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Software Douchebags > 3351 Final > Flashcards

3351 Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 Project Implementation tactics?

A

Direct Cut-over (Plunge)
Parallel
Phased

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2
Q

What is the best implementation tactic to use when an old system needs to be completely replaced very quickly and it is not mission critical

A

Direct Cut-over

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3
Q

What implementation tactic provides a safety net?

A

Parallel

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4
Q

Which implementation approach is usually the most expensive

and least risky?

A

Parallel In slides

I would argue they are all subjectively expensive, especially phased - Austin

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5
Q

What tactic can be used to increase confidence in a new system?

A

Parallel

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6
Q

What implementation tactic requires a modular organization structure?

A

Phased

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7
Q

a ____ is very unique, special and not ongoing

A

Project

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8
Q

What are the four definition areas of a project?

A

Temporary
Defined Purpose
Start and end dates
Human and other resources

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9
Q

What is true when a project closes normally?

A

Completed as plan within cost, quality and schedule objectives. Likely some variation and modification along the way

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10
Q

Define Premature Project Closure

A

Adam in bed
-Kelsey

A project pushed to finish early, may not include all the required features or functionality

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11
Q

A runaway never ending project is?

A

A perpetual project

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12
Q

What is the difference between a failed project and a changed priority project?

A

A failed project is one where costs outweigh benefit of continuing.
A changed priority project occurs due to resource constraints, misjudged value or starvation

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13
Q

What is the most important part of closure of a project under normal circumstances?

A

Getting the project sponsors acceptance

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14
Q

How do you improve the likelihood of project acceptance?

A

Clearly define the acceptance criteria early in the project

Completion of all project deliverables and milestones thoroughly documented

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15
Q

What is in a final project report?

A

Summary
Comparison of planned vs actual scope, schedule & budget
Outstanding issues
Documentation

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16
Q

What documentation are you to provide?

A

System Documentation
User Manuals
Training Materials
Maintenance Documents

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17
Q

When does the formal signoff happen?

A

At the final meeting and presentation

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18
Q

What steps remain after the signoff for an admin to do?

A

Verify all deliverables and open items are complete
Organize and archive deliverables and documentation
Plan for the release of all resources
Plan evaluations
Close all project accounts
PARTY

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19
Q

How do you party?

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rblt2EtFfC4

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20
Q

What are 5 key (fake news) points to consider with individual performance reviews?

A

Begin with letting the person tell you about their own performance
Don’t compare them to others
Focus on behavior not the individual
Be consistent and fair
Reviews should provide consensus on improving performance

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21
Q

Who is a postmortem review done with?

A

the PM and Project team

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22
Q

What is reviewed in a Postmortem?

A 
Initial MOV
Scope, schedule, budget and quality objectives
the deliverables
The project plans and PMBOK areas
Team Performance
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23
Q

Who does a project audit?

A 
Someone outside the project
impartial
willing to listen
have a broad base of project or industry experience
no conflicts of interests
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24
Q

What is the main way to evaluate project success?

A

The MOV

making sponsor/customer satisfied

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25
Q

Discussing team members’ next assignment is generally part of?

A

Individual performance review

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26
Q

Fitness for use, and conformance to requirements are defined as?

A

Quality

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27
Q

Meeting customer needs is?

A

Fitness for use

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28
Q

Meeting some predefined set of standards is?

A

Conformance to requirements

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29
Q

What dictates quality?

A

the needs or expectations of the customer

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30
Q

PMBOK Definition of quality is?

A

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements

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31
Q

PQM is?

A

Project Quality Management

The processes required to ensure that a project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken

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32
Q

What does PQM focus on

A

Quality Planning - Determining which quality standards are important and how they will be met
Quality Assurance - Evaluating overall project performance to ensure quality
Quality Control - Monitoring the activities and results of the project to endure that the project complies with the quality standards

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33
Q

Does PQM focus on the product or the process of the project?

A

BOTH

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34
Q

What is a quality control chart?

A

Recall Operations class, number of defects as compared to a standard with control limits

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35
Q

20% of the problems are responsible for 80% of the total cost of the project problems is?

