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ITC EXAM 2019 > SECNAV M-5510.36, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM > Flashcards

SECNAV M-5510.36, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM Flashcards

1
Q

What is used as a generic term for any organizational entity and may include a base, station, unit, laboratory, installation, facility, center, activity, detachment, squadron, ship, etc.?

A

Command

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2
Q

Who is responsible for the effective management of the ISP within the command?

A

Commanding Officer

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3
Q

Who is responsible for implementing the ISP and shall have direct access to the commanding officer?

A

Security manager

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4
Q

The Security Manager will coordinate after-incident responses involving classified information processed on IT systems with the command what?

A

Information Assurance Manager (IAM)

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5
Q

The command security manager will ensure that access to classified information is limited to appropriately cleared personnel with a need-to-know per what reference?

A

SECNAVINST 5510.30

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6
Q

The command security manager may be assigned full-time, part-time, or as a collateral duty and must be an officer or a civilian employee, what grade or above, with sufficient authority and staff to manage the program for the command?

A

GS-11

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7
Q

The security manager must be a U.S. citizen and have been the subject of a favorably adjudicated Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) completed within how many years prior to assignment?

A

Five

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8
Q

The commanding officer shall designate, in writing, a command what for commands handling Top Secret information?

A

TSCO

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9
Q

The Top Secret Control Officer will ensure that inventories of Top Secret information are conducted at least once how often, or more frequently when circumstances warrant?

A

Annually

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10
Q

The TSCO must be an officer, senior non-commissioned officer what rank or above, or a civilian employee, GS-7 or above?

A

E-7

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11
Q

Persons designated as assistant security managers must be U.S. citizens, and either officers, enlisted persons what rank or above, or civilians GS-6 or above?

A

E-6

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12
Q

Who is the principal advisor to the commanding officer in all matters regarding the Communication Material System (CMS)?

A

EKMS manager

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13
Q

What reference requires the commanding officer to designate, in writing, a NWP custodian?

A

NTTP 1-01

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14
Q

What reference establishes procedures and minimum security standards for the handling and protection of NATO classified information?

A

USSAN 1-69

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15
Q

What is the main receiving and dispatching element for NATO information in the U.S. Government?

A

Central United States Registry (CUSR)

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16
Q

Per what reference, the commanding officer shall designate, in writing, an IAM and Information Assurance Officer(s)(IAO), as appropriate?

A

OPNAVINST 5239.1B

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17
Q

Who serves as the point of contact for all command information assurance (IA) matters and implements the command’s IA program?

A

IAM

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18
Q

Who is designated for each information system and network in the command, and are responsible for implementing and maintaining the command’s information technology systems and network security requirements?

A

IAO

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19
Q

Per what reference, the commanding officer shall designate, in writing, a command SSO and Subordinate Special Security Officer (SSSO), as needed, for any command that is accredited for and authorized to receive, store, and process SCI?

A

DoD 5105-21-M-1

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20
Q

Who is responsible for the operation (e.g., security, control, use, etc.) of all command Sensitive Compartmented Information Facilities (SCIFs)?

A

SSO

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21
Q

The SSO and the SSSO shall be appointed in writing and each must be a U.S. citizen and either a commissioned officer or a civilian employee GS-9 or above, and must meet the standards of what reference?

A

DCID 6/4

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22
Q

Per what reference, the Commanding Officer shall designate, in writing, a command security officer?

A

OPNAVINST 5530.14C

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23
Q

Specified security functions may be performed for other commands via what, or Memoranda of Understanding (MOU) or Memoranda of Agreement (MOA)?

A

SSAs

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24
Q

What include those markings that identify the source of classification (or for original decisions, the authority and reason for classification)?

A

Associated markings

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25
Q

What include any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the automatic acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information?

A

IT systems

26
Q

What includes Universal Serial Bus drives, flash drives, pen drives, compact disks, scanners, video tapes, floppy disks, recordings, etc.?

A

Electronic media

27
Q

Documents containing RD (including CNWDI) or FRD, shall not be marked with any downgrading or declassification instructions, other than those approved by the what?

A

DOE

28
Q

Mark (stamp, print, or permanently affix with a sticker or tape) the face and back cover, and what else, of all classified documents to show the highest overall classification level of the information they contain?

A

Top and bottom center

29
Q

What abbreviation shall be used to designate unclassified portions containing information exempt from mandatory release to the public?

