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TIA MATS 2 > Section 1 > Flashcards

Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

TIA based aircraft operating locally will be given what pressure setting and when will they be given it?

A

QNH and when taxiing

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2
Q

When a/c are leaving CTA what pressure setting are they given?

A

Tyne and/or Barnsley regional QNH.

When requested or when seemed necessary

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3
Q

When is the QFE passed?

A

To an aircraft going into the circuit or when requested

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4
Q

What regional pressure setting will a/c transiting TIA CTA/CTR?

A

TIA QNH

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5
Q

What is the transition altitude at TIA?

A

6,000ft on TIA QNH

it’s effective during hours of operation within the CTA/CTR

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6
Q

What is the transition altitude in the surrounding FIR and outside the notified hours of operation?

A

3,000 ft

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7
Q

What is the safety altitude and minimum level of TIA and what is it within ?

A

Safety altitude- 25nm and 3,400ft and is determined by Great Shunner Fell which is 2,349ft AMSL.

Bearing and distance is 260 degrees Magnetic/ 29.9nm from the airfield.

Minimum level for initial approach at TD is 3,500ft

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8
Q

What are the regional pressure settings applicable to TIA?

A

Tyne

Barnsley

Humber

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9
Q

Who’s responsible for issuing SVFR clearances ?

A

Approach Radar

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10
Q

Do ADC need approval from APR for SVFR circuits?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Is there any deemed geographical separations at TIA?

A

No

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12
Q

When would conflicting inbound a/c be transferred to ADC regarding SVFR?

A

Until ADC controller has the a/c in sight and can use one of the reduced separations in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

Until then they must be held outside CTA/CTR and onward clearance only issued with full co-ordination

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13
Q

What phrase is used for SVFR clearances which applies to the CTR only and not to the CTA?

A

Cleared to the control zone boundary

NOT

Cleared to leave controlled airspace

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14
Q

What height clearance will be given to VFR a/c departing TIA CTA/CTR?

A

1,500ft on QNH

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15
Q

When is the restriction of 1,500ft off ADC clearance lifted?

A

By prior coordination with APR

Or

Once the a/c is on the APR frequency

(However, ADC or APR May modify this agreement at any time if coordination warrant. Introducing circular flow for inbound a/c on 23 Sedgefield/Stokesley and outbound a/c MwayJunctions/Northallerton

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16
Q

Light a/c from hanger 3, will be given what on their first call? And where should they be positioned?

A

Departure/ATC clearance and once this is correctly acknowledged, the a/c will be given taxi instructions as normal procedures.

The light a/c should pull forward to the white line delineating the exit

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17
Q

When shall departing VFR traffic be passed to APR?

A

No later than the CTR/CTA boundary

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18
Q

When shall Inbound VFR a/c be transferred to ADC?

A

A point agreed between ADC and APR but usually is the CTR/CTA boundary.

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19
Q

Are VRP’s used after official night?

A

It’s recommended not too, as it restricts the pilots ability to recognise the VRP

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20
Q

When are departing a/c coordinated with APR?

A

Prior to departure

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21
Q

When are arriving a/c to be coordinated with ADC?

A

Prior to entering the CTR/CTA

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22
Q

What’s the maximum number of a/c to be allowed at once in the circuit?

A

4

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23
Q

What areas should a/c not be held?

A

Yarm

Eaglescliffe

Or in the vicinity of Middleton St George

Unless for the interest in safety (over rules)

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24
Q

List the VRP’s and the bearing/range?

A

Hartlepool TD 034 degrees Mag
041 degrees/ 13nm

Redcar Racecourse TD 078 degrees Mag
071 degrees/14nm

Stokesley 111 degrees/08nm

Northallerton 186 degrees/10.4nm

Motorway Junctions TD 255 degrees Mag
272 degrees/07nm

Sedgefield Racecourse 356degrees/8.4nm

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25
Q

What are the VRPs used for?

A

If used appropriately for the interest of flight safety

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26
Q

What other 2 VRPs are used unofficially at TIA?

A

Reservoirs 348 degrees/2nm

Yarm 100 degrees/2.5nm

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27
Q

Regarding private strips at TIA, list them briefly and what airspace are they established too?