A

Pareto’s Rule, expressed by a Pareto diagram

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36
Q

What does a cause and effect (fishbone) diagram help identify?

A

The root problem not the symptoms

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37
Q

How do you identify interrelationships between stat sets?

A

Using a scatter diagram with some regression

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38
Q

What are the 6 components to an IT Project Quality Plan (IT PQP)?

A 
Quality Philosophies & Principles
Quality Standards and Metrics
Validation and Verification
Configuration management 
Monitor and control
Learn, improve and mature
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39
Q

What are some

quality Philosophies and Principles?

A
  • Customer satisfaction
  • prevention not inspection
  • improve process to improve product
  • quality is everyones responsibility
  • fact-based management
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40
Q

What is the total cost of quality?

A

Prevention + Inspection + Internal Failure + External failure

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41
Q

What is the least expensive cost of quality?

A

Prevention

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42
Q

what do Process Metrics do?

A

Control the defects introduced by the process that are required to create project deliverables;

eg)

Defect Arrival Rate - The number of defects found over a specific period
of time.

Defects by Phase - The number of defects found during each phase of
the project.

Defect Backlog - The number of defects waiting to be fixed.
Fix Response Time The average time it takes to fix a defect.

Defective Fixes - The number of fixes that created new defects

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43
Q

What do product metrics focus on?

A

The quality of the deliverable as judged by the customer client or sponsor;

eg)

Mean Time to Failure -Average time elapsed until a product fails.

Defect Density - The number of defects per lines of code (LOC) or function
points.

Customer Found Defects - The number of defects found by the customer.

Customer Satisfaction - An index to measure customer satisfaction, e.g., scale from
1 (very unsatisfied) to 5 (very satisfied)

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44
Q

Project Metrics focus on

A

The project management process to ensure that the project meets its overall goal (scope, schedule & budget)

some eg)

Earned Value - Budgeted Cost of Work Performed

Turnover - Number of project team members who quit or were terminated

Scope Change Requests

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45
Q

Verification focuses on?

A

Process related activities

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46
Q

Business, Management and Technical reviews are?

A

Verification

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47
Q

Validation focuses on?

A

Product oriented activities, usually towards the end of the project

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48
Q

What is white box testing?

A

Testing the paths of logic (structure)

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49
Q

What is Blackbox testing?

A

Testing the functionality

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50
Q

What is Greybox testing?

A

Focusing on the functionality and structure

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51
Q

Is testing part of Validation or verification?

A

Validation

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52
Q

What is Acceptance testing?

A

Certifies that the system satisfied the end user or customer scope and requirements after system testing is complete.

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53
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to assure that all features and functionality are included in order to hit the MOV?

A

The users or client

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54
Q

What are project quality standards?

A

Documented agreements
Protocols
Rules that outline technical specification or criteria to ensure the product, service, processes and materials meet their purpose

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55
Q

What are three quality systems studied in class?

A 
ISO
Six Sigma (DMAIC)
Capability Maturity Model Integration
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56
Q

What is ISO

A

International Organization for Standardization

bunch of countries, bunch of members

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57
Q

ISO 9000 focuses on?

A

Quality Management
Improve customer satisfaction
Continuous improvement of the organizations performance

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58
Q

ISO 14000 is concerned with?

A

Environmental Management

How the organization can minimize harmful effects on the environment

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59
Q

Can ISO 9001:2000 be applied to all engineering disciplines?

A

Well sure it can! Even Software Development! Woweee

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60
Q

What was the point of TickIT’s creation?

A

ISO 9000 was too general and difficult to achieve, so TickIT guides a company through it and gives developers an accredited quality certification

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61
Q

How does Six Sigma measure quality of a process?

A

DPO

Defects per Opportunities

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62
Q

What is a defect according to Six Sigma

A

Anything that results in customer dissatisfaction

AKA Dylan’s Mom

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63
Q

How many defects per million is 1 sigma - 6 sigma?

A 
Sigma Defects Per
Million
1 - 690,000
2 - 308,537
3 - 66,807
4 - 6,210
5 - 233
6 - 3.4
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64
Q

What does Six Sigma DMAIC Improvement Cycle stand for?

A 
Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Control
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65
Q

CMMI is?

