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737 Limitations > Section 1 Limits > Flashcards

Section 1 Limits Flashcards

1
Q

What is the max G-Load with Flaps Up?

A

2.5 to -1.0

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2
Q

What is the max G-Load with flaps down?

A

2.0 to 0

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3
Q

*What’s the maximum altitude?

A

*41,000 feet

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4
Q

The max takeoff and landing pressure altitude

A

10,000 feet

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5
Q

Maximum runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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6
Q

Normal runway width

A

148 ft or greater

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7
Q

Minimum runway width

A

100 feet

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8
Q

Takeoff from narrow runways requirements (4 Van-X)

A
  1. V1 is greater than or equal to narrow runway calculated Vmcg (Supplementary Procedures > Misc > Narrow Runway
  2. All brakes operative
  3. NWS operative
  4. XW capability is diminished with thrust reverser or flight control deferrals.
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9
Q

Landing on Narrow Runway 2 considerations

A
  1. No auto land
  2. Consider divert if no NWS, no Reverser, or braking/flight control degrades
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10
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind is?

A

15 knots

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11
Q

Maximum gear retraction speed

A

235 knots

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12
Q

Maximum gear extension speed

A

270/0.82m

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13
Q

Maximum gear operating/extended speed

A

320/0.82m

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14
Q

*Maximum severe turbulence penetration speed in cruise

A

*TURB N1 setting on cruise page

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15
Q

* Maximum severe turbulence penetration speed (climb/descent/below 15,000)

A

*280/0.76
If severe turbulence encountered BELOW 15,000 ft AND the aircraft GW is less than Maximum landing weight: can slow to 250 if CLEAN

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16
Q

T/F QFE is prohibited

A

True

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17
Q

Minimum ground time after landing with steel brakes

A

67 minutes

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18
Q

Minimum ground time after landing with Carbon Brakes

A

48 minutes

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19
Q

* Maximum crosswind for TAKEOFF (6/Dry)

A

*33

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20
Q

* Maximum crosswind for TAKEOFF (5/Good)

A

*25

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21
Q
  • Maximum crosswind for LANDING (6/Dry)
A

*37

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22
Q

* Maximum crosswind for LANDING (5/Good)

A

*37

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23
Q

Takeoff crosswind limitations assume:

A

Engine failure RTO

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24
Q

Reduce landing crosswind guidelines by ____ knots on wet or contaminated runways whenever _____ _____ _____ is used.

A

5; asymmetric reverse thrust

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25
Q

Rolling takeoff is recommended when crosswind exceeds

A

20 knots

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26
Q

Zero crab landings with SCIMITAR wing are not recommended if crosswind exceeds

A

15 knots

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27
Q

Minimum number of cabin portable O2 bottles on board

A

1 per flight attendant

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28
Q

Minimum number of flight attendants

A

1 per 50 seats

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29
Q

Worst case scenario PSI for pilot oxygen hip pocket number

A

945psi (114 cu ft cylinder)

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30
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential

A

9.10 psi

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31
Q

Maximum pressure differential for takeoff and landing

A

.125psi

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32
Q

When one or both ENG BLEEDS are on, do not operate PACS in _____ for takeoff, approach, and landing.

A

High

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33
Q

(NG) T/F Do not operate more than one PACK from one engine.

A

T

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34
Q

(MAX) T/F ON THE GROUND, do not operate more than one PACK from one engine.

A

T

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35
Q

If bleeds are configured for flight and the duct pressure is approximately ___ psi or below, contact maintenance

A

18

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36
Q

A duct pressure difference of MORE than ____ psi may indicate a mechanical malfunction.

A

8

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37
Q

*Icing conditions exist on the ground and for takeoff when OAT is ___ deg C or below AND ___ OR ___

A

*10 or below
AND…
Visible moisture in ANY form (clouds, fog w/vis 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals)
OR…
On ramps, taxiways or runways where snow, standing water or slush may be ingested

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38
Q

*Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is ___ deg C

A

*10 or below
AND
Visible moisture in ANY form present (fog w/vis 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals)

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39
Q

Engine Anti-Ice must be on when (3)

A

1) Ground ops when icing conditions exist or are anticipated
2) All flight ops when icing conditions exist or anticipated EXCEPT during CLIMB + CRUISE w/SAT BELOW -40
3) Prior to descent in ALL icing conditions

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40
Q

(MAX) DO NOT operate Engine Anti-Ice IN FLIGHT when

A

NOT in ACTUAL or anticipated icing conditions

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41
Q

USE Wing Anti-Ice when

A

All ground ops (start to takeoff) when icing conditions exist or are anticipated UNLESS De-icing with Type II or IV