A

Easton Lane in Bishopton at Sedgefield

Turners Arms in Yearby at Redcar

Morton Carr Farm in Numthorpe at Middlesbrough (no longer in use)

East Colton - model flying 7 days a week

Croft Airfield

Stainsby Hall (sporting lodge)

All sites airspace will be established 1nm radius to an altitude of 1,000ft AMSL. Except Croft Airfield which will be 800ft AMSL.

All sites are located in or adjacent to the CTR/CTA

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28
Q

Operators from the private strips will be allowed following dispensation to operate non- radio within CTA, what are the exceptions?

A

To enable radio equipped a/c to take off and reach an altitude at which 2 way communication can be met.

to enable radio equipped a/c operating with the CTR to land in the event of RT failure. And ATC be advised by telephone ASAP.

If a/c is outside CTA they should not enter if not been given a clearance unless a/c is experiencing any other emergency.

A/c must maintain VMC at all times within CTR/CTA and responsible for adequate separation from all a/c in or near their site.

TIA reserves the right to cancel or modify these agreements at any time.

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29
Q

What is the RT failure procedure for locally based a/c?

A

Maintain VMC at all times

Transmit blind on 119.8 giving intentions

If outside CTR/CTA, enter zone on direct track from Sedgefield to airport or from Stokesley to the airport not above 1,000ft AMSL. Proceed direct to the airfield.

Orbit 0.5nm SE or NW as appropriate, at 500ft AGL. Wait for light signals and then proceed with a normal circuit and landing. (Radio transmissions and information will be transmitted by ATC).

If inside CTR/CTA continue as cleared, and if needed leave the CTR/CTA in accordance with the clearance issued and re enter as above.

This does not involve TIA based aircraft which have landed elsewhere and are en-route to/from a planned destination.

Squawk 7600

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30
Q

What is the airspace limit for TIA CTR?

A

SFC - 6,000ft

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31
Q

What is the airspace limit for CTA-1?

A

1,200 -6,000ft

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32
Q

What is the airspace limit for TIA CTA-2?

A

1,500 - 6,000ft

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33
Q

What is the airspace limit for TIA CTA-3?

A

3,000 - 6,000ft

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34
Q

If an aircraft has the EXAM call sign are they priority Z ?

A

No

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35
Q

What category are training flights?

A

Z

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36
Q

When a request of a training flights calls, what are the instructions the ATCA/ATCO to do?

A

Should refer to the ATC ATCO in charge

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37
Q

What are the restrictions for visual or instrumental circuits at TIA regarding training?

A

No more than 2 aircraft over 5,700kg MTWA (maximum take-off Weight Available) will be aloud in the visual or instrumental circuit at any one time, except with the agreement from the ATC ATCO in charge

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38
Q

What is the procedure for training flights at TIA and where can you find this information?

A

Training flights only take place during normal airfield opening hours, except with the agreement of the Airport Manager

Circuits at a minimum height of 1500ft AAL for aircraft 5700kg or above

Circuits will be variable in direction (to avoid noise complaints)

Aircraft are to be flown in such a manner as to avoid built up areas in the vicinity of the airport.

Find this information in MATS 2 Section 1 Chap 3

And

UK Air Pilot AD 2 EGNV 7

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39
Q

What is a ATFM and what is there object?

A

Air Traffic Flow Management

Is to contribute to a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic by ensuring that ATC capacity is used to the maximum, while ensuring the traffic volume never exceeds the capacity declared by the responsible ATC authority.

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40
Q

What is CFMU? And where can this be found?

A

Central Flow Management Unit

In the ATFM users manual which is held in the VCR

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41
Q

List the ATC responsibilities with respect to ATFM regulation

A

ATC are responsible for dep CTOT monitoring at departing aerodromes

ATC units are responsible for dep CTOT monitoring shall be provided with the necessary information concerning the restrictions in force and CTOTs allocated

ATC shall ensure that the ATFM CTOT if applicable is included as part of the ATC clearance

ATC shall take into account of an applicable CTOT or flight suspension when clearance is issued

ATC shall provide all possible assistance to aircraft operations to meet the CTOT or co-ordinate a revised CTOT and

ATC May deny start up clearance to flights unable to meet their CTOTs until co-ordination with the FMP/FMD has been effected and revised CTOT is issued

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42
Q

What is the window for CTOT?