A

Capability Maturity Model Integration

A set of recommended practices for a set of key processes specific to Software Development

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66
Q

What are the 5 levels of CMMI?

A

1 - Initial, processes are disciplined (ad hoc & reactive)
2 - Repeatable, processes are standard and consistent
3 - Defined, processes are predictable
4 - Managed, processes are continuously improving (use quantitative methods)
5 - Optimizing (technology change management)

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67
Q

____ is the number of working hours needed for a task of project

A

Effort

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68
Q

____ is the amount of calendar time needed for a task of project

A

Duration

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69
Q

What is the most common error when guesstimating

A

Being overly optimistic - it’s a cruel world out there. It’ll eat you up and shit you out dead.

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70
Q

Name the project estimation technique: based on feelings and not facts

A

guesstimating

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71
Q

Name the project estimation technique: Top and middle managers determine overall project schedule and/or cost.

A

Top-down estimating

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72
Q

How many rounds does the Delphi technique require?

A

As many as needed until consensus reached

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73
Q

What is the formula for three-point estimation technique?

A

E = (O+4m+P)/6

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74
Q

Name the project estimation technique: Multiple experts estimate and compare ideas. Multiple iterations until consensus reached.

A

Delphi

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75
Q

What can happen if time boxing is used to often?

A

the project team members

become burned out and frustrated

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76
Q

Name the project estimation technique: dividing the project into smaller modules and then directly estimating the time and effort in terms of person hours,
person-weeks, or person-months for each
module

A

Bottom-up

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77
Q

Name the project estimation technique: estimate based on similar tasks in the past

A

Analagous

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78
Q

Name the project estimation technique: Ask someone with expertise for advice

A

Expert advice (duh)

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79
Q

What is a common principle to estimate effort using analogous estimation?

A

Take previous time, double it, add 10-20%

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80
Q

What is a metric?

A

A measure of some property of a piece of software or its specification (e.g. LOC, FP)

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81
Q

What is a measure?

A

Function to assign a number to the size of some product or process atribute

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82
Q

What is a measurement?

A

Act of obtaining a measure

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83
Q

What are some controversies regarding LOC?

A
  • count comments?
  • declaring variables?
  • efficient code
  • language differences
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84
Q

T/F: Function points cannot be used to compare applications written in different languages

A

F: FP analysis is independent of technology

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85
Q

What are the 5 primary elements of FP analysis?

A
  1. External Inputs
  2. External Outputs
  3. External Inquiries
  4. Internal Logical Files
  5. External Interface Files
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86
Q

Name the FP element:

Enquiry based on both input and output components that result in data retrieval
from one or more internal logical files

A

External Inquiry (EQ)

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87
Q

Name the FP element:

Data originated from users or other system to cross the boundary from outside to
inside

A

External Input (EI)

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88
Q

Name the FP element:

Logical grouping of data that resides external to the applications boundary

A

External Interface Files (EIF)

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89
Q

What is the formula for Value Adjustment Factor?

A

VAF = (TDI * 0.01) + 0.65

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90
Q

How is total degrees of influence (TDI) calculated?

A

Score each of the 14 general system characteristics on a scale of 1-5, then sum

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91
Q

What is the formula for total adjusted function points?

A

FP = UAF * VAF

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92
Q

What does COCOMO stand for?

A

Constructive Cost Model

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93
Q

What is COCOMO used to estimate?

A

cost, effort and schedule

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94
Q

What are three COCOMO project types?

A
  • organiz
  • embedded
  • semi-detached
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95
Q

What type of project is this: Challenging projects that may be new ground for the organization or project
team

A

Embedded

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96
Q

What type of project is this: Routine projects where the work is expected to go smoothly with few
problems

A

Organic

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97
Q

What is a semi-detached project?

A

In between organic and embedded

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98
Q

How long is a person-month in COCOMO?

A

152 hours

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99
Q

What is KDSI?

A

Thousands of delivered source instructions (LOC)

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100
Q

What are the effort equations in COCOMO?

A 
organic = 2.4 * KDSI ^ 1.05
Semi-detached = 3.0 * KDSI ^ 1.12
Embedded = 3.6 * KDSI ^ 1.20
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101
Q

What are the duration equations in COCOMO?

