Science Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 parts of a scientific argument?

A

1) Identify the problem. 2) Ask questions. 3) Formulate a hypothesis. 4) Data collection & experimentation. 5) Analysis. 6) Conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is involved in the data collection of a scientific argument?

A

Observation, measurement, samples, and organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is involved in the experimentation portion of a scientific argument?

A

Comparing a control group and an experimental group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should the conclusion of a scientific argument support?

A

The hypothesis based on data collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

A method whereby conclusions follow from general principles; leads to a specific conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

A method of arriving at general principles from specific facts; Relies heavily on a preponderance of info that leads to a certain degree of confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define “Anatomy”

A

The study of the structure of organs and body systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define “Physiology”

A

The study of the function of the organs and body systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Hierarchy of the structure of the human body (from bottom to top)?

A

Atoms, Molecules, Cells, Tissues, Organs, Organ Systems, & Organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define “Atoms”

A

The smallest parts of elements that still retain all the original properties of the element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do atoms combine to form?

A

Molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define “Cells”

A

The basic unit of all life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When cells combine what do they form?

A

When cells combine in terms of function and type they form tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define “Organs”

A

Two or more tissue types working together to perform a specific function; Able to complete extremely complex functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define “Organ System”

A

Organs working together to perform a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many organ systems are in the human body

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the 11 organ systems in the human body

A

Circulatory, Digestive, Endocrine, Integumentary, Lymphatic, Muscular, Nervous, Reproductive, Respiratory, Skeletal, & Urinary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define “Organism”

A

Result of all organ systems working together within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the highest level of organization in the human body?

A

Organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 4 basic tissue types in humans?

A

Epithelial, Connective, Muscular, & Nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 functions of epithelial tissue in the human body?

A

Provide covering (such as skin tissue) & produce secretions (such as glandular tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 2 ways epithelial tissues are classified?

A

Number of cell layers and cell shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe simple epithelium tissue

A

Contains one layer of cells; Found in body structures where absorption, secretion, and filtration occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe stratified epithelium tissue

A

Has more than one layer of cells; Serves as protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 shapes of epithelial cells?

A

Squamous, Cuboidal, & Columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does epithelial tissue have its own blood supply?

A

No, its dependent on diffusion from the nearby capillaries for food and oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is connective tissue found?

A

Throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the function of connective tissue?

A

Serves to connect different structures of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Does connective tissue have its own blood supply?

A

Commonly it has its own blood supply; however not in some types, such as ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 4 types of connective tissue?

A

Bone, Cartilage, Adipose (fat), & Blood vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is muscle tissue dedicated to?

A

Producing movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal, Cardiac, & Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of movement is supported by the skeletal muscle?

A

Voluntary movement since it is connected to bones in the skeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define “Voluntary Movement”

A

Movement that is consciously controlled by the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of control is smooth muscle under?

A

Involuntary control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define “involuntary control” in terms of smooth muscle

A

Can’t be consciously controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is smooth muscle located in the body?

A

In the walls of hollow organs, such as intestines, blood vessels, bladder, and uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of movement does cardiac muscle tissue have?

A

Involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is cardiac muscle tissue located?

A

Found only in the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does nervous tissue provide structure for?

A

The brain, spinal cord, and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are nerves made up of and what is their function?

A

Made up of specialized cells called neurons that send electrical impulses throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the function of support cells, such as myelin?

A

Help protect nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define “taxonomy”

A

Classification of organisms into universally accepted taxons; Names reflect the organism’s evolutionary heritage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define “binomial nomenclature”

A

Two-word naming system that includes the universally accepted genus and species of each organism, developed by Carolus Linnaeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

List the hierarchy of the biological classification system from (bottom to top)

A

Species - Genus - Family - Order - Class - Phylum - Kingdom - Domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define “Natural Selection”

A

“Survival of the fittest” Process in which individuals of a species carrying certain mutations are better able to survive & reproduce in their natural environment than other members of the species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define “Adaptation”

A

Increase from generation to generation of alleles of genes that allows a species to survive in their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or False: The action of natural selection is due to the presence of mutations in DNA that are passed on from generation to generation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define a prokaryotic cell

A

Single-celled organism lacking defined cellular organelles or a nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define “Eukarya”

A

Organism that contains cellular organelles; Organism that has cells that contain nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of organisms are protists, plants, fungi, & animals?

