SCI Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common etiology from direct trauma for SCI?

a. Falls
b. Violent acts
c. MVA
d. Sports

A

MVA

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2
Q

Males are more likely to suffer from spinal cord injury (true/false)

A

true

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3
Q

What is the difference between the neurologic level vs the vertebral level?

A

the spinal cord level is higher than the vertebral body

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4
Q

If a patient’s vertebral body is injured at T9, what level could have the potential for peripheral nerve injury?

a. T7 and T8
b. T8 and T9
c. T9 and T10
d. T10 and T11

A

T10 and T11

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5
Q

Which vertebral section is the most vulnerable?

a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral

A

Cervical

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6
Q

A majority of injuries occur at which level?

a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral

A

Cervical

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7
Q

Which of the following is described: cord is compressed from osteophytes with damage to cord itself

a. Flexion injury with wedge fx
b. Stenosis and hyperextension
c. Flexion/rotation
d. Vertical compression

A

stenosis and hyperextension

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8
Q

With whiplash it is most common to result in which type of injury?

a. Flexion injury with wedge fx
b. Stenosis and hyperextension
c. Flexion/rotation
d. Vertical compression

A

stenosis and hyperextension

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9
Q

This type of injury occurs in a high-speed head on collision with rapid deceleration causing the head to flex forward forcefully

a. Flexion injury with wedge fx
b. Stenosis and hyperextension
c. Flexion/rotation
d. Vertical compression

A

flexion injury with wedge fx

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10
Q

Flexion/rotation injury often occurs in combination with

A

lateral flexion and shearing

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11
Q

This type of injury is when a vertical force presses down on head with enough force to break the vertebral body

a. Flexion injury with wedge fx
b. Stenosis and hyperextension
c. Flexion/rotation
d. Vertical compression

A

vertical compression

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12
Q

Extension injury is a distraction on the _ side

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Lateral
d. Medial

A

anterior

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13
Q

Thoracic region is more stable because of articulation with ribs and additional musculature that supports the thoracic region (true/false)

A

true

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14
Q

What are potential associated injuries with SCI?

A
Fractures
Pneumothorax or hemothorax 
TBI
Internal injuries to organs
Brachial plexus injury
PNI
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15
Q

Ascending tracts carry _ info from _ to _

A

Sensory

From periphery to CNS – brainstem/brain/cerebellum

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16
Q

Descending tracts carry _ info out of the _ and into _

A

Motor

CNS into tissues

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17
Q

What is the center of the spinal cord?

a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral

A

Cervical

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18
Q

Central cord syndrome shows more losses in _ region

A

cervical region

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19
Q

C1-C4 is testing the

a. Sensory level
b. Neck sensation
c. Neck muscles
d. Scalenes

A

sensory level

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20
Q

Testing the biceps and brachialis will test which nerve root?

a. C4
b. C5
c. C6
d. C7

A

C5

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21
Q

Testing the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis will test which nerve root?

a. C4
b. C5
c. C6
d. C7

A

C6

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22
Q

Testing the triceps will test which nerve root?

a. C5
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8

A

C7

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23
Q

Testing the flexor digitorum profundus and middle finger will test which nerve root?

a. C5
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8

A

C8

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24
Q

Testing the abductor digiti minimi will assess which nerve root?

