SE4455 Final (Unit 5-8) Flashcards

1
Q

Name 4 cloud management mechanisms

A

remote admin system
resource management system
SLA management system
Billing management system

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2
Q

How does the remote admin system interface with underlying management systems?

A

Via APIs

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3
Q

What are the two types of remote admin system portals?

A

usage & administration

self-service

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4
Q

What does the usage & administration portal do?

A

centralized management controls of different cloud resources

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5
Q

Which remote admin portal provides IT resource usage reports?

A

Usage and admin portal

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6
Q

What does the self-service portal do?

A

shopping portal: allows consumers to search list of cloud services & resources

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7
Q

Why do remote admin systems use standard APIs?

A
  • consumer can create own administration console and reuse it with multiple cloud providers
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8
Q

What does VIM stand for

A

Virtual Infrastructure manager

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9
Q

What does the VIM do?

A

manages multiple virtual resources and hypervisors across multiple physical servers

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10
Q

What is the name of the repository in a resource management system?

A

VM image repository

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11
Q

What does the VM image repository store?

A

Virtual resource templates to create pre-built instances (virtual server images)

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12
Q

Replication, load balancing, and failover systems are tasks performed by which cloud management system?

A

resource management system

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13
Q

What are the 2 forms of access for resource management system

A
  1. externally through a usage and administration portal

2. internally through the native user interface provided by VIM

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14
Q

What are the 2 components of the SLA management system?

A

SLA manager

quality-of-service measurements repository

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15
Q

What mechanisms are used to collect SLA data?

A

SLA monitors

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16
Q

SLA monitor agents intercept messages between who?

A

cloud consumer

cloud service

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17
Q

What are the 2 components of a billing management system?

A

pricing & contract manager

pay-per-use measurement repository

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18
Q

What does encryption help counter?

A

eavesdropping
malicious intermediary
insufficient authorization
overlapping trust boundaries

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19
Q

Symmetric key encryption is also known as ___

A

private/secret key encryption

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20
Q

Asymmetric key encryption is also known as ___

A

public key encryption

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21
Q

Which method of encryption is faster?

A

symmetric

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22
Q

What security does private key encryption offer?

A

integrity and non-repudiation (not confidentiality)

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23
Q

What security does public key encryption offer?

A

confidentiality only

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24
Q

What is the underlying encryption protocol for HTTP?

A

SSL and TLS

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25
Q

Does TLS use asymmetric or symmetric encryption?

A

Both

asymmetric for key exchange, then symmetric

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26
Q

T/F: RSA is a symmetric encyption cipher

A

False: asymmetric

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27
Q

T/F: AES is a symmetric encryption cipher?

A

True

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28
Q

T/F: hashing is non-reversible

A

True

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29
Q

What threats does hashing mitigate?

A

malicious intermediary

insufficient authorization

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30
Q

What security does digital signature provide?

A

authentication
integrity
non-repudiation

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31
Q

Digital signatures require ___ and ___ to be created

A

hashing

asymmetrical encryption

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32
Q

What does PKI stand for?

A

Public key infrastructure

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33
Q

What does PKI associate?

A

public keys with corresponding key owners

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34
Q

PKI relies on the use of ____

A

digital certificates

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35
Q

Who usually signs a digital certificate?

A

3rd party certificate authority

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36
Q

What does IAM stand for?

A

Identity and access management

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37
Q

What does IAM counter?

A

insufficient auth
DoS
overlapping trust boundaries

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38
Q

What are the four components of IAM?

A

authentication
authorization
user management
credential management

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39
Q

What does the authentication component of IAM include?

A
username  + passwords
digital signatures and certificates
biometrics
voice/face recognition
IP addresses
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40
Q

What does the authorization component of IAM include?

A

defines granularity for access controls

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41
Q

What does the user management component of IAM include?

A
admin capabilities
(create access groups, reset passwords, manage privileges)
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42
Q

What does the credential management component of IAM include?

A

establishes identities and access control rules for user accounts

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43
Q

What does SSO stand for?

A

Single sign-on

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44
Q

In SSO, who authenticates the consumer?

A

security broker

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45
Q

What security threat does SSO directly counter?

A

none!

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46
Q

What is the purpose of SSO?

A

enhance usability of distributed resources

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47
Q

When a security broker authenticates a consumer, what is established?

A

A security context (authentication token), which is persistent while the consumer accesses other cloud services

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48
Q

How are cloud-based security groups segmented?

A

According to security policies

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49
Q

T/F: cloud-based resources can be assigned to more than one logical cloud-based security group

A

true (assigned to at least one)

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50
Q

What does cloud-based security groups help counter?

A

DoS
insufficient auth
overlapping trust boundaries

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51
Q

What is hardening?

A

process of stripping unneccessary software to limit vulnerabilities

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52
Q

What are some examples of hardening?

A

remove redundant programs
close server ports
disable services
internal root account, guest access

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53
Q

What is a hardened virtual server image?

A

a template for a virtual server instance that has been hardened

54
Q

What does hardened virtual server images counter?