A

Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What parts and organelles make up a prokaryotic cell?

A

Bacterial flagellum, cell wall, capsule, nucleoid (circular DNA), ribosomes, plasmid, pili, cytoplasm, & plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define “cell wall”

A

Outside, rigid layer that helps separate the inside and outside of both prokaryotic and plant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define “flagella”

A

Long, whip-like structures that project outward from the cell used for cellular movement in certain prokaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define “nucleoid”

A

Condensed DNA of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Define “ribosomes”

A

Organelle responsible for synthesizing protein within the cell from amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define “ plasmids”

A

Small circular portions of DNA not associated with the nucleoid; Contain a small number of genes compared to the DNA in the nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Define “Cytoplasm”

A

Rich protein fluid with gel-like consistency that houses organelles; Inner layer of prokaryotic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define “plasma membrane”

A

Located inside the cell wall in a prokaryotic cell; It is semipermeable, allowing certain substances in and out of the cell as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which type of cell is Bacteria (both Eubacteria & Archaebacteria)?

A

Prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What has the most basic type of cells that can exist independently of other cells?

A

Bacteria (both Eubacteria & Archaebacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define “organelles”

A

“tiny organs”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the function of the nucleoid within a prokaryotic cell?

A

It contains genes & the genetic blueprints for the formation of proteins that make up the machinery of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe RNA

A

Copied from the DNA to take the instructions from the nucleoid to the rest of the cell; Chemically similar to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where are the ribosomes located within a prokaryotic cell?

A

They are very small bodies that are free-floating within the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the function of ribosomes within a cell?

A

Manufacture proteins for the cell from the RNA messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does most of the work within cells?

A

Proteins, which are manufactured by ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Define “Pili”

A

Allow communication and transfer of info between 2 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What has eukaryotic cells?

A

Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which cells are more complex, prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

Eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which cells are larger, prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

Eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Do eukaryotic cells live as single cells?

A

Yes but many exist as part of a larger complex of cells comprising a multicellular organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the plasma membrane in a eukaryotic cell

A

A semipermeable membrane that envelops the cell and allows certain substances and water in and out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe the cytoplasm in a eukaryotic cell

A

Inside the cell, contains the cell contents and the organelles and is gel-like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Do ribosomes function the same in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Define “Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)”

A

A tubular transport network within the eukaryotic cell; Appears as a stack of flattened membranous sacs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 2 types of Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)?

A

Smooth & Rough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the function of Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)?

A

Moving proteins from one part of a cell to another and for moving proteins to the outside of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Define “Secretion”

A

Process of moving proteins outside of the eukaryotic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Describe Rough ER

A

Studded with ribosomes causing it to have a rough, gritty appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe Smooth ER

A

Not studded with ribosomes and is important for numerous metabolic processes in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Define “Golgi Apparatus”

A

Composed of layers of membranes and is involved in the packaging and transport of proteins in the cell, including protein secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the function of the golgi apparatus?

A

It refines proteins that have been manufactured by the ribosomes; It sorts the proteins & prepares them for transport to other parts of the cell or to the cell membrane for secretion; It works hand in hand with the ER in protein mvmt & processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Define “vesicles” in terms of a cell

A

Small membrane-bounded sacs within the cytoplasm that are used to transport proteins or other substances in or out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the 3 common types of vesicles within a cell?

A

Vacuole, Lysosome, & Peroxisome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Define “Vacuole”

A

A basic storage unit of the cell that can hold various compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Define “Lysosome”

A

Contains digestive enzymes that are capable of disposing of cellular debris and worn cellular parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Define “Peroxisome”

A

Functions to rid the body of toxic components, such as hydrogen peroxide and are also major sites of oxygen use and energy production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why does the liver contain so many peroxisomes?