A

Organic = 2.5 * Effort ^ 0.38

Semi-detached = 2.5 * Effort ^ 0.36

Embedded = 2.5 * Effort ^ 0.32

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102
Q

How can you calculate people required for a project?

A

People required = Effort / duration

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103
Q

What assumptiosn does COCOMO 81 rely on?

A
  • A waterfall process is used

- All software developed from scratch

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104
Q

What submodels are included in COCOMO II

A
  • Application composition model
  • Early design model
  • Reuse model
  • Post-architectural model
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105
Q

Defect Arrival Rate is an example of

A

A Process Metric

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106
Q

Customer Found Defect is an example of

A

A Product Metric

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107
Q

Structural Requirements are

A

Project Standards (Usability, Maintainability . . . )

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108
Q

Grey-box testing is a part of?

A

Unit Testing

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109
Q

What is the most important skill for a PM to have?

A

Communication

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110
Q

What is Information Distribution?

A

Getting the right information to the right people in the right format

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111
Q

What does performance reporting include?

A

Status Reports
Progress Reports
Forecast reports

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112
Q

What is defined by focusing on verifying and documenting a projects progress?

A

Administrative Closure

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113
Q

What is a project communication plan?

A

Who needs what information and when

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114
Q

Who identifies stakeholders and their communication needs?

A

THE PM

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115
Q

What are the 5 components of a PCP (Project communication plan)

A 
Stakeholder
Information Requirement
Type of Report/Metric
Timing/Availability
Medium/Format
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116
Q

What are some areas Project Metrics focus on

A 
Scope
Schedule
Budget
Resources
Quality
Risk
117
Q

Good Project Metrics must be

A 
Understandable
Quantifiable
Cost Effective
Proven
High Impact
118
Q

What is Earned Value?

A

Physical work completed to date and authorized budget for that work?

119
Q

What is another term for EV?

A

Budgeted Cost of Work Performed BCWP

120
Q

What is The Budget at Completion?

A

BAC is the total project budget estimate expectation

121
Q

What is a positive (under budget) cost variance?

A

Earned Value - Actual Cost > 0

122
Q

What is a positive (under budget) CPI (Cost Performance Index)

A

EV/AC >1

“For every $1 spent, $1*CPI is how much work we budgeted was really completed”

123
Q

How do you tell if your project is ahead of schedule? use Schedule Variance

A

EV - Planned Value > 0

124
Q

What is Schedule Performance Index?

A

SPI = EV/Planned Value

“For every $1 of work expected to be completed, only $SPI was accomplished”

125
Q

What is an atypical Estimate To Complete?

A

When you do not think the problems in the project will continue = budget at completion (BAC) - SUM(EV)

126
Q

What is a typical variance ETC?

A

(BAC - SUM(EV))/SUM(CPI)

127
Q

What is EAC?

A

Estimate at completion = SUM(Actual Costs) + Estimate To Complete (ETC)

128
Q

What are the 4 reporting categories?

A 
Reviews
Status Reporting (Snapshot comparison of Baseline Plan)
Progress Reporting (activities accomplished)
Forecast Reporting (trends)
129
Q

What is visualization?

A

Presenting data often to senior management in a visual form for the greatest effect

130
Q

Gantt Charts, Balls on the wall chart, timeline chart and s curves are all what?

A

Visualization Tools

131
Q

Which COCOMO II sub-model should be used when the software is composed of existing parts?

A

Application composition model

132
Q

Which COCOMO II sub-model should be used when requirements are available but design has not yet started?

A

Early design model

133
Q

An Entity-Relationship Diagram (ERD) would be considered what element of Function Point analysis?

A

Internal Logical File

134
Q

A screen that allows the user to input information using a keyboard and a mouse would be considered what element of Function Point analysis?

A

External Input File

135
Q

A data set of Customer names and addresses that is maintained by another application system would be what element of Function Point analysis?

A

External Interface File (EIF)

136
Q

A management report and its accompanying graphs would be

considered what element of Function Point analysis?