A
  • 5 minutes before the CTOT

- 10 minutes after the CTOT

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43
Q

What is the time limit for flights when they’ll receive a FLS message ?

A

30 minutes of the notified ETOT or CTOT.

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44
Q

Is it an European Requirement that all controlled flights dep, arr or over flying Europe make good their EOBT, what is that time limit?

A

+/- 15 minutes

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45
Q

If an aircraft has filed a flight plan and +/- 15mins from EOBT has not met requirements, what should ATC do?

A

Not approve engine start at a time later than 15 minutes from EOBT nor should start approval before 15 minutes earlier than EOBT

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46
Q

Who’s responsibility is it when re-filing a flight plan or DLA message to be sent?

A

Aircraft Operators but ATC may send a DLA message. But the pilot must be aware that if a CTOT comes through they’re subject to Flow Management

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47
Q

Who does a REA message apply too?

A

Regulated flights only

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48
Q

In which 2 situations shall a REA message be sent by ATC?

A

The flight is ready to depart before EOBT (max 15 minutes before)

The flight is ready to depart before the CTOT

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49
Q

Where is TIA noise abatement (minimum noise procedures) published?

A

UK Air Pilot AD 2 EGNV 1-9 and also referenced in TIA Environmental Policy Page 1-67

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50
Q

What are the minimum noise procedures at TIA?

A

Operators to take into account the manner they fly to cause least disturbance

Turbo jet and Turboprop aircraft approaching TIA will be expected to conform to continuous descent and low power, low drag procedures. Aircraft should fly within the speed band 210kts to 240kts during the approach phase then reducing the speed band to 160kts to 180kts at a range of 12nm from touch down and maintain 160kts from 8nm - 4nm - touchdown

ATC in the interest of spacing may require the aircraft to fly at a specific speed which the aircraft must comply asap

ATC will advise pilots of the est of track distance to run to touchdown when cleared to descend through the transition altitude. Further information is given when aircraft between decent clearance and the turn onto the heading to intercept the ILS Localiser

Military aircraft will be vectored for an ILS/SRA approach, expect during a mass visual recovery incase of emergency diversion

Ground running of aircraft engines is subject to regulation and control. All ground runs must be pre arranged through Airport Duty Manager, and if necessary appropriate documentation filled. Ground run is not permitted between 2200-0700 (2100-0600 Zulu)

Aircraft to avoid flying over nearby villages of Middleton St George, Yarm and Eaglescliffe whenever possible

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51
Q

Who are noise complaints made too?

A

Airport Secretary or Airport Manager

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52
Q

What are ATC actions when an aircraft diverts into TIA?

A

Inform-

The Duty Manger (so optimum space of stands and apron are used)

RFFS, the Watch Manager will inform ATC of the RFFS category.

Handling Agents when necessary

ATC will only accept aircraft that have been agreed by the DM (Duty Manager) THIS DOES NOT APPLY TO AIRCRAFT IN AN EMERGENCY

ATC advises aircraft that ramp and handling services may be limited and that night stopping aircraft may be restricted

ATC will send the appropriate ARR message after a diverted aircraft has arrived

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53
Q

What does ATC do if an military aircraft wishes to divert?

A

Ask the pilot if they’re armed, if so all armed aircraft will be marshalled stand 1 and parked facing away from the terminal and fuel farm until the locking pins are inserted and the aircraft are secured

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54
Q

How do you record a diverted aircraft?

A

As normal, It is the handlings agents responsibility to mark the aircraft as diverted

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55
Q

Is an aircraft diverts out from TIA what action is taken?

A

ATC will make sure they have the most recent weather from Newcastle, Leeds, Leeming and Manchester plus any others considered appropriate.

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56
Q

Where is the parent Met Office for TIA?

A

Exeter Weather Centre

57
Q

What meteorological information is available in ATC ?

A

Routine observations at +20 mins and +50 mins

Aviation forecast for the North of England and Wales

Forecast Regional QNHs for the current and next hour

EGNV TAFs which are received on Copperchase

58
Q

The wind direction on the Viasala WAD 21M is presented in what measurement ?

