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TIA MATS 2 > Section 3 > Flashcards

Section 3 Flashcards

1
Q

List the daily checks

A

Check all RTF channels (including ground and director) and DF

Test crash alarm and line

Check computer

Check Bowesfield signal box line

Check NT XE SCACC lines

Check ILS

Check signal lamp

Check CCTVs and fax machine

Check ATM

Check Landing Clearance Indicator System (LCIS)

Test internal emergency phone to AOC and the red phone

Ascertain airfields state on completion of DMs first inspection and obtain airfield status map

Check airfield lighting serviceability

When needed check snow state and send SNOWTAM

Send RVR vehicle out and record RVR readings

Check validity on work permits and NOTAMs

At 0600L each day check Durham fire brigade line

Call D&D and request permission to check 121.5 MHz on VCCS and standby radio (D&D will only respond if there is a problem)

Cross check the DD50 in order to ensure the Copperchase met input screen contains accurate readings

Check serviceability status of-
Standby Icom Air Band Transceiver ADC 119.8 plus spare battery

Standby channel 2 UHF charge if required

ATC mobile telephone, keep on charge

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2
Q

Once daily check complete, what should you do?

A

Annotate in the log, opening watch time, status of airfield and back up comms check complete

Any unserviceabilites should be logged and reported

Bowesfield line and Durham Fire line written in log that it has been checked

Once all checks complete a broadcast that Teesside Tower are opening watch

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3
Q

What other responsibilities are ADC responsible for?

A

Updating APR on all appropriate items of essential aerodrome information.

Alert the safety services and inform aircraft under its control of any depletion of those services

Informing the airport manager when it becomes apparent that there is a deteriotion in the aerodrome facilities

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4
Q

Control of IFR traffic operating with visual reference to the surface may be transferred by APR to ADC in what circumstances ?

A

When an aircraft carrying out an instrument approach becomes number one to land, and for the following aircraft when they’re established on final approach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding aircraft

Aircraft operating in the visual circuit

Aircraft approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10km or more

(( in the case of the last 2 points, the volume of traffic and ADC workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced separations permitted in the vicinity of the aerodrome ))

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5
Q

What does the term ‘runway in use’ mean?

A

Is used to indicate the particular runway selected by an ATCO as the most suitable at any particular time.

Normally this should be the runway most closely aligned with the surface wind

1,000ft and 3,000ft winds

Traffic patterns

Weather conditions

Approach aids available

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6
Q

When considering a runway change what must ADC do?

A

Consult with APR

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7
Q

Who get priority/ shouldn’t be delayed?
The aircraft using the runway in use
OR
An aircraft wishing to use another runway in use

A

The aircraft using the current runway in use

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8
Q

What is the position/ co-ordinations of TIA?

A

54 30 33N

001 25 46W

4.7nm SE of Darlington

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9
Q

Where is the reference point at TIA?

A

Midpoint of the runway 23/05

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10
Q

What is the aerodrome elevation at TIA?

A

120ft amsl

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11
Q

What is the transition altitude at TIA?

A

3000ft (6,000ft within the CTR/CTA)

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12
Q

What is the safety altitude at TIA?

A

3400ft

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13
Q

What are the instructions for Runway 23 Approach?

A

Line of pylons 146ft AAL

266ft AMSL

2.5nm

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14
Q

What is the height of Bilsdale TV Mast?

A

(Lit) 2178ft AAL

2298ft AMSL, 133degrees True

13.7nm from airfield

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15
Q

What is the length of runway 23/05?

A

2291m in length and 45m wide

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16
Q

What is the magnetic variation / annual change at TIA?

A

0.97W (2019) / 0.16degrees E

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17
Q

What is the PCN for Runway 05?

A

70F/C/W/T

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18
Q

What is the PCN for Runway 23?

A

70/F/C/W/T

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19
Q

What is the thresh hold elevation for Runway 05?

A

115ft

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20
Q

What is the thresh hold elevation for Runway 23?