A

External Output Process (EO)

137
Q

Something that includes a combination of inputs and outputs for retrieving data from either the internal files or from files external to the application would be considered what element of Function Point analysis?

A

External Inquiry Process

138
Q

What are the 4 areas of PMBOK project cost management?

A
  • Resource planning
  • Cost estimating
  • Cost budgeting
  • Cost control
139
Q

Which PMBOK project cost management area involves developing an approximation (estimate) of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities?

A

Cost estimating

140
Q

Which PMBOK project cost management area involves allocating the overall cost estimates to individual activities or work packages to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance

A

Cost budgeting

141
Q

Which PMBOK project cost management area involves determining what physical resources and what quantities of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project activities?

A

Resource planning

142
Q

Which PMBOK project cost management area is concerned with influencing the factors that create changes to the cost baseline to ensure that changes are agreed upon

A

Cost control

143
Q

T/F: Gantt charts traditionally do not show explicit relationships between tasks

A

T

144
Q

What does a diamond on a gantt chart represent?

A

A milestone

145
Q

What chart did Henry Laurence Gannt develop?

A

The Henry chart

146
Q

What does filled/shaded in bar in a Gantt chart represent?

A

A completed task

147
Q

What is the critical path?

A

The longest duration path in a network diagram

148
Q

What are the 2 main methods to draw project network diagrams

A

AON: activity-on-node
AOA: activity-on-arrow

149
Q

What do the numbers in the corners of a node in an AON diagram represent?

A

Clockwise from top left:

  • ES: earliest start
  • EF: earliest finish
  • LF: latest finish
  • LS: latest starts
150
Q

What does the top middle number of a node in an AON diagram represent?

A

Duration

151
Q

What does the bottom middle number of a node in an AON diagram represent?

A

Slack

152
Q

How many critical paths can exist?

A

Infinite

153
Q

T/F: The critical path method identifies the longest time possible to complete the project

A

F: shortest time possible

154
Q

T/F: A zero slack activity must be involved in at least one critical path

A

T

155
Q

What is slack?

A

Time between ES-LS or EF-LF

156
Q

T/F: activities with float time are less critical

A

T (according to slide)

157
Q

What dependency constraint is this:

to meet competitive pressure, or get
things done before a major event (holiday, conference, etc.)

A

Management constraint

158
Q

What dependency constraint is this:

one activity requires output from another before works can begin on it

A

Technical constraint

159
Q

What dependency constraint is this:

a specific event guides an activity, such as needing a task done no earlier than, no later than, or on a specific day

A

Date contraint

160
Q

What dependency constraint is this:

the need for a related project to finish their side of an interface before yours can be fully tested

A

Interproject constraint

161
Q

What is PDM?

A

Precedence Diagramming Method - tool to understand relationship between activities

162
Q

T/F: PDM is based on the AOA diagram technique

A

F: based on AON

163
Q

What are the 4 fundamental relationships in PDM?

A

finish-to-start (FS)
start-to-start (SS)
finish-to-finish (FF)
start-to-finish (SF)

164
Q

Which PDM relationship is most common?

A

FS

165
Q

Start-to-Start activities must finish at the same time?

A

F

166
Q

What is lag time?

A

Adding a buffer before next task begins

167
Q

What is lead time?

A

Starting next task before first is complete

168
Q

How many start nodes can exist in an AOA network?

A

1

169
Q

How many end nodes can exist in an AOA network?

A

1

170
Q

What are the 4 numbers on a node in an AOA diagram?

A

Clockwise from top:

  • event number
  • latest date
  • slack
  • earliest date
171
Q

What is PERT?

A

Program evaluation and review technique

172
Q

Why/when was PERT developed?

A

1950’s, polaris submarine project

173
Q

What are the three estimates for PERT?

A

optimistic, pessismistic, most likely

174
Q

How is the activity standard deviation calculated in PERT?

A

stdev = (pessimistic-optimistic)/6

175
Q

What do the 4 numbers on a node in a PERT diagram represent?

A

Clockwise from top left:

  • event number
  • target date
  • stdev
  • expected date
176
Q

How do calculate z value for an activity in PERT?

A

z = (target date - expected date)/stdev

177
Q

How do you add 2 standard deviations?