A

Degrees magnetic

59
Q

The wind directions on the METAR is corrected to report in what measurement ?

A

Degrees True

60
Q

Who does ATC pass weather warnings on to?

A

ADM
RFFS
ATE

61
Q

Is the RVR changes and is different from the RVR reading on the Copperchase system what shall the ADC do?

A

Inform APR via the intercom

62
Q

What do you do if the MET system fails?

A

Keep a log of METARs in the MET log, which is in the VCR

Inform ATE

And manually observe the weather by:

Windsock 23 or 05
Cloud (est or a/c reports)
Outside Air Temp (Stephenson Screen on balcony) which is a Mercury Thermometer

Wet/Ice bulb (Stephenson Screen on balcony) which is a Mercury Thermometer and use the conversions tables in the VCR

Local airfield pressure - barometer and use conversion tables in the VCR for QNH or QFE

Manually input the observed weather into the weather fill form on the VCR Copperchase

If you still can’t send a METAR use AFPEX system if still not working ring Comcen Swanwick and ask them to transmit the METAR on behalf of us.
If faxed you must include what’s shown in MATS 2

63
Q

How long are flights strips retained for prior to disposal ?

A

2 months

64
Q

If a pilot who is Airborne requests to file a flight plan what should the controller do?

A

Transfer him/her to London Information to make their request

65
Q

In addition to the standard strip marking symbols as laid out in the MATS 1 App E, what are the following symbols used for?

L
I
S
BY
TY
HU
X
A 
L- Locator Approach 
I- ILS Approach
S- SRA
BY- Barnsley regional QNH
TY- Tyne regional QNH
HU- Humber regional QNH
X- the crossing symbol shall be used to indicate when an aircraft has been cleared to transit CAS
66
Q

Do TIA have power to authorise or prevent any aerial activity outside CAS?

A

No

67
Q

When information if provided by telephone about a special category flight what details are obtained?

A

Type of activity (release of balloons, photo survey)

Location

Date, Time and duration

Maximum height or ALT

Name and address and/ or telephone number of the organiser

Any issued Non Standard Flight Reference (NSF) if applicable

Put in diary and give VCR and Radar info regarding it if a Moran is in place

68
Q

What are your actions when a Captive Balloon breaks free?

A

The ATCO I/C shall inform Swanwick ACC in accordance with the MATS 1 part 1 section 1 chapter 2 para 20.

The radar ATCO should try and track the balloon but if it cannot be seen on radar, it’s possible track should take into account upper winds on the local area

Any A/C in the vicinity of the balloons likely track should be warned and any sightings reported to Swanwick ACC

69
Q

Where does gliding take place near TIA?

A

RAF XZ and RAF XU at weekends

Sutton Bank active 7 days a week

70
Q

Where does paragliding/handgliding take place near TIA?

A

Carlton Moor and Model Ridge when the wind is between NW - NE at 15kts or less

71
Q

What are the restrictions on parachuting, aerobatics and other unusual Aerial Activity at TIA?

A

They’re not permitted within 3nm of the aerodrome reference point below 6,000ft AGL unless approved by the Airport Manager.

If parachuting is permitted over the airfield all aircraft on the airfield must have there engines off

72
Q

What are the restrictions on parachuting, aerobatics and other unusual Aerial Activity at TIA within the CTR/CTA?

A

At the discretion of the ATCO in charge

73
Q

What is the distance from TIA to Redmarshall and what is the maximum level?

A

Heading 016, 3.7NM

Between 0930-2130 Local time or Dusk whatever is sooner

Up to a level of 500ft AGL

74
Q

When taxing a Helicopter what should you take into account?

A

Other personnel or aircraft nearby, wake vortices, and if in the months of May and October due to grass cutting be precise about their routing.

Do not taxi helicopters from Alpha passed Cobham Apron due to the increase risk of FOD ingestion. Especially if engines are running. If cannot taxi any other way make sure contact with Cobham engineers to stop engines before taxing

75
Q

Is rotor running refuelling permitted at TIA?

A

No

And if a pilot asks ‘that is not available at TIA’

76
Q

If a Royal flight is inbound to TIA or outbound what must the ADC do?

A

Put a local standby on

77
Q

Who is responsible for the monitoring of ATC equipment?