A

116ft

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21
Q

What is the TORA (take off run available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2291m

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22
Q

What is the TODA (take off distance available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2576m

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23
Q

What is the ASDA (Accelerate stop distance available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2291m

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24
Q

What is the LDA (Landing distance available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2291m

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25
Q

What is the TORA (take off run available) for Runway 05 from Charlie?

A

1770m

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26
Q

What is the TODA (take off distance available) for Runway 05 from Charlie ?

A

2049m

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27
Q

What is the ASDA ( Accelerate stop distance available) for Runway 05 from Charlie ?

A

1770m

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28
Q

What is the TORA for Runway 23?

A

2291m

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29
Q

What is the TODA for Runway 23v

A

2488m

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30
Q

What is the ASDA for Runway 23?

A

2291m

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31
Q

What is the LDA for Runway 23?

A

2291m

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32
Q

What is the PCN for the main apron?

A

47/R/D/W/T

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33
Q

What is the PCN for the western apron?

A

13/F/D/X/T

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34
Q

What is the PCN for the Eastern apron?

A

6/R/D/W/T

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35
Q

List the non compliance’s with CAP 168 at TIA?

A

Only 777m of Approach lighting is available on runway 23 and it has not standard coded centre line

Hanger 2 (lit) infringes the runway 05/23 transitional slope and the ILS glide path aerials for Runway 05 and 23 are within the Runway 23/05 transitional slope

Taxiway C and D are only 15m wide and Alpha is 10.5m wide

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36
Q

List the things ADC must coordinate with APR as listed in TIA MATS 2

A

ADC is responsible for effecting coordination between APR on all departing flights, IFR, SVFR and VFR also including missed approaches.

IFR/SVFR clearances must be issued by APR

Inform APR on all circuit activity

ADC is responsible for allocating Runway In Use, but in doing so must coordinate with APR.

ADC is to co- ordinated with APR on all inbound VFR flights who make their first call on 119.8 and transfer the to APR if needed

ADC will pass start up/taxi and airborne messages to APR via the intercom

Any aircraft subject to a Radar Departure (RD) is not to be lined up until departure permission has been received by ADC from APR

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37
Q

If your passing an aircraft a revised clearance or post departure instructions , and the aircraft is on the runway what should you prefix the clearance with?

A

Hold position

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38
Q

For both runways, when should ATCOs not stop aircraft during its take off roll?

And what should ATCOs say if the aircraft has passed these points?

A

Runway 23- the disused 01/19 intersection

Runway 05- taxiway Charlie or alternatively a line from the position of the UKP bowser on stand 6

Should only issue the pilot with a warning of the relevant hazard to allow the pilot to take whatever action is deemed necessary

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39
Q

When shall a landing clearance be issued for IFR aircraft ?

If it is to be less than (stated) then what should the ATCO say?

A

Before 2nm from touch down

Expect late landing clearance (due vehicle on the runway)

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40
Q

What are the circuit procedures?

A

Runway 23- left hand
Runway 05- right hand

Not above 1,300ft QFE

Low level circuits will not normally be authorised

Only 1 aircraft is allowed to do opposite direction circuits as the view is restricted from VCR

Maximum of 4 aircraft in the circuit at one time

Aircraft must not fly over MSG unless necessary

When the lowest metrological vis reduced to less than 5,000m only one aircraft shall be allowed in the circuit

ADC is to inform APR when circuit active

IFR radar circuits are to be varied in direction and height/altitude

ADC has to state the runway in use when giving an aircraft low app, t/g etc

Aircraft must not hold over yarm or eagles life

ADC must obtain a clearance from APR for SVFR circuits

Squawk 7010, not above height 1,300ft QFE or not above altitude 1,500ft QNH unless coordinated with APR

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41
Q

What should ATCOs do when informed of a student first solo in the circuit?

A

State of readiness

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42
Q

Describe the military PFL

A

The initial request will normally include a commencement height (high key) 2,000-3,000ft

Hawks would commence 4,500ft

When cleared, the pilot will position overhead at a specified height

When clearance is given to commence the procedure the pilot will report ‘high key’ (highest height he is at) when abeam the upwind threshold on the dead side

The aircraft will report ‘low key’ when downwind and final abeam the touch down point

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43
Q

When can run and breaks be authorised?