A

Add their squares then square root the sum

178
Q

What is a possible reason for a product defect?

A

Ya knocked the battries out ya dummy!

179
Q

What are the different resources?

A 
people
materials
facilities
equipment
money\$\$\$\$$
180
Q

How are people on a project generally identified?

a) their name
b) their skills
c) their odor
d) their assumed gender

A

b

181
Q

Is people a direct or indirect cost?

A

direct

182
Q

What is often the biggest resource cost? What is the second?

A

People, then materials

183
Q

Are facilities a direct or indirect cost?

A

indirect

184
Q

T/F: Office supplies are not considered a material cost

A

T: they are a money resource

185
Q

What type of cost is this: Often have to “build one and throw it away” to understand a problem or a new technology

A

Learning curve

186
Q

When does the project plan become the basline plan?

A

Once the project schedule and budget are accepted by sponsor, project manager and team

187
Q

T/F: Gantt Charts provide valuable information about the logical sequence and dependencies among the various activities and tasks so that a completion date or deadline can be determined

A

F: that’s a network diagram

188
Q

T/F: Start-to-Start and Start-to-Finish relationships allow activities to be worked on in parallel

A

F

189
Q

An activity being analyzed under PERT was judged to most likely
have a duration of 40 days. When considering the time it would
take to complete the activity if every relevant factor went well, it
was estimated to take 20 days and even under the worst case
imaginable, the task would be take 50 days. The estimates PERT
duration of that activity is:

A

38.33

190
Q

At what stage of a project is uncertainty the highest?

A

The beginning

191
Q

Which is cheaper: risk management or crisis management?

A

Risk management

192
Q

T/F: crisis management is proactive

A

F

193
Q

What are some common risk management mistakes?

A
  • benefits not well-understood
  • not providing time for risk management
  • not using a standardized approach
  • crisis management instead
  • unwilling to admit risks exists
  • postpone the hard parts
194
Q

Successful risk management requires:

A
  • commitment by stakeholders
  • stakeholder responsibility
  • different risks for different projects
195
Q

What are the 6 steps in PMBOK risk management?

A
  1. Planning
  2. Identification
  3. Qualitative analysis
  4. Quantitative analysis
  5. Response planning
  6. Monitoring and control
196
Q

Goal of risk management:

A

Maximize positive events, minimize adverse events

197
Q

T/F: The risk management plan does not detail the planned responses to individual risks within the project

A

T

198
Q

What is the risk management plan responsible for determining?

A

roles and responsibilities
budgeting
scheduling
risk analysis scoring

199
Q

What does a risk management methodology cover?

A

tools, approaches, data sources, attitude and flexibility

200
Q

What are the types of risk?

A

known
known-unknown
unknown-unknown

Also: internal/external

201
Q

What type of risk is this: events that we cannot even imagine
happening

A

unknown-unknown

202
Q

What do you call a risk that the project manager is directly responsible for?

A

Internal risk

203
Q

What is the most common risk identification tool?

A

brainstorming

204
Q

T/F: In the delphi technique, experts are kept anonymous

A

T

205
Q

Name the risk identification tool: Each individual silently writes her or his ideas on a piece of paper

Each idea is then written on a board or flip chart one at a time in a round-robin fashion until each individual has listed all of his or her ideas

A

Nominal Group Technique (NGT)

206
Q

Name the risk identification tool: The risks are identified in broad terms and posted, and then the
risks’ characteristics are detailed

A

Brainstorming

207
Q

What is the advantage of using checklists for risk identification?

A

simple, direct

208
Q

What is the disadvantage of using checklists for risk identification?

A

participants may limit their risk identification to only the risk categories on the checklists

209
Q

What does SWOT stand for

A

Sweaty White Overweight Trinidadians

210
Q

What does a cause and effect diagram identify?

A
  • risk in terms of threat/opportunity
  • main factors (causes)
  • detailed factors for each main factor
211
Q

What are the different risk identifying tools?

A 
brainstorming
NGT
Delphi
checklist
SWOT
Cause & Effect (fishbone)
Past projects
212
Q

What is the purpose of risk assessment?

