Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SDL > SDL > Flashcards

SDL Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

  1. name the depression
  2. name the bone
  3. name the cranial fossa
A
  1. Sella turcica
  2. Sphenoid bone
  3. Middle cranial fossa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what embryological structure does the….

  1. Anterior pituitary gland develope from?
  2. Posterior pituitary gland develope from?
A
  1. Oral ectoderm

2. Neuroectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What cells in the anterior pituitary gland secrete certain hormones?

A
  1. Growth hormone and prolactin are secreted by the acidophilic cells
  2. ACTH,TSH,FSH and LH are secreted by the basophiliuc cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hormnone are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland ?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is diabetes insipidus…

  1. how does it differentiate from diabetes?
  2. what does it have in common with diabetes?
A
  1. Its a rare condition where individuals produce too much urine and often feel thirsty
  2. They have two of the main symptoms often seen in diabetics e.g. polydipsia and polyuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does ADH normally work within the body ? What is the relevance to diabetes insipidus?

A
  1. Usually the osmoreceptors within the the hypothalamus can detect the changes in the osmolarity of the blood. When there is a reduced amount of water in the blood, they sense this and casue the hypothamalus to produce ADH which is then stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It can then be released into the blood stream, where it casues the insertion of auaporine-2 in the collecting duct and convoluted tubles enabling more water to be absorbed. Thus leading to reduced urine volume and increased urine concentration.
  2. In cranial diabetes inspidus the hypothalamus cannot make enough ADH = less water being reabsorbed by the kidneys = increased urine output.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can cause nephrogenic diabetes inspidus?

A
  1. mutation of AQP2 - recessive
  2. high blood sugar, high blood calcium, low potassium
  3. LITHIUM
  4. kidney diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the management options for….

  1. cranial DI
  2. nephrogenic DI
A

Generally to drink enough to replace the water lost

  1. Desmopressin
  2. Thiazide diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Friedreich’s ataxia (FRDA) ?

A
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Progressive and neurodegenrative
  • typical onset between 10-15
  • symptoms include: unstead posture, frequent falls, progressive difficulty walking due to impaired ability to co-ordinate movements (ataxia)
  • caused by a mutation in the FXN gene which leads to deficiency in frataxin protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the signs and symtpoms of FRDA?

A
  1. Difficulty walking, poor balance, slowness/slurring of speech are the first symtpoms.
  2. Can then develope into spasticity- where there is a increased muscle tone. Can affect swallowing.
  3. They can commonly have heart palpatations and SOB due to conditions sych as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy:

  1. What is it?
  2. Pathophysiology
  3. Features
  4. Associations
  5. Echo findings
  6. ECG findings
A
  1. Its a disease where the heart mucle becomes abnormally thickened.
  2. It is commonly casued by defects in genes coding for the beta-myosin heavy chain protiens or the myosin binding protein C. Thus leading to the myocytes being arranged in a disorganised fashion.

There are two types. The first type is ‘obstructive’ , this is when the thicker wall prvenets the blood from leaving the heart. It usually occurs when the ventricular septum thickens.

‘non-obstructive’ occurs when the thickened wall, often the left venticular wall, is unable to relax and therefore fill with blood effectively.

  1. Many people can go without knowing they have it as the condition doesn’t really affect them.

However others can experince….

  • exertional dysponea
  • angina
  • syncope after exercise
  • sudden death casued by ventricular arrythmia
  • jerky pulse, double apex beat
  1. FRDA, Wolff-Parkinsons White
  2. Mirtral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy
  3. left ventricular hypertrophy, deep Q waves, atrial fibrillation ocassionally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the management options for hypertorphic cardiomyopathy?