A

For military aircraft diverting in

For Cobham (when requested prior to departure)

At the ATCOs discretion

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44
Q

If a helicopter wanted to operate on the 01 threshold what is the height limit and what information would you pass to other aircraft?

A

Not above 500ft AGL

Traffic information

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45
Q

What actions should the ATCO take when the CCTV is oos?

A

Notify ATE to replace the monitor

During the period of no monitor ATC must restrict the movements of aircraft and vehicles wishing to transit the affected areas

The DM is to be informed of the failure and request to monitor aircraft arriving and departing the apron and report any issues to ATC via the RT

Additional position checks from aircraft and vehicles may be requested

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46
Q

Unless the pilot has requested assistance or atc have made the request with DM, small aircraft will park where? And what restrictions are there?

A

Self park on the eastern apron during daylight hours when the visibility is greater than 800m

At night it only applies to based aircraft

47
Q

What is the restrictions on the Alpha taxiway?

A

Restriction of aircraft with a Maximum wheelbase of less than 6.00m

The BAe JS41 has a track of 6.08m and it has been risk assessed by Eastern and they have agreed to accept A3 taxiway subject to the following conditions-

Aircraft must remain on or close to the centreline

Aircraft must taxi at a reduced speed whilst on the A3 section

EZE will issue a notice to its crews to the effect that this taxiway is avail rather subject to the above conditions

Initially this will only be available to locales based crew

Only JS41 EZE

48
Q

What is the maximum wingspan of an aircraft wishing to use the Alpha taxiway?

A

Wingspan less than 24m and a wheel base of less than 6metres

The pilot must be asked if he can accept a 10.5m width taxiway

49
Q

Is a Gulfstream aircraft or a type similar is requested to park on the eastern apron what caution should be put in place?

A

Follow me vehicle from A1 to their stand number

50
Q

How far away is the holding point D2 from the 05 threshold?

A

280m

51
Q

When Runway 05 is in use, why are departing aircraft required to hold at D2?

A

Because it intercepts with the 05 GP, unless the departing aircraft can accept an intermediate departure or if the inbound aircraft is further than 10nm it won’t effect the 05 GP

52
Q

Where are the red stop bars located at TIA?

A

Holding point A1, B, C and D2

53
Q

In what circumstance should an aircraft cross a red stop bar?

A

If the stop bar is unserviceable and the ATCO has authorised the vehicle or aircraft to cross the lit stop bar

54
Q

When de- selecting the stop bars what other lights show to help guide the aircraft onto the runway?

A

Lead on, lead off lights

Except at A1 no green lead on and lead off lights only blue edge lights

55
Q

When is the LVP alert button selected on the lighting panel?

A

Only when in LVPs and aircraft movements are expected, the LVP alert button selects the standby diesel generators

56
Q

Who is responsible for carrying out all airfield inspections?

A

DM

57
Q

After each inspection what should the ATCO do?

A

Log the details of the inspection

58
Q

Who is responsible for the notification of surface inspections ?

A

ADI

59
Q

If ATC cannot get in contact with a vehicle on the airfield and seem to have lost RT with them, what is the solution?

A

Turn runway and taxiway lights on and off

Get another vehicle DM or Seagull to go out and get in contact with the vehicle who has lost rt

60
Q

Is the ground run of aircraft above idle power permitted on the main apron?

A

No

61
Q

Who selects the location of where the ground runs should be completed?

A

DM and ATC

62
Q

Where can smaller aircraft carry out their ground runs?

A

Eastern or western apron approved by ATC

63
Q

What should ATCOs caution when aircraft are completing in ground runs?

A

Jet blast

64
Q

If a FA20 is carrying out ground runs at D2 which area/caution is to be passed to other vehicles and aircraft?

A

Link 7, Delta taxiway from D1-D2

And possibly the 05 threshold depending on wind speed and direction.