A

ATCOs

78
Q

What equipment is presented to the ADC via the warning panel located in the VCR?

A

ILS
DME
NDB
Voice Recorders

79
Q

What is the procedure of reporting a problem with ATC Equipment?

A

Report to ATE ASAP (via the ATCO i/c if possible)

All relevant details placed in the log book

ATE will enter the details in their log book before they investigate and raise a job card which will carry an individual job number

If more than one piece of equipment fails at the same time ATE should be given an idea of priority so they can plan their work orderly

Ensure that a NOTAM action is taken (including extensions and cancellations) if ATE advise the equipment will be out of service for an extended period

Once corrective action is complete, ATE will hand the equipment back to ATC (it must be logged)

Pass information to next watch

The oncoming watch should review recent log entries to double check nothing has been missed

80
Q

What is recorded in the watch log?

A

ATCO i/c will sign the log opening and closing of the watch.

Results of braking action
Bird scaring
Runway inspections etc

81
Q

How long is an RVR log kept?

A

12 months as per MATS 1 in the ATCUM office

82
Q

What is ATC responsible for instigating ?

A

Aerodrome inspections and any follow up action required

NOTAMs

LVPs

SNOWTAM action

83
Q

What should ATC liaise and co-ordinate with RFFS for?

A

RVR readings

Bird scaring/patrols

Snow clearance

Removal of stray animals from the airfield

LVPs

84
Q

What should ATC liaise with Work service about? (Electrics)

A

Serviceability of airfield lighting

Serviceability of lighting and all electrical appliances in ATC

Problems with water supply

Minor repairs to fittings and furnishings especially locks

Marking and lighting of bad ground or obstructions on the manoeuvring area

Any major faults should draw the attention of ATCUM or Engineer Manager

85
Q

What should ATC liaise with ATE about?

A

All radio frequencies

Headsets

VDF

Radar

ILS and DME

NDB

Recorder monitor

Telephone lines

Intercom systems

Copperchase systems

ATC clocks

CCTVs

Computers and Monitors

Teleprinter

Fax

ATM

All metrological instruments

86
Q

What happens when HM customs detain and aircraft?

A

The controller will withhold the clearance from any aircraft on instructions from a verified HM Customs Officer. The ATCO receiving the instruction will record it in the ATC log and inform ATCUM

87
Q

In the scenario of an ATCO empowering a flight what as an ATCO do you do?

A

The correct RT phraseology is to be used (cap 413) and recorded in the Watch Log

88
Q

Who at TIA are empowered under the Air Navigation Order to prohibit flight?

A 
Managing director (David Grant) 
Airport manager (Shaun Woods)
89
Q

It is the DM is responsible for arranging all extensions and or early openings, what is the ATCO actions?

A

Details should be logged

And the ATCO i/c deals with the request

The TIA CTR/CTA exists only during the published hours detailed in the UK AIP so a NOTAM will need to be sent

90
Q

When should a NOTAM be filed ?

A

When requested by the aerodrome management containing informations which they need to disseminate via NOTAM

When the airfield is snow closed/ snow clearance taking place

When any part of the manoeuvring area is obstructed and is likely to remain so for at least one hour

When the following aids are unserviceable and likely to remain so for at least one hour :

ILS
PSR
UHF/VHF frequencies
NDB
DME
Battery standby radio

The following lights within two hours of official night or if the visibility and cloud base are red Unit assessord - Runway lights, PAPIs, Approach lights to runway in use

When the following aids are unserviceable and likely to remain so for at least two hours:

VDF
Lights as above likely to remain unserviceable for atleast two hours before official night or vis/ cloud base low
All other airfield lighting
Standby generator
RFFS downgrades during published hours or during an extension
When the requirement of the CTR/CTA is different from the UK AIP
When the ATCO i/c has any other information which they consider essential for the safety of flight

91
Q

When will RVR readings be taken ?

A

When the lowest reported met visibility is less than 1500m and will continue until the lowest reported met vis is 1500m or more than the RVR is greater than the maximum reportable value

92
Q

What method of RVR is at TIA?

A

Human observer method by fire section

93
Q

What happens in the event of a RVR reading not being available ?

A

The pilot should be given the lowest reported met visibility and advised that an RVR is not available

94
Q

Do ATC need to read back all RVR readings from RFFS at the ROPs? (Runway observation Point)

A

Yes

95
Q

When traffic is lights and routine observations are requested when should ATC organise a RVR reading ?

A

H + 5 and H + 35 ready for the met observations

96
Q

Can you place a weather standby when the fire vehicles are at the ROP points?

A

Yes they should be informed over the RT

97
Q

What range should the RVR vehicle get on aircraft on final approach?

A

3-4 mile final

98
Q

What is the maximum RVR value to be passed on R23 and R05 ?

A

Runway 23 - 1000m

Runway 05 - 1400m

99
Q

What are the requirements of LVP state 1 ?

A

Lowest reported met vis = less than 1500m

RVR = is greater than 800m

100
Q

What are the requirements of LVP state 2 ?

A

Lowest reported met visibility OR RVR is 80 or less and/or cloud ceiling is 200ft AGL or less

101
Q

How should aircraft be informed about ATIS?

A

All aircraft should be informed when LVPs are in force and out onto the ATIS making sure each aircraft has the updated ATIS letter

102
Q

When the lowest reported met visibility is less than 600m, how many aircraft are permitted to use the manoeuvring area?

A

One

103
Q

Are non radio equipped vehicles allowed onto the manoeuvring area in LVPs

A

Escorting will not be permitted during LVP state 2 except under strict procedures as laid down in the aerodrome manual

104
Q

What restrictions are in place for the IFTC operations during LVPs

A

Only gas burning fires will take place and they should be informed of when in LVPs

Fire school vehicles should only proceed in a convoy in LVPs

105
Q

What are the requirements of escorting fire serco vehicles in LVP state 2??

A

The serco convoy leader (serco control) states the number of vehicles in convoy will request permission to proceed to A1 via Gate 13. When wanting to cross the runway the serco control vehicle will remain on the runway until all convoy vehicles have crossed and then report all vehicles vacated link 1 to the burning ground.

No serco vehicles movements are permitted when aircraft are moving on the airfield or when the ADI controller has received a 10 mile check

106
Q

Is WIP allowed during LVPs?

A

No

WIP must be stopped once LVPs are in force unless subject to a NOTAMd closure of a taxiway. Any existing work must be marked and lit, this should be verified by the DM

When the vis or cloud base prevents the ADI controller seeing the WIP from the tower then it must be stopped

107
Q

Who do we inform when in LVP state 1?

A 
DM
APR
RFFS
ATE
CP1/Gate 7
IFTC
Cobham
108
Q

Describe LVP state 1?

A

Inform who is on checklist in VCR

If movements are expected within 30mins activate the LVP alert on lighting panel
And airport lighting is on correct setting

Ensure full service inspection is carried out

Ensure RFFS vehicles are sent out the the RVR ROPs

Suspend all airside WIP and correct markings and lighting

Suspend any south side activity

Ensure LVP boards are uncovered

109
Q

Who will confirm when required that an aircraft has left the apron during LVPs?

A

DM or the pilot

110
Q

What emergency phase does the ATCO put on when in LVPs?

A

Weather standby

111
Q

Describe LVP state 2

A

Implement exactly the same safeguards as stated in LVP state 1.

Radar ATCO should ensure spacing on final, so the previous aircraft can land and vacate in time.

Landing clearance must be issued no later than 5nm from touch down

In the event of runway guard lights or taxiway lights being unserviceable, no aircraft is to leave the apron unless it is being escorted by the Follow Me vehicle to the appropriate holding point

The UHF cross coupling at all times

No vehicle is to infringe the Obstacle Free Zones (OFZ) and ILS critical areas except in an emergency

A departing aircraft must have commenced its take off run before an arriving aircraft has reached 8nm from touch down

All taxing aircraft must be stopped and confirmed that they have stopped, if this has not been confirmed by an aircraft is at 5nm final then the aircraft must go around (the DM, pilot or designated authorised vehicle can say if a aircraft has fully stopped)

If any red stop bars are unserviceable, then procedures are in place to limit the number of aircraft on the manoeuvring area or on final approach within 5nm to one at any given time

The RFFS vehicle at the ROPs is to inform ATC once an aircraft has landed or at the holding points, lined up on runway or vacated

Log start and finish times in ATC Log

112
Q

Describe what happens if RVR is less than 600m

A

Only one aircraft is permitted to use the manoeuvring area at any one time

A follow me vehicle may be used to escort aircraft at any tome during LVPs if considered necessary

113
Q

What flight rules must cobham operate when in a formation?