A

Priotitizing risks

213
Q

What is the purpose of risk analysis?

A

Determine each risks’s probability and impact

214
Q

What are the 2 approaches to analyzing and assessing project risk?

A

Qualitative

Quantitative

215
Q

What are 3 qualitative risk analysis methods?

A
  1. Risks scoring model
  2. Risks Impact matrix
  3. Risks timeline
216
Q

What is required for a risk to be inf the red condition in the risk impact matrix?

A

High impact, medium or high probability

217
Q

What are the columns in the risk register?

A 
Risk item
Probability/impact
risk management strategy
critical date
current date
218
Q

T/F: Quantitiative risk analysis is reserved for high impact risks

A

T

219
Q

What are the most common quantitative risk analysis tools?

A

EV
Decision tree
Probability distributions
simulations

220
Q

How is expected value calculated?

A

EV = prob * monetary value

221
Q

What are 4 risk response strategies?

A
  1. avoidance
  2. transfer
  3. mitigation
  4. acceptance
222
Q

Insurance
Fixed-priced contracts
Warrantees
are examples of what kind of risk response strategy?

A

Risk transfer

223
Q

____ is an effort to reduce the probability and/or impact of an identified risk in the project

A

Risk mitigation

224
Q

Which risk response strategy involves changing the base line plane of the product so that the risk cannot occur

A

Risk avoidance

225
Q

Which risk response strategy relies on a contingency allowance
for the project?

A

Risk acceptance

226
Q

When would you use risk acceptance strategy?

A
  • no other action is feasible

- risk is of small impact/probability

227
Q

What are the tools for monitoring identified risks?

A
  • risk register

- risk timeline

228
Q

_______ is a process to document the recognized risks, the

planned response, and the outcome of the risk

A

Risk evaluation

229
Q

T/F: Since risk arises from uncertainty, there can be no such
category as known risks.

A

F

230
Q

Complete this sentence: a risk is a(n) __________

occurrence that can affect the project for good or bad.

A

Uncertain

231
Q

When should risk identification happen?

A

As early as possible in the planning process

232
Q

Which risk analysis provides the project manager with a risk ranking?

A

Qualitative

233
Q

What is the most important PM skill?

A

Communication (bullshitting)

234
Q

What is the biggest tool in a project manager’s toolkit?

A

Austin Baggio

235
Q

How much of a project manager’s time is spent communicating?

A

90%

236
Q

What are the 4 PMBOK areas of communications management

A

Communications planning
information distribution
performance reporting
administrative closure

237
Q

status reports, progress reports, and forecast reports should be collected and distributed in which PBMOK communications management area?

A

Performance reporting

238
Q

Which PMBOK area of communication management Focuses on getting the right
information to the right people in the right format?

A

Information distribution

239
Q

The following questions are answered in which PMBOK area of communication management?

How will information be stored?
What information goes to whom, when, and how?
Who can access what information?
Who will update the information?
What media of communication is best?
A

communications planning

240
Q

Which PMBOK area of communication management should include organizing minutes from meetings and other project related documents.

A

Information distribution

241
Q

Which PMBOK area of communication management includes organizing and archiving project records and lessons learned

A

Administrative closure

242
Q

What info is required in a project communication plan?

A 
stakeholders
info requirements
type of report/metric
timing/availability
medium/format
243
Q

T/F: a project metric is a A qualitative measurement of some attribute of the project

A

T

244
Q

What key areas should project metrics focus on?

A 
Scope
Schedule
Budget
Resources
Quality
Risk
245
Q

A good project metric must be…

A 
Understandable
Quantifiable
Cost effective
Proven
High Impact
246
Q

Project Metric Systems Should…

A

Allow the team to gauge its own progress
Be designed by the project team
Adopt and use only a handful of measures
Track results and progress

247
Q

What is EV?

A

Earned value - actual work completed to date

EV = PV * % completed

(BCWP)

248
Q

What is AC?

A

Actual cost - amount required to date (ACWP)

249
Q

What is PV?

A

Planned value - budgeted cost of work shecuduled

BCWS

250
Q

What is BAC?

A

Budgeted at completion - total budget for project

251
Q

What is cost variance?