65
Q

Who is responsible for informing ATC regarding grass cutting taking place ?

A

DM

66
Q

Whenever personnel or vehicles are close to the runway either WIP grass cutting etc, what shall ATC do?

A

Ensure UHF/VHF are cross coupled

67
Q

What WIP is exempt from work permits?

A

Routine lamp changes on taxiways only

Surface inspections

ILS adjustments

Bird patrols

68
Q

Is there a compass swing base at TIA?

A

No

69
Q

Where is link 1?

A

South side access to fire burning ground

70
Q

Where is link 2?

A

South side access to taxiways adjacent to link 1

71
Q

Where is link 3?

A

South side opposite holding point Charlie

72
Q

Where is link 4?

A

South side opposite link 7

73
Q

Where is link 5?

A

South side adjacent to 05 threshold

74
Q

Where is link 6?

A

Adjacent to hold D1

75
Q

Where is link 7?

A

Roadway adjacent to hold Charlie

76
Q

Where is link 8?

A

Withdrawn

Now gate 13

77
Q

Where is link 9?

A

Junction of the fuel farm road and Delta taxiway

78
Q

Where is link 10?

A

Withdrawn

North side disused runway 19

Only to be used in an emergency

79
Q

What is the speed limit on the manoeuvring area for vehicles?

A

10mph

80
Q

What is free flow?

A

Free flow status is where vehicles operate on the manoeuvring area, excluding the runways and their associated cleared and graded areas. Without clearance from ATC

Reducing the ground movement RT

81
Q

Who have free flow at TIA?

A

DM
Airport manager in DM vehicle
AFS vehicles
ATC staff in any vehicle
Fire 5 with approved falconer/bird control unit staff
ATE mobile with approved ATE staff
Cobham vehicles - limited operations only
Swissport and Consort - limited operations only

82
Q

When is free flow permitted?

A

During daylight hours only

Not in LVPs

Free flow will be in force unless ATC advice otherwise

Runway 23/05 is specifically omitted from the free flow procedure at all times

Freeflow Vehicles are not to proceed beyond any designated runway holding points

Only specific vehicles to be used unless authorised by ATC

Drivers must check their RT equipment is serviceable

Drivers must monitor GMC channel 2 and comply with ATC instructions

Drivers must do a RT check every 30mins if no communication has been heard from ATC

Drivers must have completed and passed a TIA RT course including knowledge of holding points etc

Vehicle is licensed

Vehicles use safe areas such as piggy lane hanger 3 mouth etc

83
Q

What is the limit to free flow for Cobham vehicles ?

A

Cobham staff May cross the alpha taxiway between hanger 360 and the eastern apron in either direction subject to the following below-

They must contact ATC each morning to determine if free flow is available, drivers must also give way to aircraft and vehicles under tow.

84
Q

What is the free flow limit for Swissport/Consort?

A

Limited free flow across the alpha taxiway at the crossing point (which is from stand 9 to Gate 7)

Drivers must caution around stand 6 for UKP fuel bowser

85
Q

When are bird control measures taken place at TIA?

A

Minimum every 30 minutes, during airport hours

Before first flight

Before official day

86
Q

If a pilot reports a bird strike what is the ATCO to do?

A

File a MOR

87
Q

What is the approach lighting for Runway 05?

A

High intensity coded white centreline and four crossbars extending 605m from the threshold

88
Q

What is the approach lighting for runway 23?

A

High intensity coded white centreline and five crossbars extending 777m from the threshold

89
Q

Describe the runway lighting?

A

The runway lighting consists of high intensity white bi-directional lights, of 60m gauge, with a low intensity omni-directional component.

The lights are elevated except where spacing requires lights at a runway intersection and at the junctions with the ORPs, where the lights are flush fitting.

Flush sitting high intensity green lights and elevated wing bars mark the threshold and flush fitting high intensity red lights mark the end of the runway.

High intensity coded centreline lighting of 30m spacing is also installed

90
Q

Describe the PAPIs at Runway 05?