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42
Q

DO NOT USE Wing Anti-Ice when

A

On ground when OAT is ABOVE 10C/50F; do not use as a sub for ground anti/de-icing

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43
Q

Engine anti-ice is NOT needed if SAT is below

A

-40 deg C SAT

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44
Q

Window heat must be on ___ min before takeoff

A

10

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45
Q

Probe heat must be on ___

A

Prior to takeoff

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46
Q

Do not use Wing Anti-Ice during takeoff until

A

First thrust reduction

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47
Q

The autopilot minimum engagement height is

A

400 AGL

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48
Q

*Autoland max headwind/crosswind/tailwind

A

**25/15/10 (flaps 30/40)
*** Unless in -900 (401-412) AND flaps 30, field elevation (tailwind):
0-4000 ft: 10 kts
4001-6000: 5 kts
6001+: 0 kts

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49
Q

T/F Use of aileron trim with autopilot engaged is prohibited

A

True

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50
Q

DO NOT use autopilot below 100 RA if airport pressure altitude is above ____ ft

A

8400

51
Q

*Minimum altitude for autopilot on ILS/GLS approach (no autoland)

A

*50 feet AGL

52
Q

*Minimum altitude for autopilot on non-precision approaches

A

*50 ft below MDA/DA

53
Q

Minimum altitude for Autopilot on Autoland

A

Touchdown

54
Q

Autopilot must be disconnected before descending below ___ ft AGL without a publish MDA/DA

A

500 AGL

55
Q

Autothrottles must be disconnected by ___ ft AGL

A

50

56
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot on an autoland

A

Touchdown

57
Q

Autoland only at runways at or below ____

A

8400 pressure altitude

58
Q

Autoland with both engines operating and with flaps ___ or ___ and at airports at or below ___ ft

A

30/40

8400 ft

59
Q

Maximum glide path for autoland is ___ and minimum glide path is ___

A

3.25 degrees
2.5 degrees

60
Q

DO NOT Autoland when:

A

1) Overweight
2) Offset LOC (ORD)
3) Radio Altim Inop
3) FO flying

61
Q

Do not use LVL CHG on final below ___ AFE

A

*1000 ft AFE

62
Q

DO NOT use the KA GND TX ENABLE in OVERRIDE or the WiFi COMM ENABLE/BROADBAND SYSTEM during

A
  • De-icing or when maintenance near TV radome
  • MAX taxiing under skybridge
  • In a hangar
63
Q

Keep all wireless devices aft of ____ or securely mounted when engine operating for the purposes of flight

A

Throttle Quadrant

64
Q

Minimum battery voltage for APU start is

A

23 volts

65
Q

ENG IGNITION must be ON for

A

Takeoff, Landing, Eng Anti-ice, Heavy Rain

66
Q

Minimum oil pressure (700/800/900/9ER) / (MAX)

A

13psi / 17.4 psi

Must be in normal range for takeoff

67
Q

(MAX) Minimum starting oil temperature OAT

A

-40 deg C

68
Q

Minimum oil temperature for takeoff (MAX)

A

31 deg C

69
Q

Maximum oil temperature

A

155 deg C

70
Q

Maximum continuous oil temp

A

140 deg c

71
Q

Maximum allowable oil temperature and time limit? (NG/MAX)

A

155 deg C
45 min (700/800/900/9ER)
15 min (MAX)

72
Q

Engine limit displays max/min ___ arc, caution ___ arc, normal ___ arc

A

Red, Amber, White

73
Q

Maximum EGT (NG) on takeoff (up to 5 min)

A

950 deg C

74
Q

Max continuous EGT (NG)

A

925 deg C

75
Q

Max starting EGT (NG)

A

725 deg C

76
Q

Max EGT for takeoff (up to 10 minutes) (MAX)

A

1038 Deg C

77
Q

Max continuous EGT (MAX)

A

1013 deg C

78
Q

Max starting EGT (MAX)

A

753 deg C

79
Q

Max N1 (NG) / (MAX)

A

104.0% / 104.3%

80
Q

Max N2 (NG) / (MAX)

A

105.0% / 117.5%

81
Q

Reduced takeoff prohibited when

A

Anti-skid inop, standing water, ice, slush, snow, EEC in ALTN

82
Q

For takeoff, EECs must be in ___ or ___

A

ON or ALTN

83
Q

Max APU altitude for start

A

41,000 feet

84
Q

Max APU altitude for bleed and electrical operation

A

10,000 feet

85
Q

Max APU altitude for bleed operation only

A

17,000 feet

86
Q

Minimum engine oil quantity before start

A

70%

87
Q

DO NOT engage starter above ___% N2

A

20% N2

88
Q

APU starter duty cycle on ground or in flight is ___ min cooling after ___ attempt

A

15 min / 3rd attempt

89
Q

Wait ___ min (NG) and ___ min (MAX) before using bleed air after APU start

A

1 min / 2 min

90
Q

Wait ___ seconds (NG) and ___ or preferably ___ min (MAX) after APU shutdown before turning the BATTERY off

A

120 seconds; 3min or 5min

91
Q

Idle engine for ___ min for starts with temperature below -35C

A

2 min

92
Q

Fire extinguishing bottle pressure should be ___psi at ___ deg F

A

800 psi / 70 deg F

93
Q

*Maximum flap extension altitude is ____ ft

A

*20,000 feet

94
Q

HOLDING in icing conditions with Flaps Extended is

A

Prohibited

95
Q

DO NOT extend the Speed Brakes in flight

A

1) Beyond the FLT DETENT
2) Beyond ARMED with Flaps 40
3) RA less than 1000 ft

96
Q

Maximum speed for flap extension with ALTERNATE system

A

230 knots

97
Q

Maximum speed with MACH TRIM FAIL (BOTH channels)

A

280/0.82m

98
Q

When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch allow ___ seconds after releasing the switch before moving the switch to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch

A

15 seconds

99
Q

After a complete electrical extend/retract cycle (0-15-0) allow ___ min cooling before attempting another extension

A

5 min

100
Q

Maximum allowable in flight difference between Capt/FO altimeters FOR RVSM

A

200 feet

101
Q

T/F Standby Altimeters do not meet that accuracy requirements to fly RVSM

A

T

102
Q

Max allowable display differences ON GROUND between altimeters for RVSM is

A

SL-5000 ft: 50 ft (Capt/FO), 75 ft (Capt or FO to Field elevation)
5000-10,000 ft: 60 (Capt/FO), 75 (Capt or FO to Field elevation)

103
Q

DO NOT operate WX RDR when

A

Refueling, within 50 ft of fuel spill, within 15 feet of people (except in TEST)

104
Q

RNAV minimum RNP with LNAV/VNAV, 10 mile scale, FD On, Autopilot On

A

0.10 RNP with FMS updated or not updated by GPS

105
Q

RNAV minimum RNP with LNAV/VNAV, 10 mile scale, FD On

A

0.10 with FMS updated by GPS / 0.20 FMS NOT updated by GPS

106
Q

RNAV minimum RNP with LNAV/VNAV, 10 nm scale

A

0.64 RNP with FMS updated by GPS / 0.72 FMS NOT updated by GPS

0. 72 with FMS NOT updated by GPS

107
Q

Advanced RNP (A-RNP) is authorized when (4 things RRUL):

A
  1. RNP on LEGS page matches RNP on chart
  2. RAIM IAW FOM
  3. Cannot have “UNABLE REQD NAV PERF”
  4. Line selectable from FMC database
108
Q

T/F Do NOT reset a tripped fuel pump or fuel pump control circuit breaker

A

True

109
Q

Wing fuel tanks must be FULL if Center fuel tank exceeds ___ lbs

A

1000 lbs

110
Q

Fuel must be within ___lbs to be balanced

A

1000 lbs

111
Q

T/F LOC BC is not authorized

A

True

112
Q

T/F Do not copy RTE to RTE 2

A

True

113
Q

T/F Open the Crossfeed valve for min fuel operations

A

True

114
Q

Minimum HYD qty for dispatch

A

Above RF

115
Q

Max tire groundspeed

A

195 kts (NG)
204 kts (MAX)

116
Q

Min fuel for stationary ground ops of electric HYD pumps

A

1675 lbs

117
Q

Maximum HYD quantity

A

105%

118
Q

With the Parking Brake SET, the drop in accumulator pressure should be less than ____ in the first ____ min

A

800 psi / 30 min

119
Q

Use of look-ahead terrain display functions are prohibited within ___ NM of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS database

A

15nm

120
Q

Use of Terrain Awareness (GPWS) are prohibited when (2)

A

1) FMC is in IRS ONLY
2) On Takeoff, prohibited until position verification has been accomplished

121
Q

(RAAS - MAX) Do not use RAAS for real time runway suitability for _____ ______

A

airplane performance (RAAS runway length alerting is set by airline policy and DOES NOT consider real time factors such as weather, runway conditions or NOTAMS

122
Q

(ORW - MAX) Do not use Overrun Warning System (544+) for ___

A

Landing performance planning or landing distance assessment

123
Q

(ORW - MAX) If “OVERRRUN GO AROUND” occurs

A

Go Around

124
Q

Inhibit ORW when [-40 50 10k GW+]

A

1) Landing at airport grater than 10,000 ft PA
2) Landing OAT on the ground is below -40C or greater than +50C
3) GW is greater than MLW

737 Limitations (6 decks)

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