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Scientific Foundations: Exercise Science Flashcards

1
Q

What is a structural exercise?

A

Exercises that involve loading of the spine directly or indirectly and typically involve multiple muscle groups across several joints.

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2
Q

What hormone stimulates the catabolism of amino acids to carbohydrates?

A

Cortisol

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3
Q

What are exercises that load the spine and are typically compound movements?

A

Structural Exercises

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4
Q

What is the valsalva maneuver?

A

A breathing technique where the athlete takes a deep breath and holds it to create intra-abdominal pressure to stabilize the core and spine.

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5
Q

What technique has an athlete hold their breath to stabilize their core?

A

Valsalva Maneuver

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6
Q

What are forced repetitions?

A

Athlete performs additional repetitions past failure with the help of a spotter.

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7
Q

What method has an athlete perform repetitions past failure with the help of a spotter?

A

Forced Repetitions.

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8
Q

What is Metabolic Acidosis?

A

A condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH due to an accumulation of acid in the body, which can occur from increased production of metabolic acids like lactate or from conditions that reduce the body’s ability to remove or buffer acids.

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9
Q

What is A condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH due to an accumulation of acid in the body, which can occur from increased production of metabolic acids like lactate or from conditions that reduce the body’s ability to remove or buffer acids?

A

Metabolic Acidosis

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10
Q

What is Phosphorylation? How does this process play a role in energy production.

A

A biomechanical PROCESS that involves the addition of a phosphate group to a molecule being phosphorylated to form ATP.

Phosphorylation is the process that occurs in order to transform ADP to ATP by adding a phosphate group to ATP.

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11
Q

What biomechanical process adds a phophate group to a molecule?

A

Phosphorylation

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12
Q

What is NADH?

A

A coenzyme that plays crucial roles in metabolic pathways like glycolysis and the Krebs cycle by carrying electrons through the electron transport chain, where they are used to produce ATP aerobically.

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13
Q

What is the difference between a muscles origin and insertion? (Pg. 20)

A

Origin is the attachment site that is most proximal or closest to the center of the body. Insertion, on the other hand, is most distal or furthest away from the center of the body.

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14
Q

What is the Z-line (or Z-disc) in a sarcomere?

A
  • Marks the boundaries of a single sarcomere
  • Where thin Actin filaments attach
  • Do not change length, but move closer together during contracts
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15
Q

Within the sarcomere, what part acts as a boundary and has the thin actin filaments connect to it and as the muscle contracts, they do not change in length but get closer to one another?

A

Z-line or Z-disc

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16
Q

What is the A-band (MYOSIN) in a sarcomere?

A
  • The dark area that contains the entire length of the myosin thick filaments
  • Where the thick filaments are found and also contain the area where the myosin thick filaments overlap with the actin thin filaments
  • Length does not change during muscle contraction
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17
Q

Within the sarcomere, what section contains the entire myosin thick filament and does not change during muscle contraction? What else does this component alternate with throughout the myofibril?

A

A-Band; I-Band

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18
Q

What is the I-band? Does it change in length during muscle contraction?

A
  • a lighter area that contains the actin thin filaments and none of the myosin thick filaments that can be found between A-bands
  • YES - Changes in length as the muscle contracts because the myosin thick filaments are overlapping the actin filaments more and more, causing less space in the I-band.
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19
Q

What is the H-zone? Does it change length?

A
  • The central part of the A band where there are ONLY myosin thick filaments and no crossover of actin thin filaments.
  • YES - as the myosin pulls itself further into the actin filaments, the H zone shrinks during muscle contraction.
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20
Q

What is the M-line?

A
  • Centerline of the H-zone
  • Where the myosin heads anchor/connect
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21
Q

What parts of the sarcomere run horizontally? What parts run vertically?

A

Horizontal: A-band; I-band; H-zone; Myosin Thick Filaments; Actin Thin Filaments

Vertical: Z-line (Z-disc) and M-line

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22
Q

What parts of the Sarcomere change in length during muscle contraction? What parts stay the same? Why?