A

Toxic substances build up in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Describe the Mitochondria

A

Powerhouse of the cell; Where ATP is produced; Large, kidney-bean shaped organelle surrounded by membranes; Cristae located inside that have enzymes on them that help convert sugar into ATP to power the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Define “Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)”

A

Cellular fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Define “Cristae (singular: crista)”

A

Series of folds formed by the inner membrane of a mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Define “Microtubules”

A

Cellular tracks that, during mitosis, form the mitotic spindle which help organiz and segregate the chromosomes during cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Define “Centrosomes”

A

Microtubule-organizing centers that help to form and organize the mitotic spindle during mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Define “Nucleus”

A

Control center of the entire cell b/c it contains the cell’s genetic material and directs all of the activities of the cell. It’s a very large organelle in the central portion of the cell that is enclosed by a double membrane w/ pores in it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Define “Nucleolus”

A

A small body within the nucleus that functions to produce ribosomes that get moved to the cytoplasm to make cell proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How do eukaryotic cells move?

A

They have either flagella/flagellum (whip-like projections) or cilia (more than a few projections). These structures can beat w/ movements that allow the cells to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Plant cells contain many of the same features as what other cell type?

A

Eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Define “Chloroplasts”

A

Organelles that contain chlorophyll; Have many structural similarities to mitochondria, but plant cells need both mitochondria and chloroplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Define “Chorophyll”

A

Allows the capture of sunlight to be used for production of glucose during photosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How do vacuoles differ in plant cells vs. eukaryotic cells?

A

The vacuoles are much larger (that contain water); The cells use the water in the vacuoles to maintain proper cell pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Describe the cell wall in a plant cell

A

Solid cell wall that acts as a barrier to the outside and gives structure to the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Describe the structure of the most basic of cell types, the prokaryotic cell

A

The nucleoid contains the DNA, the cytoplasm contains the ribosomes and plasmid, and the surface is layered first by the plasma membrane, then the cell wall, and finally the capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Describe the structure of the more complex cell, eukaryotic cell

A

The nuclear membrane encases the nucleus (which contains the DNA); The cytoplasm surrounds the ER, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, vacuoles, and lysosomes; and the surface is a cell membrane

105
Q

Describe the structure of a plant cell

A

Structurally similar to the eukaryotic cell; The 2 main differences btwn these 2 types of cells are that a plant cell has chloroplasts and a cell wall and a eukaryotic cell does not

106
Q

Explain the process of cell differentiation

A

Differentiation produces a more-specialized cell from a less-specialized cell. The genes of each cell regulate the process of differentiation during all stages of development. Determines what cell type each cell will become. Genes that control it direct each cell when to form the particular proteins and structures that make it a specific cell type. Occurs with cells in the developing embryo but can also occur in adults.

107
Q

Can cells divide and remain undifferentiated?

A

Yes

108
Q

How is an embryo formed?

A

A fertilized egg begins dividing and becomes a mass of cells called a zygote

109
Q

What is the most critical stage of development during cell differentiation?

A

Gastrulation, in which individual tissue layers begin to form

110
Q

Define “Embryo”

A

Early development of an animal or a plant after fertilization

111
Q

Define “Zygote”

A

Mass of cells formed after an egg is fertilized and begins dividing

112
Q

Define “Stem Cells”

A

Can divide and remain undifferentiated; Gives rise to a variety of more-specialized cells

113
Q

What are the 3 types of stem cells?

A

Totipotent, Pluripotent, & Multipotent

114
Q

Define “Matter”

A

Anything that takes up space and has mass

115
Q

Define “Mass”

A

Quantity of matter within an object

116
Q

Define “Element”

A

Substance that cannot be decomposed by ordinary chemical means; each chemical element is characterized by the # of protons in the nucleus

117
Q

Define “Proton”

A

Positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom

118
Q

Define “Atomic Number”

A

Number of protons in the nucleus of the chemical element; the number of protons that defines a specific atom

119
Q

Define “Neutrons”

A

Neutral subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom

120
Q

Define “Electrons”

A

Negatively charged subatomic particles found in various orbits around the nucleus

121
Q

Define “Chemical Reaction”

A

Dynamic event that alters the chemical makeup of a molecule; a process that chemically transforms a set of substances into another set

122
Q

Define “Ion”

A

Positively or negatively charged atom

123
Q

Define “Mass Number”

A

Total number of protons and neutrons found within the nucleus of an atom matter anything that takes up space and has mass

124
Q

Define “Atomic Mass”

A

Number of protons and neutrons within the nucleus of an atom; the average mass of all of the known isotopes of an element

125
Q

When is an atom said to be electrically neutral?

