Q

You are assessing whether to join AIS. What is AIS and what protocol should your SIEM support in order to connect to AIS servers?

A

Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) is a service offered by the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) for participating in threat intelligence sharing. AIS uses the Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information (TAXII) protocol as a means of transmitting CTI data between servers and clients.

68
Q

AI

A

Artificial intelligence
The science of creating machines with the ability to develop problem solving and analysis strategies without significant human direction or intervention.

69
Q

AIS

A

Automated Indicator Sharing
Threat intelligence data feed operated by the DHS.

70
Q

Closed-Source Intelligence

A

Information that is obtained through private sources and disseminated through paid-for subscription or membership services.

71
Q

CTI

A

Cyber Threat Intelligence
The process of investigating, collecting, and disseminating information about emerging threats and threat sources.

71
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
Scheme for identifying vulnerabilities developed by MITRE and adopted by NIST.

72
Q

Dark Web

A

Resources on the Internet that are distributed between anonymized nodes and protected from general access by multiple layers of encryption and routing.

73
Q

IoC (indicator of compromise)

A

A sign that an asset or network has been attacked or is currently under attack.

74
Q

ISAC

A

Information Sharing and Analysis Center
Not-for-profit group set up to share sector-specific threat intelligence and security best practices amongst its members.

75
Q

ML

A

Machine Learning
A component of AI that enables a machine to develop strategies for solving a task given a labeled data set where features have been manually identified but without further explicit instructions.

76
Q

OSINT

A

Open-Source Intelligence
Publicly available information plus the tools used to aggregate and search it.

77
Q

Reputation Data

A

Block lists of known threat sources, such as malware signatures, IP address ranges, and DNS domains. Also referred to as reputational threat intelligence.

78
Q

STIX

A

Structured Threat Information eXpression
A framework for analyzing cybersecurity incidents.

79
Q

TAXII

A

Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information
A protocol for supplying codified information to automate incident detection and analysis.

80
Q

Threat feed

A

Signatures and pattern-matching rules supplied to analysis platforms as an automated feed.

81
Q

Threat Map

A

Animated map showing threat sources in near real-time.

82
Q

TTP

A

Tactics, techniques, and procedures
Analysis of historical cyber-attacks and adversary actions.

83
Q
A

Cyber Warrior Program (15 decks)

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