A

DoS
insufficient auth
overlapping trust boundaries

55
Q

Does workload distribution architecture reduce over or under-utilization?

A

both!

56
Q

Workload distribution architecture supports distributed ____ (3 types)

A

virtual servers
cloud storage devices
cloud services

57
Q

Name the workload distribution architecture mechanisms

A
load balancer
virtual server mechanisms
cloud storage device mechanism
audit monitor
cloud usage monitor
hypervisors
logical network perimeter
resource cluster
resource replication
58
Q

What are the different resource pool types?

A
physical server
virtual server
storage
network 
CPU
memory
59
Q

What type of server can CPU pools be allocated to?

A

Both physical and virtual servers

60
Q

What are sibling pools?

A

Sub pools comprised of subset of resources of parent pool (different resources and quantity)

61
Q

What are nested pools?

A

sub pools comprised of same resources as parent but in fewer quantities

62
Q

What are the resource pooling architecture mechanisms?

A
audit monitor
cloud usage monitor
hypervisor
logical network parameter
pay-per-use monitor
remote admin system
resource management system
resource replication
63
Q

What is the role of the hypervisor in a resource pooling architecture?

A

provide virtual servers with access to resource pools

64
Q

How does dynamic scalability architecture work?

A

predefined scaling conditions trigger dynamic allocation of resources from resource pools

65
Q

What are the different types of dynamic scaling?

A

dynamic horizontal scaling
dynamic vertical scaling
dynamic relocation

66
Q

What mechanism is used by dynamic horizontal scaling?

A

resource replication

67
Q

What is dynamic relocation?

A

When an IT resource is relocated to a host with more capacity

68
Q

What mechanisms are used in dynamic scalability architecture?

A
automated scaling listener
resource replication
cloud usage monitor
hypervisor
pay-per-use monitor
69
Q

What type of IT resource does elastic resource capacity architecture use to handle fluctuating processing requirements?

A

CPUs and RAM

70
Q

What is an intelligent automation engine?

A

Signaled by the scaling listener to execute workflow logic scripts

71
Q

What does a workflow logic script do?

A

signals hypervisor to allocate more resources from resource pools

72
Q

What are the mechanisms used by elastic resource capacity architecture?

A

cloud usage monitor
pay-per-use monitor
resource replication

73
Q

Service load balancing architecture is a variation of what other architecture?

A

workload distribution architecture

74
Q

Service load balancing architecture is geared specifically for scaling ____

A

cloud service implementations

75
Q

In service load balancing architecture, the load balancer is positioned in either __ or ___

A

external

built-in (in the host server)

76
Q

What does cloud bursting architecture mean?

A

on-premise IT resources “burst out” into cloud when capacity reached

77
Q

T/F: In cloud bursting architecture, the cloud resources are deployed only when capacity of on-premise resources is reached

A

F: they are redundantly pre-deployed

78
Q

What type of resource is replicated in cloud bursting architecture?

A

on premise

79
Q

Cloud bursting architecture implements the dynamic scaling by adding and
releasing ___

A

cloud resources to on-premise environment

80
Q

How is a cloud consumer charged in non elastic dick provisioning?

A

charged by disk capacity, not actual storage consumption

81
Q

What technology does elastic disk provisioning architecture use for dynamic allocation?

A

think disk technology

82
Q

How does elastic disk provisioning architecture use resource replication?

A

convert dynamic thin-disk storage into static thick-disk storage

83
Q

What is a storage service gateway?

A

External interface to cloud storage devices, redirects consumer requests when location of requested data has changed

84
Q

In redundant storage architecture, how is availability increased?

A

primary cloud storage device is replicated to secondary cloud storage device

85
Q

T/F: storage replication can be used to replicate both partial and entire LUNs

A

T

86
Q

Here is a fun list of the 10 specialized cloud mechanisms:

A
  1. Automated Scaling Listener
  2. Load Balancer
  3. SLA Monitor
  4. Pay-Per-Use Monitor
  5. Audit Monitor
  6. Failover System
  7. Hypervisor
  8. Resource Cluster
  9. Multi-Device Broker
  10. State Management Database
87
Q

Here is a fun list of why adam is a loser:

A
  1. he watches the national in the morning ALONE
  2. he still plays captin crunch video games
  3. he didn’t have sheets for the first 20 years of his life
  4. he probably wont have sheets after university
  5. he is (ga)me craz(y)
88
Q

What is an automated scaling listener?

A

Tracks communications for dynamic scaling purposes

89
Q

T/F: VIM generally runs the automated scaling listener

A

F: The Hypervisor generally runs the automated scaling listener, then the hypervisor commands VIM to scale based on needs

90
Q

T/F: When scaling-up using the automated scaling listener, the virtual server might have to migrate

A

True

91
Q

T/F: When scaling-down using the automated scaling listener, the virtual server might have to migrate

A

False

92
Q

What are the objectives of a load balancer?

A
  • Optimize IT resource usage
  • Avoid overloading
  • Maximize throughput (the goal remember!?)

Overall: Increases performance

93
Q

What does a load balancer do?