A
  1. Drug intervention:
    - Beta-blockers e.g. verapamil, disopyramide
    - Amiodarone - supress arryhtmias
    - Maybe anti-cogulants as Atrial fibrillation is associated with a high risk of clots
  2. ICD - implantable cardioverter defribrillator for primary prevention for those at risk of sudden death
  3. Surgical management options:
    - Septal myectomy
    - Septal ablation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is azathioprine ?
What conditions is it percribed in ?
What is an important side effect of the drug to be aware of?
Can pregnant people take it? Does it require monitioring?
What if you forget to take a dose?

A
  1. It is a immunosuppressant
  2. It is prescribed to manage inflammatory conditions such as RA, Crohns, UC etc. It can also be prescribed topically to treat conditions skin conditions such as lupus or atopic eczema.
  3. As well as making the skin more sensitive to sunlight when used topically, it can cause acute pancreatitis.
  4. No, you cant take it if you are pregnant or trying to get pregnant
  5. Yes, it requires regular blood tests checking liver function, kidney function and FBC
  6. Don’t double dose. Just take it if you missed it but not if it is close to taking the next dose.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute pancreatitis:

  1. What is it?
  2. Symptoms of AP?
  3. What are the casues?
  4. Treatment
A
  1. It is the acute inflammation of the pancreas casued by hypersecretion or backflow of exocrine digreative enzymes = autodigestion
2. 
Typical symptoms = 
- epigastic pain that typically radiates to the back 
-N/V
-decreased appetite
  1. GETSMASHED -= mainly alcohol and gallstones
    G = Gallstones
    E = Ethanol
    T = Trauma
    S = Steroids
    M = Mumps
    A = Autoimmune
    S = Scorpion venom
    H = Hypertriglyceridemia, Hypercalcaemia
    E = ERCP
    D = Drugs (azathioprine, mesalazine, sulfasalazine)
  2. ABCDE approach, tests, maybe ERCP to relivie the pain caused by obstruction within 72hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When examining someone with acute pancreatitis, what aould you expect to find?

A
  • Epigastric tenderness
  • Abdominal distention (caused by food blockage, ileus, or retroperitoneal fluid)
  • Reduced bowel sounds
    (ileus development)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain…

  1. Cullen’s sign
  2. Grey-Turner’s sign

What are they both signs of? What conditions are they commonly found in?

A
  1. Cullen’s sign = peri-umbilical bruising
  2. Grey-Turner’s sign = flank bruising

They are both late signs of severe intra-abdominla and retroperitoneal heamorrhage. They can indicate pancreatic necrosis or hemorrhagic pancreatic exudate.

Cullen’s sign is also indicative of ectopic pregnancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sodium valporate:

  1. What is it? What conditions is it used to manage?
  2. What should you do if you forget to take it?
  3. Can pregnant people take it?
  4. What are some of the more serious side effects?
  5. How does it work?
A
  1. It is anti-convulsant medication that is used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. Ocassionally used to treat migranes.
  2. The protocol depend on whether you are taking one or two tablets per day. Never double dose, only take tbe missed dose if its not close to when your next dose it due.
  3. NO. It is only used for epilepsy and BP if there are no other medications to manage that patient. It is a tetrogenic.
  4. Suicidal tendencies and acute pancreatitis
  5. GABA AGONIST - increases the function of GABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What sugerical procedure effects a patients ability to control calcium homeostasis ?

A

Calcium is mainly absorbed from the small bowel so a extensive bowel resection would impact them drastically in the long term puttin ghtem at risk for osteoperosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the immediate antithromibotic therapy for someone experincing a TIA?

What is the first line antithrombotic therapy for after a stroke?

A
  1. 300mg of Aspirin

2. Clopidrogel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Turners syndome:

Who does this condition effect?

Why does this occur?

What are the characterisitcs of this conditon?

When to consider this condition?

Treatment?

A
  1. The condition only effects females
  2. It occurs becasue the female inherits only one X chromosome not two
    • shorter than average
    • underdeveloped ovaries resulting in infertility/amenorrhea
  4. raised FSH and LH with a lack of period
  5. Treatment includes growth hormone therapy as well as regular monitoring of thier heart and reproductive system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the steps in atherosclerosis

A
  1. Endothelial dysfunction.