A

As long as the positive contribution (+1) from each proton in an atom is balanced by the negative contribution (-1) from each electron

126
Q

How are the elements arranged on the periodic table from left to right?

A

By an increasing number of electrons

127
Q

Define “Orbital Shell”

A

Arrangement of electrons within a specific region around the nucleus

128
Q

Define “Valence Electrons”

A

Electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

129
Q

Define “ionization energy or ionization potential” & how is it shown on the periodic table?

A

The energy required to completely remove an electron from a gaseous atom or ion; ionization energies increase moving from left to right across a period (decreasing atomic radii); ionization energy decreases moving down a group (increasing atomic radii)

130
Q

Define “electronegativity”

A

A measure of an atom’s attraction on electrons in a chemical bond; the greater the electronegativity of an atom, the greater its attraction for bonding electrons

131
Q

Do elements that have low ionization energies have a low or high electronegativity?

A

Low electronegativity b/c their nuclei do not exert strong attractive forces on electrons

132
Q

Do elements that have high ionization energies have high or low electronegativity?

A

High electronegativity due to the strong pull exerted on electrons by the nuclei

133
Q

How is electronegativity shown on the periodic table?

A

Within a group it decreases as atomic number increases; this is a result of increased distance btwn the valence electron and the nuclei (greater atomic radius)

134
Q

How are the rules of chemical bonding determined?

A

By an element’s location within a given row

135
Q

Define “chemical bonding”

A

The chemical merging of atoms due to their electron arrangements

136
Q

How are the chemical bonding rules shown on the periodic table?

A

A transition btwn metals and nonmetals exist from left to right within each row

137
Q

Define “metals”

A

Elements that donate highly conductive electrons to their environment

138
Q

What happens when each shell becomes filled (or row on the periodic table becomes completed)?

A

A new shell (or new row) becomes necessary to accommodate elements of higher periods

139
Q

What are the elements called that have properties btwn metals and nonmetals?

A

Metalloids, which are found next to the stairstep line on the periodic table, are considered to have transitional properties btwn metals and nonmetals

140
Q

How are elements displayed on the periodic table that have similar chemical properties due to having a similar arrangement of outer shell electrons?

A

In columns (or families)

141
Q

Which elements on the periodic table are electronically stable (resistant to bonding)?

A

The noble gases (eighth column); due to their full outer shells

142
Q

Regarding physical patterns at standard temperature and pressure, the elements are in the periodic table are dominated by what state?

A

The solid state as their natural forms

143
Q

How many elements on the right-hand side of the periodic table are identified as gases?

A

10 elements

144
Q

How many elements on the right-hand side of the periodic table are identified as liquids?

A

2 (mercury and bromine)

145
Q

What is recognized as the standard of neutrality btwn acids and bases b/c it has a pH value of 7.0?

A

Pure H2) at 25 deg Celcius

146
Q

What is the pH of battery acid?

A

pH below 1

147
Q

What is the pH of gastric juice?

A

pH about 2

148
Q

What is the pH of orange juice?

A

pH between 3 and 4

149
Q

What is the pH of milk?

A

pH about 6.5

150
Q

What is the pH of blood?

A

pH between 7.34 and 7.45

151
Q

What is the pH of hand soap?

A

pH between 9 and 10

152
Q

What is the pH of bleach?

A

pH about 12.5

153
Q

What is the calculation of pH based on?

A

The activity (aH) of hydrogen ions (H+) dissolved in solution

154
Q

What is the pH range of numbers based on?

A

Logarithmic scale: pH = -log (aH); the negative sign in the formula means that aH must be less than 1

155
Q

Define “pH indicator”

A

Chemical detector of hydrogen ions to visually determine acidity (color change)

156
Q

What is an example of a pH indicator?