A

CV = EV - AC

-ve: over budget
+ve: under budget

252
Q

What is Schedule Performance Index?

A

SPI = EV / PV

> 1: ahead of schedule
<1: behind schedule

253
Q

What is schedule variance?

A

SV = EV - PV

-ve: behind sched
+ve: ahead of sched

254
Q

What is cost performance index?

A

CPI = EV / AC

> 1: under budget
<1 : over budget

255
Q

What are the two methods to calculate estimate to completion (ETC)?

A

typical variance

atypical variance

256
Q

What is the formula for ETC for typical variance?

A

ETC = (BAC - EV)/CPI

257
Q

What is the formula for ETC for atypical variance?

A

ETC = BAC -EV

258
Q

What is EAC?

A

Estimate at completion

259
Q

What is the formula for EAC?

A

EAC = AC + ETC (either typical or atypical)

260
Q

How can we determine funds required if things continue to get worse?

A

Funds required = BAC / (CPI*SPI)

261
Q

What are the 4 reporting categories?

A

Reviews
status reporting
progress reports
forecast reporting

262
Q

Which reporting category compares actual progress to baseline plane?

A

Status reporting

263
Q

Which reporting category is used to get acceptance, surface problems or issues, or
make key decisions?

A

Reviews

264
Q

Which reporting category includes the activities or tasks that the team accomplished?

A

progress reporting

265
Q

Which reporting category involves Predicting the project’s future status or progress

A

forecast reporting

266
Q

Why is visualizing performance important?

A
  • gives quick assessment tool for managers

- staff motivation

267
Q

what do the colors in a balls on the wall chart represent?

A

White: event has not occured

green: on target
red: missed target

268
Q

What are 4 ways of visualizing project progress?

A

Gantt chart
balls on the wall
timeline chart
s-curves

269
Q

How should you communicate with people in the same place and time?

A

Formal or informal meetings

270
Q

How should you communicate with people in the same place but different time?

A

email

threaded discussion area

271
Q

How should you communicate with people in the same time but different place?

A

Telephone/teleconference
video conference
instant messaging
chat room

272
Q

How can the critical path be shortened?

A
  • allocate additional resources
  • increase existing resources (overtime)
  • reallocate resources
  • reconsider precedence requirements
273
Q

T/F: Since project metrics are defined as a qualitative measurement of some attribute of the project, their measurement should reflect the subjective qualitative judgments of project leader or
team members.

A

F

274
Q

T/F: Only those attributes that have a high impact on the project are worth measuring.

A

T

275
Q

T/F: The planned value (PV) tells us how much of our project will be
completed in each time increment.

A

F: only how much we PLAN to pay for

276
Q

T/F: The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) for our project is
greater than one (1) and so we would anticipate that all other
things being equal, our project will finish ahead of schedule

A

T

277
Q 
Barring a change in project scope and given a Schedule
Performance Index (SPI) that is greater than 1, the most
reasonable inference to draw is that:
A

The project will likely finish earlier than planned

278
Q

Which CMMI level has no key process areas

A

1 Initial

279
Q

Peer review, training programs and product engineering are key process areas of which CMMI level?

A

3 Defined

280
Q

Software quality management and quantitative process management are key process areas of which CMMI level?

A

4 Managed

281
Q

Name the CMMI level: process is documented and becomes organizations’ standard

A

3 Defined

282
Q

Name the CMMI level: quantitative metrics for productivty and quality are established

A

4 managed

283
Q

Quality assurance, configuration management and project planning are key process areas of which CMMI level?

A

2 Repeatable

284
Q

Process change management, technology change management and defect prevention are key process areas of which CMMI level?

A

5 Optimizing

285
Q

Name the CMMI level: whole organization is focused on continuous process improvement

A

5 Optimizing

286
Q

To transition from CCMI level 2 to 3, processes are ____

A

Standardized and consistent

287
Q

To transition from CCMI level 1 to 2, processes are ____

A

disciplined

288
Q

To transition from CCMI level 4 to 5, processes are ____

A

continously improving

289
Q

To transition from CCMI level 3 to 4, processes are ____

A

predictable

Software Douchebags (15 decks)

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