A type of non-obstructive coronary artery disease which there are no heart artery blockages. It can be casued by variable fractors such as smoking, hypertension etc.

  1. Changes to the endothelium.

There is pro-inflammatory, pro-oxidant, poliferative and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability.

  1. Fatty infiltration of the subendothelial space by LDL particles
  2. Foam cell formation

The monocytes travel into the tissue and become marcophages which then engulf the LDL forming foam cells. As they die they further propergate the inflammation process.

  1. Smooth mucle poliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima forming a fibrious capsuel around the fatty plaque.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Denosumab:

What is this drug and how does it work?

What conditions is it used for?

Can pregnant people take the drug?

What to do if you miss a dose?

A
  1. It is a monoclonal antibody that is used for trageted therapy. It works by preventing the development of osteoclasts by inhibiting RANKL. It comes in injectable form.
  2. The drug is commonly used to as a second line of prevention in osteoperosis. It is used to manage patients with bone metasteses.
  3. No, never
  4. If you miss a dose you need to rebook the appointment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cells is somatostatin produced by?

A

Delta cells (D cells) found in the pancreas, pylorus and duodenum

23
Q

What cells is somatostatin produced by?

A

Delta cells (D cells) found in the pancreas, pylorus and duodenum

24
Q

What hormones/substances does somatostatin inhibit/reduce the production off ?

A
  1. It inhibits the insulin, glucagon and growht hormone secretion
  2. It decreases acid and pepsin secretion - decreases gastrin production and pancreatic enzyme secretion
25
Q

What hormones/substances does somatostatin increase ?

A
  1. Stimulates the production of gastric mucous
25
Q

What hormones/substances does somatostatin increase ?

A
  1. Stimulates the production of gastric mucous
26
Q

What are the three subunits of troponin?

A

Troponin C, Troponin T and Troponin I

27
Q

What do they bind to…

  1. Troponin C
  2. Troponin T
  3. Troponin I
A
  1. Binds to clacium
  2. Binds to tropomyosin forming the troponin-tropomyosin complex
  3. Binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyoin complex in place
28
Q

What are the associated feartures of a stoke affecting the anterior cerebral artery ?

A
  • Contralateral hemipersis and sensory loss that is mroe present in the lower limbs than the upper limbs
29
Q

What are the features associated with a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery?

A
  • Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss in the upper limbs rather than the lower limbs
  • Aphasia
  • Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
30
Q

What are the associated features of a stroke effecting the posterior cerebral artery?

A
  • Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

- Visual agnosia

31
Q

What are the features associated with stroke affecting the basilar artery?

A

locked in syndrome

32
Q

Pernicious anaemia:

What is it? What does it cause?

Pathophysiology?

Risk factors?

Features?

Management?

What does it increase the risk off?

A
  1. It is an autoimmune condition that affects the gastric mucosa resulting in a vitamin B12 deficiency.
  2. Intrinsic factor antibodies that bind to B12 binding site that block it. Gastric parietal cell antibodies that reduce the acid production so that it cant be absorbed.
  3. Other autoimmune conditions and being blood type A
  4. Anaemic features:
    - lethargy, pallor and dysponea

Neurological features:

  • pins and needles (peripheral neuropathy numbness that effects the legs
  • symptoms of degenration of the spinal cord
  • memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, irritability
  • mild jaundice, sore tounge
    4. vitamin B12 replacement usually intramusculary, folic acid supplementation
    5. increased risk of gastric cancer, megaloblastic anaemia
32
Q

Pernicious anaemia:

What is it? What does it cause?

Pathophysiology?

Risk factors?

Features?

Management?

What does it increase the risk off?