A

Litmus paper

157
Q

What color does litmus paper, a pH indicator, change to for acidic solutions?

A

Red

158
Q

What color does litmus paper, a pH indicator, change to for basic solutions?

A

Blue

159
Q

If the pH of a solution is 9.0, what is the H+ and OH- values?

A

H+ is 10-9 & OH- is 10-5 (-# is an exponent)

160
Q

What is the pH value when the OH- value is 10-1?

A

pH is 13.0

161
Q

What is the pH value if the H+ value is 10-9?

A

pH is 9.0

162
Q

Define “ionic bonds”

A

The electrical attraction between ions of opposite charges

163
Q

Define “covalent bonds”

A

Sharing of electrons between atoms

164
Q

What are molecules called when they use both ionic and covalent bonding methods?

A

Hydrocarbons

165
Q

Name 3 hydrocarbon molecules

A

Methane, Propane, and Butane; they all bond to hydrogen and carbon atoms

166
Q

What 2 categories are hydrocarbons generally subdivided into?

A

Saturated and unsaturated

167
Q

Describe saturated hydrocarbons

A

Also known as alkanes; are the most basic structure of the hydrocarbons; composed entirely of single bonds and are saturated (carbon is completely connected) with hydrogen; formula is CnH2n+2, where n is a whole # greater than or equal to 1; the basis of petroleum fuels

168
Q

How many bonds does saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) have?

A

Single

169
Q

How many bonds does unsaturated hydrocarbons have?

A

One or more double or triple bonds between carbon atoms

170
Q

Define “alkane”

A

Hydrocarbon with only single bonds (CnH2n+2)

171
Q

Define “alkene”

A

Hydrocarbon with one double bond (CnH2n)

172
Q

Define “alkyne”

A

Hydrocarbon with one triple bond (CnH2n-2)

173
Q

What do unsaturated hydrocarbons permit the attachment of?

A

Other atoms to the unbonded carbon atoms within the molecule

174
Q

A given formula may possess two or more molecular structures known as what?

A

Isomers

175
Q

The basis of organic chemistry is connected with the study of what?

A

Hydrocarbon structure

176
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 1 carbon atom?

A

Alkane = Methane

177
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 2 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Ethane; Alkene = Ethene; Alkyne = Ethyne

178
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 3 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Propane; Alkene = Propene; Alkyne = Propyne

179
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 4 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Butane Isobutane; Alkene = Butene; Alkyne = Butyne

180
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 5 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Pentane Isopentane; Alkene = Pentene; Alkyne = Pentyne

181
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 6 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Hexane; Alkene = Hexene; Alkyne = Hexyne

182
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 7 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Heptane; Alkene = Heptene; Alkyne = Heptyne

183
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 8 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Octane; Alkene = Octene; Alkyne = Octyne

184
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 9 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Nonane; Alkene = Nonene; Alkyne = Nonyne

185
Q

What is the name of the simple hydrocarbon with 10 carbon atoms?

A

Alkane = Decane; Alkene = Decene; Alkyne = Decyne

186
Q

Define “metalloids”

A

Elements that may accept or donate electrons readily, and possess a mixture of metallic and nonmetallic properties

187
Q

A metallic ion tends to be what type of ion, cation or anion?

A

Cation, or positive ion

188
Q

A nonmetallic ion tends to be what, cation or anion?

A

Anion, or negative ion

189
Q

How do ionic bonds complete one another?

A

By the donation and acceptance of electrons to form stable outer electron shells

190
Q

Covalent bonding is greatest between atoms of similar what?

A

Electronegativities, or similar attractions for electrons; often results btwn atoms on the same side of the periodic table

191
Q

Define “Lewis structures”

A

Symbolic representation of covalent bonding btwn atoms; Atoms are symbolically shown and surrounded by dots that represent each of the valence shell electrons; Dots are arranged such that the molecule is shown to have the atoms in the most completely filled shell configuration of paired electrons

192
Q

Define “products” in chemical reactions

A

Substances formed as the result of chemical reactions; located on the right side of the reaction sign

193
Q

Define “reactants” in chemical reactions

A

Substances consumed or altered in a chemical reaction; on the left side of the reaction sign (->) are substances consumed or altered in the chemical reaction

194
Q

What is the goal of balancing a chemical equation?