A

Change in length:
- I-Band: (section of only actin) Shortens because the myosin is pulling itself into the actin thin filaments
- H-zone: (section of only myosin) Shortens because the thin filaments are being pulled inward toward the M-line
- Distance between Z lines draws closer together as the sarcomere shortens
- Thin filaments move, although they dont change in length, as they slide past the myosin

Stays the same:

  • A-band: Represents the length of myosin, which does not change during contraction.
  • Myosin
  • Actin: length of actin stays the same but the do move relative to the myosin as the myosin performs the power stroke to pull the thin filaments toward the M-line
  • Z-line: runs vertical to mark the boundaries of the sarcomere, so the z line itself doesnt change in length but z lines do move closer together as the sarcomeres contract
  • M-line: runs horizontal and perpendicular to the motion and contraction of the sarcomere, so it does not change in length.
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23
Q

What idea represents the relationship between motor unit twitch force and recruitment threshold where motor units are recruited based on their size, recruiting smaller units first and progressively larger units as the force production demands increase? (pg. 91)

A

The Size Principle

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24
Q

What is the size principle? (pg. 91)

A

Represents the relationship between motor unit twitch force and recruitment threshold.
Motor units are recruited first in order based on their size, recruiting smaller units first and progressively larger units as the force production demands increase.

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25
Q

What is sarcopenia? (pg. 148-149)

A

The common decreases seen in strength and muscle mass due to aging. Typically due to decreased activity.

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26
Q

What process describes the common decreases in strength and muscle mass due to aging, which is typically a result of decreased activity? (Pg. 148-149)

A

Sarcopenia

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27
Q

What is Osteopenia?

A

Decreases in bone mineral density and a precursor to osteoporosis?

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28
Q

What term describes a decline in bone mineral density and is a precursor to osteoporosis?

A

Osteopenia

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29
Q

What is Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)? (pg. 90)

A

An enzyme involved in the anaerobic conversion of pyruvate to lactate

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30
Q

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum release in response to the action potential? (pg. 7-8)

A

Calcium Ions

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31
Q

What do the calcium ions do once they are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to assist in muscle contraction? (pg. 7-8)

A

They bind with troponin sites, which triggers the tropomyosin rope around the actin to move and expose the sites along the actin where the myosin heads will connect and allow for movement as the myosin pulls the actin.

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32
Q

Does the erector spinae act as a stabilizer, synergist, or antagonist in the RDL? (pg. 391)

A

Synergist (assistant)

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33
Q

Which energy system focuses on the breakdown of carbs to resynthesize ATP? (pg. 46)

A

Glycolysis

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34
Q

Can glycolysis be performed aerobically, anaerobically, or both?

A

Both aerobically and anaerobically

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35
Q

In response to mechanical loading, what migrates to the bone surface to begin bone modeling? (pg. 97)

A

osteoblasts

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36
Q

What are osteoblasts? What triggers them to activate? What is the result?

A

Specialized cells responsible for new bone formation. They synthesize and secrete bone matrix, a collagen-rich substance that eventually mineralizes into new bone tissue.

When bones are subject to mechanical stress, osteoblasts are activated and stimulated to build new bone which increases bone density and strength.

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37
Q

What is “bone matrix”?

A

The intercellular substance of bone tissue, consists of mainly collagen fibers and ground substance that eventually becomes mineralized with calcium phosphate to form the hard, dense tissue known as bone.

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38
Q

What is Trabecular Bone? What are other names for this bone type? Where can it be found?

A
  • Cancellous or Spongy bone
  • Characterized by porous, honeycomb structure
  • found at the ends of long bones and inside the vertebrae
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39
Q

What is Cortical Bone?

A
  • Compact bone
  • Dense, hard outer layer of bone that provides most of the structural support and protection for the body
  • makes up the shafts of long bones and outer later of other bones
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40
Q

What is overtraining syndrome? What are some of the side effects? (pg. 107)

A
  • a “prolonged maladaptation” not only of the athlete, but also of several biological, neurochemical, and hormonal regulation mechanisms due to excessive training load and inadequate recovery.
  • Effects: persistent fatigue, hormonal imbalances, mood changes, and continuous decline in performance
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41
Q

What is non-functional overreaching (NFOR)? (pg. 107)

A

When intensity and volume exceed the athlete’s recovery capacity over an extended period

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42
Q

What is “Overreaching” or “Functional Overreaching” (FOR)? (pg. 107)

A

When an athlete undertakes excessive training that leads to short term decrements in performance.

A strategy used in exercise programs to stimulate rapid performance enhancements, although may cause some temporary fatigue and performance declines.

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43
Q

What are the two types of overtraining symptom (OTS)? What are some symptoms of each? Which typically comes first and who does it tend to effect?(pg. 107-108)

A

1: Sympathetic Overtraining Syndrome: Includes sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight) activity at rest

side effects: restlessness, irritability, increased HR and BP, insomnia, decreased appetite and weight, reduced performance despite high motivation

2: Parasympathetic Overtraining Syndrome: increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system (rest and digest)

side effects: chronic fatigue, depression and lack of motivation, bradycardia, reduced performance

Usually sympathetic overtraining comes first and typically effects younger athletes who train for speed and power

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44
Q

What planes of motion can the glenohumeral and acetabulofemoral joints move through? (pg. 25-27)

A

all three planes of motion: sagittal, transverse, and frontal

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45
Q

What is the primary muscle action of the gastronemius? (2 actions) (Pg. 27)

A

1: Plantarflexion (directly)
2: Knee flexion (indirectly)

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46
Q

What are the 3 layers of connective tissue in muscle and what parts of muscle do they cover? (pg. 3-5)

A

Epimysium: Outermost layer surrounding the entire skeletal muscle

Perimysium: surrounds each fascicles, which are a group or bundle of muscle fibers

Endomysium (end): the inner-most layer that surrounds individual muscle fibers or cells, which are essentially groups of myofibrils and sarcoplasm.

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47
Q

What two important proprioceptors should be considered during stretching and why? (pg. 323)

A

1: Muscle Spindles and Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO’s)

2: Muscle Spindles: These proprioceptors monitor changes in muscle length
GTO’s: a mechanoreceptor that is sensitive to muscle tension and causes muscles to relax when stimulated

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48
Q

What is autogenic inhibition? (pg. 323)

A
  • A protective reflex triggered by the GTO that occurs in a muscle that is experiencing increased tension that causes relaxation of the muscle to prevent injury.
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49
Q

What is the ideal performance state? What are some of the signs of this state in an athlete? (Pg. 156)

A

Definition: Sometimes referred to as “the zone” which is the ultimate cognitive goal of every athlete during competition and is marked by psychological and physiological efficiency

Signs:

  • absence of fear
  • Performance not being analyzed
  • Super focused on the task at hand
  • Actions feel effortless
  • increased sense of personal control
  • Time seems to slow down
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50
Q

What is the lactate threshold? (pg. 51)

A
  • the intensity of exercise at which lactate begins to accumulate in the blood at a faster rate than it can be removed.
  • Threshold can increase and improve with training
  • typically measured in VO2 max
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51
Q

What is the typical lactate threshold for 1: Untrained Individuals; 2: Moderately Trained Individuals; 3: Trained Athletes; 4: Elite Endurance Athletes? (Pg. 51)

A

1: Untrained Individuals - 50-60% of VO2 max (Maximal Oxygen Uptake)
2: Moderately Trained Individuals - 60-70% of VO2 Max
3: Trained Athletes - 70-80% of VO2 Max
4: Elite Endurance Athletes - 80-90% of VO2 max

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52
Q

What are characteristics of Type 1 muscle fibers? (pg. 9)

A

Efficient, Fatigue-resistant, relaxes slowly

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53
Q

What is the most common knee injury in resistance training and what typically causes it? (pg. 40)

A

tendonitis to the tissues of the patella and surrounding it. typically from too much volume and intensity without proper progression

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54
Q

What is the Series Elastic Component (SEC)? (pg 472-473)

A

part of the mechanical model that consists of mostly tendons with some muscular components and stores elastic energy as it is stored like a spring and releases energy into the concentric phase of the movement if it is performed immediately after the eccentric.

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55
Q

What is the Stretch Reflex? (pg. 472)

A

the body’s involuntary response to an external stimulus that stretches the muscles which is primarily composed of muscle spindle activity and causes a muscle to contract in response to a sudden stretch which has protective and performance implications

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56
Q

What methods of training have been shown to increase serum testosterone levels? (pg. 74-75, 85)

A
  • Heavy resistance training (>85% 1RM)
  • Moderate to high training volumes
  • Short rest periods (under 60 seconds)
  • Increased experience levels
  • Using exercises that target larger muscle groups
56
Q

What is the stretch shortening cycle (SSC)? How does the stretch reflex and series elastic component (SEC) tie in? (Pg. 472-473)

A

A sequence of muscle actions that involve a rapid stretch (eccentric) with an immediate shortening (concentric) to maximize force. It uses the stretch reflex to trigger quick muscle contraction and the SEC to store and release elastic energy in order to enhance power movements like jumping and sprinting.

57
Q

What are muscle spindles? (pg. 11)

A
  • Proprioceptors/sensory receptors
  • Consist of several modified muscle fibers
  • Enclosed in a sheath of connective tissue
  • Sense changes in muscle length
  • Communicate with the nervous system about muscle stretch and thereby play a crucial role in the regulation of muscular control and coordingation as well as the stretch reflex
58
Q

What is Excess Post-exercise Oxygen Consumption (EPOC)? What type of training has the greatest effect on EPOC? (pg. 57-58)

A

definition: The term which describes the elevated oxygen uptake that follows intense exercise

exercise: Resistance training above 80% of 1RM

59
Q

What is beta oxidation? Where does it occur? (pg. 53)

A
  • The process where free fatty acids are broken down, leading to the formation of acetyl-CoA and hydrogen protons, which enter the krebs cycle to produce ATP, carbon, and water
  • Occurs within the mitochondria of cells
  • Produces the most ATP per cycle
60
Q

What muscle fiber type increases in activity after the lactate threshold is crossed? (pg. 50-51)

A

Type II (Fast twitch)

61
Q

What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic exercise?

A

Aerobic exercise requires oxygen while anaerobic does not.

62
Q

What is the difference between speed, acceleration, force, and velocity? (Pg. 523)

A

Speed: The rate at which an object covers a distance

Acceleration: the rate of change in velocity; how quickly it increases or decreases in speed and/or changes direction

Force: Mass x Acceleration

Velocity: Similar to speed but is a vector quantity, which means it has a rate of motion and a direction of motion

63
Q

What is the most substantial risk factor for active individuals? What are some other factors that may effect injury risk? (Pg. 619)

A

Previous injury

Excessive volume or load, training program design

64
Q

Describe first, second, and third class levers. Give examples of each. (pg. 21)

A

First-class: Resistive force and muscular force on opposite sides of the fulcrum (tricep extension)

Second-class: Have both resistive and muscular forces on the same side of the fulcrum, but the resistive force has a shorter moment arm than the muscular force (calf raise)

Third-class (most common): REsistive and muscular forces on the same side of the fulcrum, but the resistive force has a longer moment arm than the muscular force. (DB Biceps curl).

65
Q

What is cross-linking in collagen bundles? (pg. 99)

A

the formation of strong chemical bonds between adjacent collagen molecules within collagen bundles that increase tensile strength and structural integrity of collagen-containing tissues, making them more resistant to stretching and tearing.

66
Q

What are the % power for the phosphagen, fast glycolysis (FG), fast glycolysis and oxidative combo, and oxidative (O) energy systems when using interval training? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

Phosphagen: 90-100%
Fast Glycolysis: 75-90%
Combo of FG & O: 30-75%
Oxidative: 20-30%

67
Q

What are the typical exercise time and work to rest ratio ranges for the phosphagen, fast glycolysis (FG), fast glycolysis and oxidative combo, and oxidative (O) energy systems when using interval training? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

Phosphagen: 5-10 seconds exercise with 1:12 to 1:20 WR ratio
Fast Glycolysis: 15-30 seconds exercise with 1:3 to 1:5 WR ratio
Combo of FG & O: 1-3 minutes exercise with 1:3 to 1:4 WR ratio
Oxidative: >3 minutes exercise with 1:1 to 1:3 WR ratio

68
Q

When using interval training to train the phosphagen system, what should the exercise time be for each interval and what should the work to rest ratio be? What percentage intensity range should be performed? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

5-10 seconds exercise with 1:12 to 1:20 WR ratio at 90-100% intensity

69
Q

When using interval training to train the fast glycolysis system, what should the exercise time be for each interval and what should the work to rest ratio be? What percentage intensity range should be performed? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

15-30 seconds exercise with 1:3 to 1:5 WR ratio at 75-90% intensity

70
Q

When using interval training to train a combination of the oxidative and fast glycolysis system, what should the exercise time be for each interval and what should the work-to-rest ratio be? What percentage intensity range should be performed? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

1-3 minutes exercise with 1:3 to 1:4 WR ratio at 30-75% intensity

71
Q

When using interval training to train the oxidative system, what should the exercise time be for each interval and what should the work-to-rest ratio be? What percentage intensity range should be performed? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

> 3 minutes exercise with 1:1 to 1:3 WR ratio at 20-30% intensity

72
Q

What energy system is being trained during interval training with >3 minutes exercise intervals and 1:1 to 1:3 WR ratio at 20-30% intensity? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

Oxidative

73
Q

What energy system is being trained during interval training with 1-3 minutes intervals and 1:3 to 1:4 WR ratio at 30-75% intensity? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

a combination of the oxidative and fast glycolysis system

74
Q

What energy system is being trained during interval training with 15-30 seconds intervals and 1:3 to 1:5 WR ratio at 75-90% intensity? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

fast glycolysis system

75
Q

What energy system is being trained during interval training with 5-10 seconds intervals with 1:12 to 1:20 WR ratio at 90-100% intensity? (pg. 60, table 3.6)

A

Phosphagen system

76
Q

What is the difference between an open and closed kinetic chain exercise? How does this relate to isolation and compound movements? (pg. 615)

A

Open kinetic chain involves movement where the limb is free to move (leg extension, bicep curl tricep pushdown) whereas a closed kinetic chain exercise has the limb in a fixed or stationary position (pushup, squat, deadlift,). Open kinetic chain exercises tend to be isolation while closed kinetic chains tend to be compound.

77
Q

What is Cross-education? (pg. 93)

A

Exercising a muscle unilaterally produces strength and neural activity in the contralateral (opposite) side with the resting muscle. The untrained side essentially gets some training stimulus without actually moving with this phenomenon.

78
Q

Explain the difference between bilateral deficit and facilitation.

A
79
Q

What is the only macronutrient that can be metabolized without oxygen? (pg. 44)

A

Carbohydrates

80
Q

What percent of intervertebral disc herniations occur between the L4 to S1? (pg. 38)

A

85%-90%

81
Q

What is Fibrosis? (pg. 321)

A

The process by which fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers.

Typically due to agin, inactivity, and tendency to use less ROM

82
Q

Work intervals during HIIT for athletes should be completed at what percent of VO2 max?

A

90% or higher

83
Q

During tissue healing and repair, what are the 3 primary phases and what happens in each? (pg. 610)

A

1: Inflammatory Response Phase
- Pain, swelling, redness.
- Decreased Collagen synthesis.
- Increased inflammatory cells.
- Edema inhibits contractile tissues and function.
- Phagocytosis releases macrophages, which help to remove cellular debris that may slow healing.
- Typically lasts less than a week

2: Fibroblastic Repair Phase
- Collagen fiber production
- Decreased collagen fiber organization
- Decreased inflammatory cells
- When tissue repair technically begins
- Can last 2 days and up to two months

3: Maturation remodeling phase
- Proper collagen fiber alignment
- Increased tissue strength
- Tissue remodeling takes place
- can last months to years post injury

84
Q

Describe the Inflamatory Response Phase of tissue healing. (pg. 610)

A
  • Pain, swelling, redness.
    • Decreased Collagen synthesis.
    • Increased inflammatory cells.
    • Edema inhibits contractile tissues and function.
    • Phagocytosis releases macrophages, which help to remove cellular debris that may slow healing.
    • Typically lasts less than a week
85
Q

Describe the Fibroblastic Repair Phase of tissue healing. (pg. 610)

A
  • Collagen fiber production
    • Decreased collagen fiber organization
    • Decreased inflammatory cells
    • When tissue repair technically begins
    • Can last 2 days and up to two months
86
Q

Describe the maturation remodeling phase of tissue healing. (pg. 610)

A
  • Proper collagen fiber alignment
    • Increased tissue strength
    • Tissue remodeling takes place
    • can last months to years post injury
87
Q

What is the difference between the Size Principle and Selective Recruitment when it comes to the recruitment of motor units?

A
88
Q

What is the female athlete triad?

A
89
Q

The sagittal plan divides the body into what sections? What about the frontal plane? Transverse? (pg. 25)

A

Saggital: Right and left
Frontal: front and back
Transverse: Top and bottom

90
Q

What is Rate of Force Development (RFD)?

A

Development of maximal force in minimal time.

Often used as an index of explosive strength.

91
Q

What is often used as an index for explosive strength and involves the development of maximal force in minimal time?

A

Rate of Force Development (RFD)

92
Q

What does Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulate?

A
93
Q
A
94
Q

How many calories are needed to create a 1-pound weight loss?

A

3500 Calories

95
Q

What type of lever is the triceps muscle?

A

1st Class. The muscle is on the opposite side of the external force with the fulcrum in between

96
Q

How much ATP is produced by aerobic metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose?

A

Aerobic metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose results in 38 net ATP

97
Q

How much ATP is produced by the metabolism of triglycerides?

A

A: Triglycerides produce 300+ ATP

98
Q

What do muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs do?

A

Muscle spindles sense muscle stretch and stimulate contraction, while Golgi tendon organs sense muscle tension and inhibit contraction

99
Q

What is the formula for cardiac output?

A

Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume.

100
Q

What is the role of the SA node in the heart?

A

The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart

101
Q

What is the pacemaker of the heart?

A

The SA node

102
Q

What is the role of acetylcholine and calcium in muscle contraction?

A

Acetylcholine transmits the action potential down nerves to muscles; calcium regulates muscle action by spreading the signal.

103
Q

What are the two categories of heart valves? What specific types of valves fall under each? Describe the categories but not necasarrily each specific valve.

A

Category 1: Atrioventricular (AV) Valves (Tricuspid & Mitral valves).

Description:
- Located between the atria (upper chambers) and the ventricles (lower chambers)
- Prevents backflow of blood from the ventricles back to the atria during ventricular contraction (systole)

Category 2: Semilunar (SL) Valves ( Pulmonary and Aortic valves)

Description:
- Located between the ventricles and major arteries leaving the heart
- Prevents backflow of blood into the ventricles after the ventricles have contracted

104
Q

What are the two Atrioventricular valves?

A

Mitral & Tricuspid

105
Q

What are the two Semilunar valves?

A

Aortic & Pulmonary

106
Q

What type of valves are Mitral & Tricuspid valves?

A

Atrioventricular valves

107
Q

What type of valves are Aortic and Pulmonary valves?

A

Semilunar valves

108
Q

What happens during Diastole and Systole? Where are these numbers found on blood pressure readings?

A

Diastole: Heart Relaxation; Bottom number (relaxes at the bottom in diastole)

Systole: Heart contraction; Top number (squeezes to the top in systole)

109
Q

What are the ranges for a normal resting heart rate, Bradycardia, and Tachycardia?

A

Normal resting heart rate: 60-100 bpm
Bradycardia: <60 bpm
Tachycardia: >100 bpm

110
Q

Describe the parts of the respiratory system.

A

1st: Nasal Cavity - air is purified, warmed, and humidified

2nd: Trachea

3rd: Right & Left bronchi

4th: Bronchioles - continues to divide through the bronchioles for approximately 23 generations

5th: Alveoli - where gas is exchanged

111
Q

Resting heart rate less than 60 bpm is considered what?

A

Bradycardia

112
Q

What are the effects of scute anaerobic exercise on the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Increased cardiac output
  • Increased Heart Rate
  • Increased stroke volume
  • Increased oxygen uptake
  • Increased systolic BP
113
Q

What are the effects of acute anaerobic exercise on the respiratory system?

A
  • Ventilation significantly increases during each set
  • Ventilation is greatest during the first minute of recovery from a set
114
Q

What are the acute effects of aerobic exercise on the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Increased cardiac output
  • Increased Heart Rate
  • Increased stroke volume
  • Increased oxygen uptake
  • Increased systolic BP
  • Increased blood flow to working muscles through vasodilation of blood vessels
115
Q

What are the acute effects of aerobic exercise on the respiratory system system?

A
  • Increased oxygen diffusing into muscle tissue from capillaries
  • Increased tidal volume
  • Increased movement of CO2 diffusing from blood into alveoli
  • Increased minute ventilation
116
Q

What are the chronic effects of aerobic exercise on the respiratory system?

A
  • Ventilation adaptations specific to the activity trained
117
Q

What are the chronic effects of aerobic exercise on the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Decreased resting heart rate
  • Increased cardiac output ability
118
Q

What is the primary strucural component of all connective tissue?

A

Collagen

119
Q

What type of collagen are bones, tendons, and ligaments? What type of collagen is cartilage?

A

Bones, tendons, Ligaments: Type 1 Collagen

Cartilage: Type 2 Collagen

120
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

Bone remodels according to the strain placed on it. Minimal Essential Strain (MES) is the stimulus threshold/minimum required to initiate bone growth.

121
Q

What theory states that “Bone remodels according to the strain placed on it”?

A

Wolff’s Law

122
Q

What responses occur in connective tissue from training?

A
  • Growth and structural changes that can lead to increased tendon stiffness
  • Tendon stiffness is directly associated with muscular recoil and power production
123
Q

Describe Catabolism, Anabolism, and Metabolism.

A

Catabolism (Breakdown): Breaking down of molecules in order to make energy available to the organism

Anabolism (Build up): The process of restructuring or rebuilding larger compounds from catabolized materials such as assembling amino acids into structural proteins like skeletal muscle

Metabolism (Maintenance): The sum total of all chemical processes within a cell for maintenance of life.

124
Q

What is the difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?

A

Exergonic (Energy-Releasing): Release energy from the system; Energy can then be used. Catabolic

Endergonic (Energy-Requiring): Requires energy input to build new molecules or structures. Anabolic.

125
Q

What is the definition of mechanical advantage in biomechanics?

A

Mechanical advantage is the ratio of the moment arm of the muscle to the moment arm of the resistance, which determines the efficiency of force production in a lever system.

126
Q

How do you calculate mechanical advantage for a lever system?

A

Mechanical advantage = Moment arm of the muscle / Moment arm of the resistance.

127
Q

Why is understanding mechanical advantage important in strength training and conditioning?

A

Understanding mechanical advantage helps in analyzing the effectiveness of different exercises and the load they place on muscles, allowing for more efficient training program design.

128
Q

Calculate the mechanical advantage of a bicep with a moment arm of 3 cm and a moment arm of resistance of 30 cm.

A

The mechanical advantage is 0.1 (3 cm / 30 cm).

129
Q

Calculate the mechanical advantage of a tricep with a moment arm of 3 cm and a moment arm of resistance of 35 cm.

A

The mechanical advantage is 0.086 (3 cm / 35 cm).

130
Q

What does a lower mechanical advantage imply about the force required by a muscle during an exercise?

A

A lower mechanical advantage means the muscle must exert more force to overcome resistance, making the exercise more challenging.

131
Q

In exercise science, why is the length of the moment arm of resistance important?

A

The length of the moment arm of resistance affects the torque and the amount of force the muscle needs to exert to move a weight, influencing exercise difficulty and muscle activation.

132
Q

How does the mechanical advantage change if the moment arm of the muscle increases while the moment arm of the resistance remains the same?

A

The mechanical advantage increases, making the movement easier because the muscle needs less force to overcome the resistance.

133
Q

Why might an exercise professional alter the moment arms in an exercise?

A

To manipulate the difficulty of the exercise and target specific muscles more effectively, optimizing training outcomes for strength, endurance, or hypertrophy.

134
Q

What are the 4 shoulder rotator cuff muscles?

A
135
Q

What 3 things result from the breaking of ATP during ATP hydrolysis?

A

1: Energy

2: Hydrogen Ion (Metabolic Acidosis)

3: ADP

136
Q

What are ATPase’s? What are the 4 types?

A

ATPases are enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate, releasing energy that the cell can use for various processes.

Myosin ATPase: Found in muscle cells, myosin ATPase catalyzes ATP hydrolysis and provides the energy required for the contraction of the muscle at the sarcomere level for “cross-bridge recycling”

Calcium ATPase: an enzyme that provides energy used to regulate the movement of calcium by pumping it into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Sodium-Potassium ATPase: Controls the sodium-potassium concentration in the sarcolemma which is essential for various cellular processes like nerve impulse transmission and muscle contraction

137
Q
A

CSCS Flashcards (Custom) (7 decks)

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