A
  1. It is an autoimmune condition that affects the gastric mucosa resulting in a vitamin B12 deficiency.
  2. Intrinsic factor antibodies that bind to B12 binding site that block it. Gastric parietal cell antibodies that reduce the acid production so that it cant be absorbed.
  3. Other autoimmune conditions and being blood type A
  4. Anaemic features:
    - lethargy, pallor and dysponea

Neurological features:

  • pins and needles (peripheral neuropathy numbness that effects the legs
  • symptoms of degenration of the spinal cord
  • memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, irritability
  • mild jaundice, sore tounge
    4. vitamin B12 replacement usually intramusculary, folic acid supplementation
    5. increased risk of gastric cancer, megaloblastic anaemia
33
Q

What is cerebellar syndrome?

List the symptoms/signs of cerebellar syndrome (DANISH).

A

It is the collection of symptoms that are casued by lesions ot the cerebellum.

D - Disdiadochokinesia

This is the ability to perform rapid alternating movements

A - Ataxia

N - Nystamus

I - Intention tremor

S - Scanning dysarthria

Jerky, sometimes explosive, slurred speech with difficulty mainting rate

H - Hypotonia

34
Q

What is one of the key casues of acute cerebellar syndrome?

When there is a lesion to the cerebellum, how does it present?

A
  1. Alcohol

2. It occurs on the ipsilateral side

35
Q

When is amoidarone used?

What is the mechaniusm of action?

A
  1. It is a potent anti-arrythmatic drug that is given to treat ventricular arrythmias and atrial firbrillation. It is given as 100mg.
  2. potassium channel blocker
36
Q

What drug combination is used to manage people after a stroke/TIA when clopidrogel cannot be tolerated ?

A
  1. Dipyridamole and Aspirin

Dipyridamole is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor

37
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity ?
What is it caused by?
Management ?

A
  1. Anaphylactic reactions
  2. IgE insitgated
  3. Epinephrine injection subcuntaneously into the thigh
38
Q

Age-related macular degeneration:
What is it?

How does it commonly present?

What signs do you see on fundosocopy?

What are the management options for this condition?

A
  1. It is one of the leading casues of blindess within the uk. It occurs when there is degeneration of the central retina.

2.
- fluctuations in visal disturbance
- photopsia (flickering perception of light)
- reduced vidual acuity
-deteriation of vision in the dark
There are two types that present differently:

Dry macular degeneration

  • most common
  • vision loss is typically in the centre and peripheral vision is maintained

Wet macular degeneration:

  • less common but mroe serious
  • rapid loss of vision
  • typically the same symtp[oms as those with dry, as it starts of as dry and develops into wet
  1. Dry: Drusen.
    Yellow round spots in the bruchs membrane

Wet: Choroidal neovascularisation, fluid leakage and haemorrhage

  1. ANTI-VEGF injections e.g. ranimizumab,bevacizumab
39
Q

Metoclopramide:

What is it? How does it work?

What conditions is it used in?

What are the serious side effects?

Can pregnant people take this drug?

What to do if youy miss a dose?

A
  1. Anti-emetic. It blocks dopamine receptors at CTZ and acts on 5-HT in the GI tract.
  2. It can be used in the management of conditions such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
  3. It can produce an oculgryoic crisis in young adults and children.

This is basically spasmodic movements of the eyeballs into fixed position, usually upwards. Thsi usualy lasts for a few hours to seconds. The managment for this includes either benztropine or diphenhydramine intramuscularaly.

  1. You can but it is advised to not take it for too long
  2. Never double dose
40
Q

Colorectal cancer:

What is it?

How do they start?

What are the signs/symptoms?

What are the most common types?

A
  1. It is cancer that either begins in the colon or the rectum. They are under this subheading as they share very similar traits.
  2. Most cancers start as growths ont he inner lining of the colon/rectum, which are reffered to as polyps. Adenomas (Adenomatous polyps), Sessile serrated polyps (SSP) and traditional serrated ademonas (TSA) are pre-cancerous polyps. There are three types of adenomas which are tubular, villous and tubulovillous.
    • persistent changes in the bowel habits
    • rectal bleeding or blood in stools
    • persistant Abd
    • weakness or fatigue
    • weightloss
  4. Adenocarcinomas are the most common and start int he cells the produce the mucosal lining.
41
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot:

What is it?