A

FOUO

30
Q

What letter shall be used for the identification of NATO RESTRICTED or Foreign Government RESTRICTED information?

A

R

31
Q

The authority to grant waivers of the portion marking requirement rests with the what?

A

Director, ISOO

32
Q

Associated markings shall not be placed on the what of any classified document?

A

Back cover

33
Q

The “Classified by” and “Reason” lines are rarely used because what estimated percent of all DON documents are derivate classified?

A

99%

34
Q

Declassification instructions and other downgrading instructions do not apply to documents containing Restricted Data (RD) or what else?

A

Formerly Restricted Data (FRD)

35
Q

Only what designated declassifier can declassify an RD document?

A

Department of Energy (DOE)

36
Q

What advise document holders that additional protective measures such as restrictions on reproduction, dissemination or extraction are necessary?

A

Warning notices

37
Q

Per Title 42, U.S.C., Sections 2011-2284 and what else, mark classified documents containing RD and/or FRD on the face of the document, in the lower left corner, with the applicable warning notice?

A

DoD Directive 5210.2

38
Q

What which is a subset of RD is subject to special dissemination controls and marking requirements?

A

CNWDI

39
Q

The marking policies and dissemination procedures for CNWDI are contained in what reference?

A

DoD Directive 5210.2

40
Q

Per what reference, there is national policy prohibiting foreign disclosure of NNPI?

A

NAVSEAINST 5511.32C

41
Q

Classified NNPI not containing RD or FRD information shall include the associated markings set forth in what reference?

A

NAVSEAINST 5511.32C

42
Q

Per what reference, SIOP documents shall be marked in the same manner as any other classified document?

A

OPNAVINST S5511.35K

43
Q

Per EKMS-1, what designator identifies all COMSEC documents and keying material which are used to protect or authenticate classified or controlled unclassified government or government-derived information?

A

CRYPTO

44
Q

Per what reference, mark documents containing FOUO Law Enforcement Sensitive (FOUOLES) in the same manner as documents containing FOUO?

A

DoD 5200.1-R

45
Q

Per what reference, mark the bottom face and the back cover of unclassified documents containing DoD UCNI with “DoD unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information”?

A

OPNAVINST 5570.2

46
Q

The DOS does not require that what information be specifically marked, but does require that holders be made aware of the need for controls?

A

SBU

47
Q

Mark information or material designed as LIMITED DISTRIBUTION, or derived from such information or material per what reference?

A

DoD Directive 5030.59

48
Q

The policy for marking intelligence information is contained in what reference?

A

DCID 6/6

49
Q

What marking is the most restrictive intelligence control marking and shall only be used on classified intelligence that clearly identifies or would reasonably permit ready identification of intelligence sources or methods that are particularly susceptible to countermeasures that would nullify or measurably reduce their effectiveness?

A

ORCON/OC

50
Q

Use what marking with, or without, a security classification level marking, to identify information provided by a commercial firm or private source under an expressed or implied understanding that the information shall be protected as a trade secret or proprietary data believed to have actual or potential intelligence value?

A

PROPIN/PR

51
Q

Within the DON, only the Director of Naval Intelligence and the Director of Intelligence, United States Marine Corps, may determine what information warrants initial application of what caveat?

A

NOFORN

52
Q

The “NOFORN” caveat shall not be applied to non-intelligence information except for what?

A

NNPI

53
Q

What control making was previously only for use on intelligence information, but is now authorized for use on all classified defense information deemed releasable through appropriate foreign disclosure channels?

A

REL TO

54
Q

The product of what shall not be classified unless it incorporates classified information to which the developer was given prior access?

A

IR&D

55
Q

What reference governs the assignment, control, and use of nicknames, exercise terms and code words?

A

OPNAVINST 5511.37C

56
Q

What are a combination of two unclassified words with an unclassified meaning?

A

Nicknames

57
Q

What term is a combination of two non-code words that may or may not be classified and may or may not have a classified meaning?

A

Exercise

58
Q

What is a single classified word with a classified meaning?

A

Code word

59
Q

Classification by what is rare, and in order to qualify for classification, something not already identified in the individual parts must be revealed?

A

Compilation

60
Q

What with jurisdiction over the classified information may change the level of classification?

A

OCA

61
Q

What determines the duration of classification?

A

Date of Source

62
Q

When using source documents that have old declassification instructions, all declassification actions are effective on what date of the year in which declassification is to take place?

A

31 December

ITC EXAM 2019 (18 decks)

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