A

To make certain that there are equal numbers of each atom on the reactant side and the product side

195
Q

Define “oxidation”

A

Electron donation by a chemical group that leaves that group with one less electron and a more positive charge

196
Q

Define “reduction”

A

Electron acceptance by a chemical that produces a more negative charge on the group

197
Q

Define “metabolism” in terms of a chemical reaction

A

Chemical reactions in living organisms used to maintain life

198
Q

List some examples of oxidation-reduction reactions

A

Combustion, photosynthesis, and metabolism

199
Q

Acids and bases don’t generally undergo oxidation and reduction, what does their reaction produce?

A

Water and salts, which act to neutralize the pH; acid+ + base- –> salt + water

200
Q

True or False: pH neutralization is an important oxidation-reduction reaction.

A

False; pH neutralization is an important acid-base reaction

201
Q

True or False: Metabolism is an important oxidation-reduction reaction.

A

True

202
Q

True or False: Combustion is an important acid-base reaction.

A

False. Combustion is an important oxidation-reduction reaction

203
Q

True or False: Photosynthesis is an important acid-base reaction.

A

False. Photosynthesis is an important oxidation-reduction reaction

204
Q

Water is considered what type of molecule?

A

A polar molecule of hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O), with oxygen possessing the high electronegativity

205
Q

Define “polar molecule”

A

A molecule that possesses both positive and negative atomic structure

206
Q

Define “electrolysis”

A

Use of electric current to drive the breakdown of a molecule

207
Q

When does water reach its maximum density?

A

4 degrees Celcius

208
Q

Define “density”

A

The ratio of mass per volume for a substance

209
Q

Define “Celsius”

A

A metric temperature scale that is defined (at standard pressure) by the melting point of ice (0 deg C) and the boiling point of liquid water (100 deg C)

210
Q

At 4 deg C water is considered a standard value of 1 g/mL, what does this unique property mean?

A

Ice is less dense than liquid water; therefore, it floats

211
Q

What does the boiling point of water depend on?

A

Pressure

212
Q

Define “Kelvin”

A

A metric temperature scale defined by an absolute zero reference point (0 K = -273 deg C)

213
Q

Define “triple-point of water”

A

The temperature and pressure at which water will coexist as a solid, liquid, and gas (273.16 = 0.01 deg C)

214
Q

Define “heat of vaporization”

A

The amount of heat necessary to cause a phase transition btwn a liquid and a gas

215
Q

True or False: Water serves as the standard for pH and has a value of 6.

A

False. Water serves as the standard for pH and has a value of 7

216
Q

True or False: Water is used as the standard density at 4 deg. C

A

True

217
Q

True or False: Water has the standard electronegative value on the periodic table.

A

False. No standard for water exists with respect to electronegativity values

218
Q

True or False: The Kelvin temperature scale is based on water’s triple-point.

A

True

219
Q

The liquid to gas transition, through evaporation or vaporization, requires what?

A

An addition of heat

220
Q

The gas to liquid transition, through condensation, requires what?

A

A subtraction of heat

221
Q

How is evaporation of a liquid achieved?

A

Due to the high heat, low humidity, and fast movement of the surrounding air mass

222
Q

How does evaporation occur?

A

By physical collisions at the surface layer of a liquid, and it acts to remove the faster-moving liquid molecules, thereby removing the more energetic atoms from the liquid; this results in a cooler system

223
Q

Define “phase transition”

A

An alteration of the physical state btwn a solid, liquid, and gas

224
Q

How does vaporization occur?

A

Through a phase transition from a liquid to a gas by breaking the physical bonds within the liquid

225
Q

The amount of heat of vaporization (H) necessary for this phase transition depends on what?

A

The mass (M) and the latent heat (L), or heat per mass needed for a phase change at a constant temp, of the atom; as long as this amount of heat (H) is continually added to the liquid at the boiling point, a hybrid state of liquid and gas will exist until only the gas state remains

226
Q

How does condensation occur?