What are the signs/symptoms?

Treatment?

A
  1. This is a congential heart defect that is comprised of four defects:
    - Ventricular septal defect
    - Pulmonary stenosis (narrowing of the main pulmonary artery)
    - Aortic valve continually open to both ventricles not just the left
    - Ventricular hypertrophy of right ventricular wall
    • ‘tet spells’ they trun blue after crying or feeding
    • ‘boot shapoed heart’
    • heart murmurs
    • squatting position to relive symptoms
  3. Surgery - intracardiac repair
42
Q

Community aquired pneumonia?

What is it? symptoms?

What are the common pathogenic casues?

Management?

A

1/2. It is penumonia that is contracted within the community. It can be divided into two catergories ‘typical’ and ‘atypical’.

Typical pneumonia:

  • cough, productive green mucus
  • SOB
  • pyrexia
  • N/V
  • confusion in elderly patients

It is most commonly casued by streptococcus pneumoniae. Haemophilius influenzae and moraxella catarrhalis as well.

Atypical pneumonia:
This is usually more subactue in onset and can present with a combination of pulmonary and extrapulmonary symptoms. One of the most common casues is mycoplasma pneumonaie.

  1. Amoxicillin. If they have a penicillin then give doxycyclin.
43
Q

Hospital aquired pneumonia:

What is it?

What are the most likley organisums?

Management?

A
  1. It is pneumonia contracted 48 hours after hospital addmission
  2. gram-negtaive bacilli - pesudonomas aerguinosa

Staphylococcus aureus, legionella pneumophila

  1. Co-amoxicalv. Second line if unable to take or has allergy to penicillin then doxycycline.
44
Q

Aspiration penumonia:

How is it casued?

What patients is it commonly seen in?

A
  1. Inhalation of oropharyngeal or gastirc contents
    • Reduced conscious level
    • Neuromuscular disorders
    • Oesophageal conditions
    • Mechanical interventions such as endotracheal tubes.
45
Q

What HLA antigens are commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

HLA DRB1

46
Q

Tuberculosis:

What is it?

What organisum causes it?

Symptoms/signs?

Management?

A
  1. It is an infection of the lungs caused by inhaling tiny droplets of a person with bacterial infections.
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    • Persistant cough that lasts for more than 3 week
    • blood phelgm
    • weight loss
    • night sweats
    • pyrexia
    • fatigue
    • loss of appetite
    • lymphadenopathy
  4. isonizaid and rifampicin for 6 months
47
Q

Which part of the adrenal cortex is aldosterone formed?

When is aldosterone released ?

What is the effect of aldosterone ?

A
  1. Zona glomerulosa
  2. it is released in response to raised angiotrensin II, potassium and ATCH levels
  3. Casues the rentention of NA+ in exhange for te k+/H+ int eh distal tubule
48
Q

Where is renin produced?

What is it secreted in response to ?

What effect does renin have on the body?

A
  1. juxtoglomerular cells
  2. reduced renal perfusion and hyponatermia
  3. hydrolyses angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
49
Q

Where is angiotensin I converted into angiotensin II ?

What effect on the body does angiotensin II have ?

A
  1. By ACE enzymes produced at the lungs
    • vasconstriction of the smooth muscles
    • vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
    • stimulate thirst
    • stimulate aldosterone and ADH relsease
    • increases NA+/H+ activity
50
Q

What are basophils a sign off and what do they produce?

A
  • chronic inflammation and histmaine
51
Q

What are basophils a sign off and what do they produce?

A
  • chronic inflammation and histmaine
52
Q

What is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia?

How does it present in patients?

A
  1. activated protein C resistance/ factor V leiden

2. Normal APTT and PT but excessive clotting

SDL (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions