SECTION 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What Air Force forms are maintenance technicians required to fill out when ordering aircraft
parts from supply?

A

AF Form 2413 and AF Form 2005.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are supply points?

A

Storage locations where supplies are positioned when time or resources required to move items justifies the
need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What supply report is a monthly listing of items that are back-ordered?

A

Due-out validation list (M30).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the MSL primarily do?

A

Monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface, resolves supply support problems, and coordinates
supply-related training needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can you order a quantity greater than one of a DIFM item under one document number?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You are routing a part to be repaired through the base supply RCSS. To do the job properly,
RCSS needs which part of the AFTO Form 350?

A

The bottom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What’s the overall objective of RCSS?

A

To get DIFM parts turned around as fast as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does the repair cycle time begin?

A

When a DIFM item is removed from an aircraft, engine, or piece of equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the objective of the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program?

A

Reduce the total AF material costs by repairing items locally and increase base/wing self-sufficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who chairs the IREP meeting?

A

Wing, vice wing, or MXG commander.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is the repair cycle throughput measured?

A

The 12-month average versus the current month repair cycle time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary use of the LCOM simulation technique?

A

To determine peacetime and wartime aircraft maintenance manpower requirements for each of the AF’s
weapon systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the objective in manpower studies using LCOM?

A

To determine, for each AF specialty, the lowest manpower level possible to achieve the desired sortie rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the result of high manpower?

A

Could result in people being idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What function under the Maintenance Operations Flight is responsible to manage the
Maintenance Information System for the base?

A

Maintenance Data Systems Analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are AFMC people responsible for transforming air and space technology investments into?

A

Warfighting capabilities.

17
Q

For what does the Warner Robins ALC provide management support?

A

Provides management support for the low-altitude navigational targeting infrared for night system, the joint
tactical information distribution system, and the worldwide military command and control system.

18
Q

Which AFMC center operates the US Air Force Test Pilot School?

A

AF Flight Test Center.

19
Q

What computer product lists both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements?

A

Unit manpower document.

20
Q

How many fiscal quarters does the extended UMD provide complete manpower data?

A

22 fiscal quarters.

21
Q

What does the SEI indicate?

A

The special experience or qualification you must have on a particular weapon system to fill a particular
position.

22
Q

What is the UPMR?

A

A computer product listing of people assigned to the unit by section or functional account code.

23
Q

What is the purpose of the SCR?

A

A management tool that gives supervisors a clear and concise listing of the personnel who have been
appointed to perform, evaluate, verify, and inspect critical work or tasks.

24
Q

Who approves the addition of people to the SCR?

A

Operations Officer/Maintenance Supt.

25
Q

What alpha numeric identifier gives specific details on what a unit should deploy in terms of
people and equipment?

A

Unit type code.

26
Q

List three reference documents that are available to help prepare for deployments.

A

(1) IDP.
(2) BSP.
(3) Site surveys.

27
Q

List the three areas that determine the best line up for aircraft generation success.

A

(1) Mission capability status.
(2) Available hours/time to next scheduled phase/ISO inspection.
(3) Scheduled maintenance actions.

28
Q

What two products are utilized to determine go/no-go or mission limiting criteria based on
functionality and serviceability of aircraft systems by MDS?

A

(1) MESL.

(2) MEL.

29
Q

Which two forms exist in the CAF to help the maintenance manager in monitoring the progress of
the generation and avoid or minimize potential bottlenecks in the generation sequence?

A

(1) AF Form 2408.

(2) AF Form 2409.

30
Q

During fleet reconstitution, what areas require attention?

A

Fleet health, consumables and reparable stock levels, equipment, personnel, maintenance training, and
aircrew training.

31
Q

What is the key component to building an effective and expedient reconstitution for a combat
unit?

A

To build an effective plan ahead of time that lays out requirements and how they will be phased to manage
resource constraints.

32
Q

Define the combat spear.

A

The combat spear depicts a healthy relationship between operations and maintenance as integrated,
inextricable components of combat air-power: trained aircrews, safe and reliable aircraft, and trained
maintainers form the triangle-shaped head of the spear of an aviation unit’s combat capability.