A

VFR

VMC only

114
Q

If Cobham are overdue what phase would you initiate ?

A

Alert phase due to the nature of there tasks

115
Q

How long do Cobham hold on the runway for line up checks ?

A

20 seconds

But if you state can you accept an immediate take off then use this

116
Q

Describe the ways Cobham can recover?

A

VFR, Visual and Instrument

If they are VFR they may request a run and break, on a run and break they will expect to call at 2 minutes (roughly 10nm) and initials (30 seconds to the break or approx 2nm)

A downwind join is the same at the flying club aircraft but faster

The downwind level from a break will not be above 1500ft QNH or as directed by ATC

117
Q

What does a visual join mean regarding Cobham?

A

IFR initial radar positioning for an instrument approach until the pilot indicates that he/she wishes to continue for a visual approach

118
Q

What is the minimum break height for Cobham?

A

500ft and 300kts

119
Q

Describe the instrument recovery for Cobham?

A

An instrument recovery means radar positioning for an ILS, SRA or Radar to a straight in approach.

120
Q

When does a decision to approve a run and break need to be made at the latest?

A

2min/10nm call

121
Q

What information is passed on the 2min/10nm call from Cobham on a run and break?

A

Direction of the break
Level or climbing should be passed
Generic traffic information

And to request pilot to report initials 30seconds/ 2 miles

122
Q

On the initial call of a run and break what information is to be passed?

A

More specific traffic information and surface wind and any other information relevant

123
Q

When shall run and breaks not be approved?

A

If the procedure will delay other aircraft and aircraft should not break over the terminal

124
Q

What flight category is UKP28 ?

A

B unless adapted the callsign UKP28A

125
Q

Can UKP28 land OOH for re-fuel?

A

Yes OOH dispensation has been grated by the Airport Manager

126
Q

What flight category is HLE63A and HLE63?

A

A and E

127
Q

Where do most crew for HLE prefer to operate?

A

Alpha taxiway adjacent to stand 13

If not possible they will ground taxi to stand 13 for arrival and departure, as directed by ATC

128
Q

Crew training for HLE what flight category are they? And where do they tend to operate ?

A

Z and south side with short sorties to landing at hospitals

129
Q

What are the operating procedures for GNAA crew during VFR conditions only?

A

Standard departure - VFR not above 1500ft QNH and squawk 0020

Once HLE pass information on where they will be departing to and that they are starting, ATC will pass QNH (no other information)

Crew will then call ‘request lift and standard departure to the ……’ if the standard departure is acceptable ATC reply with ‘take off at your discretion, surface wind…..’

130
Q

What does article 108(5) in the ANO say that an ATCO license shall require what?

A

Submit themselves for such examinations, assessments and tests

Including medical examination

131
Q

How often does an ATCO need a medical ?

A

Up to the age of 39 years require a medical every 2 years.

ATCO over 40 years or over require a annual medical

132
Q

What does SRATCOH stand for?

A

Scheme for the regulation of Air Traffic Control officer hours

133
Q

What is the purpose of SRATCOH?

A

Is to ensure, so far as is reasonably possible, that controller fatigue does not endanger aircraft and thereby assist controllers to provide a safe and effective service

134
Q

What are the timings for breaks for ATCO for SRATCOH?

A

Less than 3 hours -30mins
After 3 hours -45 mins
After 4 hours -60 mins

135
Q

Regarding the TIA environmental policy, where will light aircraft below 5,700kg will be required to depart from which holding point?

A

A1

136
Q

Why can’t aircraft be given an early right turn over the village of Middleton St George ?

A

Noise restrictions.

But if you need to for safety, do so

137
Q

What level should older aircraft and military aircraft not turn below villages?

A

1,000ft

138
Q

After re opening from a managed closure when can you have movements from an aircraft on the airfield?

A

When runways and taxiways have been inspected

TIA MATS 2 (6 decks)

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