A

Through a phase transition from a gas to a liquid by creating physical bonds within the gas

227
Q

The amount of heat of vaporization (H) necessary for this phase transition requires what?

A

A removal of heat; as long as this amount of heat (H) is continually removed from the gas at the boiling point, a hybrid state of liquid and gas will exist until only the liquid state remains

228
Q

What is the formula for vaporization?

A

H = M x L

229
Q

What is the formula for condensation?

A

H = -M x L

230
Q

Defense of Scientific Arguments

A

Largely dependent on the strength of the data & its analysis; Gains merit after it has been reviewed by experts in the field of science; Over time an argument may lose merit; During the review process any subjective bias (intentional or not) found within the argument must be removed; Is subject to repeatability & if results can’t be duplicated, then it loses it credibility; Highest confidence comes with the test of time

231
Q

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

A

A molecule that exists as a double-stranded helix made from sugars, phosphates, and nitrogenous bases

232
Q

RNA (ribonucleic acid)

A

Single-stranded molecule made from sugars, phosphates, and nitrogenous bases; required for the transfer and translation of the DNA code within a cell

233
Q

Nucleic acids

A

Chain of nucleotides; job is to store and transmit hereditary info

234
Q

Nucleotide

A

Molecule that consists of a pentose, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base

235
Q

Nitrogenous base

A

Molecule found in DNA and RNA that encodes the genetic information in cells

236
Q

Pentose

A

Type of sugar

237
Q

Phosphate group

A

Molecule in the backbone of DNA and RNA that links adjoining bases together

238
Q

Purine

A

Nitrogenous base with two rings (adenine and guanine)

239
Q

Pyrimidines

A

Nitrogenous base with one ring (thymine, cytosine, uracil)

240
Q

What are the 5 types of nitrogenous bases?

A

Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine, and uracil

241
Q

Which nitrogenous bases are in both DNA and RNA?

A

Adenine, cytosine, and guanine

242
Q

Which nitrogenous base is unique to DNA?

A

Thymine

243
Q

Which nitrogenous base is unique to RNA?

A

Uracil

244
Q

How is the DNA double helix formed?

A

Weak bonds are able to form btwn the hydrogen atoms and oxygen or nitrogen atoms btwn bases in the complementary strands of DNA; This kind of weak bond is called a hydrogen bond b/c one partner in the bond is always a hydrogen atom

245
Q

In DNA, what does adenine (A) always pair with?

A

thymine (T)

246
Q

In DNA, guanine (G) always pairs with?

A

cytosine (C)

247
Q

Which nitrogenous bases are classified as purines?

A

adenine and guanine b/c they have two rings

248
Q

Which nitrogenous bases are classified as pyrimidines?

A

thymine and cytosine b/c the only have one ring

249
Q

What is used as the pyrimidine base for RNA?

A

uracil

250
Q

What is used as the pyrimidine base for DNA?

A

thymine

251
Q

Explain the differences between DNA and RNA

A

Pyrimidine bases; Fundamental diff btwn the two nucleic acids of DNA and RNA is their pentose component, which is deoxyribose in DNA & ribose in RNA

252
Q

What do both of the nucleic acids (DNA & RNA) include?

A

The elements of hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon, and phosphorus

253
Q

Describe how DNA, RNA, and ribosomes work hand in hand to produce the proteins necessary for life in cells

A

The message stored in the bases of DNA must be transferred to the ribsosomes to make proteins; Cells copy the instructions in the DNA into RNA (transcription) & send the messenger RNA to the ribosomes; Proteins are made by ribosomes from the info & sent out to the entire cell

254
Q

Translation

A

The process of protein production from messenger RNA

255
Q

Chromosomes

A

Condensed, single, very long strands of DNA double helix located in the nucleus of a cell and containing hundreds of genes

256
Q

Protein

A

Compound composed of a large number of amino acids joined in a particular type of chemical bond called a peptide bond; Consists of info derived from DNA and RNA; Plays a vital part in the body’s functioning

257
Q

What presides over protein production?

A

Chromosomes, genes, DNA, and RNA

258
Q

How does information flow within the cell?

A

From DNA to RNA to proteins