A

Balance workloads across the could’s IT resources

94
Q

What are the 3 types of Workload Distribution Functions?

A
  1. Asymmetric Distribution
  2. Workload Prioritization
  3. Content-Aware Distribution
95
Q

What is an Asymmetric Distribution?

A

Larger workloads issued higher processing capacity

96
Q

What is a Workload Prioritization?

A

Workload distributed based on priority, and are scheduled, queued, then discarded

97
Q

What is a Content-Aware Distribution

A

Requests distributed to IT resources based on the content of the request

98
Q

Four ways a load balancer can exist:

A
  1. Multi-layer network switch
  2. Dedicated hardware appliance
  3. Dedicated software system (server OS)
  4. Service agent (cloud management software)
99
Q

What is an SLA Monitor?

A
  • Monitors runtime performance of cloud services

- Ensures fulfillment of contractual QoS requirements published in SLA

100
Q

What are the two types of SLA Monitors?

A
  1. SLA Monitor Polling Agent

2. SLA Monitoring Agent

101
Q

T/F: SLA monitor polling agent responds to physical and virtual failures

A

True

102
Q

T/F: SLA monitoring agent only responds to physical failures

A

True

103
Q

When does an SLA monitor polling agent log a PS_Timeout?

A

Physical server polling timed out

104
Q

When does an SLA monitor polling agent log a PS_Unreachable?

A

Physical server polling timed out 3 times in a row

105
Q

When does an SLA monitor polling agent log a PS_Reachable?

A

unavailable server responds to polling again

106
Q

When does an SLA monitoring agent log a VM_unreachable?

A

VIM cannot reach VM

107
Q

When does an SLA monitoring agent log a VM_Failure?

A

VM failed and is unavailable

108
Q

When does an SLA monitoring agent log a VM_Reachable?

A

VM is reachable

109
Q

Define a Pay-Per-Us Monitor

A
  • Measures cloud IT resource usage with pre-defined pricing parameters
  • Generates usage logs stored in a DB
110
Q

Which of these is not a TYPICAL way to calculate billing fees:

a) request / response message quantity
b) Data volumes
c) Upgrade logs
d) Usage period

A

c) Upgrade logs is not a typical way…

the others are typical, and the one I removed was “ Bandwidth consumption” is the other typical way

111
Q

Define an Audit Monitor

A
  • Keeps track of all login requests and location based access
  • collects “audit tracking data” for networks, regulation, and contract obligation purposes
112
Q

T/F: Audit Monitors are implemented as monitoring agents?

A

True

113
Q

T/F: Audit monitor only stores failed login attempts?

A

False, Audit monitor stores both failed and successful login attempts along with security credentials

114
Q

Define a Failover System

A

A resource replication mechanism using clustering technology to provide redundant implementation

115
Q

What does a failover system accomplish?

A

Increased the reliability and availability of IT resources

116
Q

What are the 2 circumstances failover systems are used in?

A
  1. Mission critical programs

2. Reusable services that introduce single point of failure

117
Q

What are the two basic configurations of failover systems?

A
  1. Active-Active

2. Active-Passive

118
Q

T/F: An active-active failover system needs a router?

A

False, and active-active failover system needs a load balancer

119
Q

T/F: An active-passive failover system needs a router?

A

True

120
Q

Define a hypervisor in a specialized cloud mechanism context

A

Hypervisor is a mechanism administered by a VIM used to generate the virtual instance of a physical server

121
Q

How many hypervisors can you have for every physical server?

A

1:1, you can only have 1 hypervisor for every physical server

122
Q

How many virtual servers can you have for every hypervisor?

A

1:*, you can have many virtual servers under the same hypervisor

123
Q

What is a resource cluster?

A

-Groups multiple IT resource instances to operate as a single IT resource

124
Q

Geographically diverse resources can improve:

A
  1. allocation and usage

2. increased computing capacity, load balancing and resource availability

125
Q

T/F: High speed dedicated networks or cluster nodes are necessary for communication?

A

True

126
Q

What are the 3 types of resources clusters (BASED ON RESOURCE TYPE)?

A
  1. Server cluster
  2. Database cluster
  3. Large Dataset Cluster
127
Q

T/F: cluster management programs run as operating systems

A

False: Cluster management programs run as distributed middleware

128
Q

What are the two types of resource clusters (BASED ON CLUSTER MECHANISM)?

A
  1. Load Balanced Cluster (active-active failover)

2. High Availability (HA) Cluster (active-passive failover)

129
Q

What is a multi-device broker?

A

Used to overcome incompatibilities between cloud services and consumers (e.g. mobile –> cloud communication)

130
Q

What are the transformation levels related to multi-device broker?

A
  1. transport protocol layer
  2. messaging protocol layer
  3. storage protocol layer
  4. Data schema / data model protocols layer
131
Q

What is a state management database?

A

A storage device used to temporarily persist state data, acting as an alternative to caching data

132
Q

What is the benefit of a state management database?

A
  • Programs off-load state data to database to reduce runtime memory consumption
  • creates more scalable software