A

4 unit system, 3 degrees, 312m from the threshold, to the left of the runway edge, MEHT 53ft

91
Q

Describe the PAPIs on Runway 23?

A

4 unit system, 3 degrees, 345m from the threshold, to the left of the runway edge, MEHT 52ft

92
Q

Describe the taxiway lighting ?

A

B, C and D are lit by green Centreline’s with red stop bars at B, C, D2.

Taxiway A, is lit by green Centreline’s as far as the end of the eastern apron and with blue edge lights from there to holding A1 including a red stop bar

93
Q

Describe the apron lighting?

A

Main apron is floodlit to the latest CAP168 standards

Western and Main apron are lit by flush fitting, blue edge lights. The apron area in front of H1 & 2 is floodlit

The stands opposite hanger 360 (Cobham) are also floodlit, these lights are controlled by Cobham

94
Q

Where are the red obstruction lights around the airfield?

A

1,2 and 3 hangers

Watchman scanner

ILS installations (Loc and GP)

Control tower

D/F building

DME

Cobham apron lighting columns

Billsdale TV mast (remote site)

Cleveland Bridge (remote site)

Moor house wind farm

95
Q

Where are the MET visibility lights located?

A

DME building (500m)

Building to the right of D2, P centre (1500m)

96
Q

What time frame should aerodrome lights be shown before an aircraft inbound or departing?

A

10 mins

97
Q

Which fire vehicle is the watch manager in if the CAT is higher than 4?

A

Fire 2

98
Q

Describe CAT 3?

A

4 crew and 1 foam vehicle

99
Q

Describe CAT 4?

A

5 crew and 1 foam vehicle

100
Q

Describe CAT 5?

A

6 crew and 2 foam vehicles

101
Q

Describe CAT 6?

100 seats or under

A

7 crew and 2 foam vehicles

102
Q

Describe CAT 6

over 100 seats

A

8 crew and 2 foam vehicles

103
Q

Describe CAT 7?

A

9 crew and 2 foam vehicles

104
Q

Describe CAT 8?

A

11 crew and 3 foam vehicles

105
Q

What action is to be taken in the event of a reduction in fire cover?

A

ATCO broadcast the information on all operational RTF channels

‘’ message from the aerodrome operator, rescue and fire facilities reduced to category (Number) ‘’

Issue a NOTAM if time period is more than 1 hour

Inform XE, NT, SCACC and SWAN

106
Q

When shall a weather standby be initiated ?

A

A weather standby is to be initiated whenever the weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe

107
Q

If an aircraft is carrying dangerous cargo what action should ATCO take?

A

Inform the watch manager ASAP

108
Q

What action should a ATCO do if a domestic fire call has been made?

A

RFFS can attend with one vehicle,
Inform aircraft of reduced fire cat
Normally fire 1 or 5

Airport manager is to be informed

109
Q

How many zones are there regarding grass cutting at TIA?

A

5

110
Q

When ca grass cutting take place?

A

During daylight hours and when the visibility is more than 1500m

111
Q

When grass cutting is taking place, what should ATC co-ordinate with ATE with?

A

That if grass cutting is taking place in the critical and safe guarded areas, the ILS is to be switched off.

This does depend on traffic patterns and wind and runway in use at the time.

If the ILS is to be oos for over 1 hour a NOTAM must be sent

112
Q

Describe the criteria of grass cutting taking place in the runway strip

A

Less than 10m from the runway edge- when there is no movements taking place

Between 10 - 55m from the runway edge (equivalent to the holding boards) - Light aircraft only and only with the agreement with the pilot concerned. Essential aerodrome information is to be passed!!!

Greater than 55m from the runway edge- pass essential aerodrome information

113
Q

If there is a communication barrier between grass cutter and ATC what shall the ATCO do?

A

Continue to make efforts to contact the escort of the grass cutter

Use the mobile number on work permit

Switch runway edge lights on 100% and off

Request another vehicle to go out to the grass cutter to get comms

Delay any runway movements until issue is resolved

TIA MATS 2 (6 decks)

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