a. C6
b. C7
c. C8
d. T1

A

T1

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25
If you are assessing the iliopsoas, which nerve root are you assessing? a. L1 b. L2 c. L3 d. L4
L2
26
Testing the quadriceps will identify which nerve root? a. L1 b. L2 c. L3 d. L4
L3
27
Testing the tibilias anterior will identify which nerve root? a. L2 b. L3 c. L4 d. L5
L4
28
Testing the extensor hallucis longus will identify which nerve root? a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. L6
L5
29
Testing the gastrocnemius, soleus will identify which nerve root? a. L5 b. S1 c. S2 d. S3
S1
30
Explain the somatotopic organization of the spinal cord
cervical is more centered, then thoracic then lumbar as it goes out and down the body
31
A complete SCI will have sensory or motor function? peripheral nerve involvement? flaccid or spastic?
no sensation or motor function below the lesion flaccid paralysis/paresis at level of injury especially if PN roots involved spastic paralysis below level of injury
32
Incomplete SCI will have
sensory function or motor function in sacral plexus
33
What level ASIA scale is being described: Complete: no sensory or motor function is preserved in S4-S5? a. ASIA A b. ASIA B c. ASIA C d. ASIA D
ASIA A
34
What level ASIA scale is described as: incomplete: sensory function is preserved below the neurological level and includes S4-S5? a. ASIA A b. ASIA B c. ASIA C d. ASIA D
ASIA B
35
What level ASIA scale is described as incomplete: motor function is preserved below the neurological level. more than half the key muscles below the neurological level are <3/5 strength? a. ASIA A b. ASIA B c. ASIA C d. ASIA D
ASIA C
36
Which of the following ASIA level's is: incomplete: motor function is preserved below the neurological level. at least half of the key muscles below the neurological level are >or equal to 3/5 strength? a. ASIA A b. ASIA B c. ASIA C d. ASIA D
ASIA D
37
Which of the following ASIA scores is described as: normal, sensory and motor function is normal a. ASIA B b. ASIA C c. ASIA D d. ASIA E
ASIA E
38
Which of the following clinical syndromes is described as the hemisection of spinal cord caused by penetrating or burst or flexion with rotation a. Anterior cord b. Central cord c. Brown-Sequard d. Cauda equina
Brown-Sequard
39
It is common to see a mix of loss from the same side and opposite side with Brown-Sequard syndrome (true/false)
true
40
Are patients with Brown-Sequard able to ambulate and function?
yes typically
41
What will patients with Brown-Sequard lose on the same side?
proprioception, vibratory sense, deep touch, discrimination
42
What will patients with Brown-Sequard lose on the contralateral side?
pain, temperature, crude touch
43
Which of the following SCI syndromes is described as anterior being most damaged, dorsal column is preserved? a. Anterior cord b. Central cord c. Brown-Sequard d. Cauda equina
Anterior Cord
44
What is preserved with sensory and motor function of an Anterior cord syndrome? a. no sensory or motor b. only motor c. some sensory d. sensory and very little or no motor
sensory and very little or no motor
45
Which of the following syndromes is a compressive force as the cord is squeezed around it compresses with the most damage to the center causing hemorrhage and swelling? a. Anterior cord b. Central cord c. Brown-Sequard d. Cauda equina
Central Cord
46
What is affected with the sensory and motor function of Central Cord Syndrome? a. sensory on one side b. motor on one side c. sensory and motor on both sides d. full preservation of both
sensory and motor on both sides | UE significant effect
47
Which of the following syndromes is caused by trauma and common due to disease process? a. Anterior cord b. Central cord c. Brown-Sequard d. Posterior cord
Posterior cord
48
Which of the following is primarily lost with Posterior Cord Syndrome? a. motor function b. sensory function c. both motor and sensory function d. neither
both motor and sensory function
49
Posterior cord syndrome patients are unable to discriminate between sharp and dull touch (true/false)
true
50
What syndrome is damage to the sacral cord and lumbar nerve roots? a. cauda equina b. posterior cord c. conus medularis d. central cord
conus medularis
51
What is lost with Conus Medularis?
flaccid paralysis | bowel and bladder loss of function
52
Which of the following is an injury to lumbar and sacral roots, just peripheral nerves lower than the spinal cord? a. cauda equina b. posterior cord c. conus medularis d. central cord
Cauda Equina
53
Cauda Equina losses function of bowel and bladder function (true/false)
true
54
The greatest recovery for Cauda Equina is in distal muscles (true/false)
false | greater recovery proximal less in distal
55
What is seen in function with spinal shock?
areflexia no sensation no motor function no automatic control
56
When does spinal shock typically begin to resolve?
48-72 hours
57
Impaired breathing and coughing is a | (primary or secondary) effect
primary
58
Spasticity is a (primary or secondary) effect
primary
59
Heterotropic ossification is a (primary or secondary) effect
primary
60
Voluntary motor paralysis is a (primary or secondary) effect
primary
61
Sensory impairment is a (primary or secondary) effect
primary
62
Autonomic dysfunction is a (primary or secondary) effect
primary
63
What are the secondary effects of impaired breathing and coughing?
atelectasis pneumonia respiratory insufficiency
64
If patients have a problem with mechanical ventilation, they can be taught
GPB
65
What are two treatments that can be done for patients with decreased chest expansion?
chest stretches | air shift
66
For decreased VC, which of the following should the patient learn to do? a. air shift and strengthening accessory muscles b. diaphragm strengthening and accessory muscles c. chest stretch and strengthening d. diaphragm strengthening, strengthening of accessory muscles and GPB
diaphragm strengthening, strengthening of accessory muscles and GPB
67
for decreased cough force, patients can
place hands across abdomen and press in to assist cough
68
What is paradoxical breathing?
the diaphragm moves in the opposite direction it should during inhalation
69
List the possible breathing and coughing secondary effects
``` decreased chest expansion decreased VC decreased cough force paradoxical breathing decreased diaphragm excursion upright ```
70
What are early signs of heterotrophic ossification?
decreased hip IR and flexion hip flexion with a bias to external rotation night fevers and warmth swelling
71
What are the goals of PT with heterotrophic ossification?
maintain ROM and AVOID vigorous stretching inflammation
72
What are options for treating spasticity
``` stretching ice strengthening/facilitation of antagonists positioning tone reducing techniques ```
73
What are the secondary effects of sensory impairment?
skin and circulatory changes + sensory loss + lack of movement = pressure ulcers
74
How should sensory impairment be managed?
skin care education and inspection positioning in bed and W/C cushions and mattresses pressure relief
75
How often should there be pressure relief in sitting vs supine?
every 30 minutes for sitting | every 2 hours for supine
76
Autonomic dysfunction is
altered genital function impaired thermo-regulation bradycardia hypotension, orthostatic hypotension
77
Deep vein thrombosis is a primary effect (true/false)
false
78
Virchow's triad is
alterations in normal blood flow injuries to vascular endothelium hypercoagulability
79
What are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis?
Virchow's traid, fracture, old age, obesity, diabetes, arterial vascular disease, history of previous thrombosis
80
Deep vein thrombosis is more common in a. hemiplegia b. paraplegic c. tetraplegia
tetraplegia
81
Onset of DVT is usually within a. 2 days b. 5 days c. 2 weeks d. 8 weeks
2 weeks
82
How can DVT be prevented?
pneumatic compression devices anticoagulants compression stockings
83
What are the symptoms of DVT?
red, warm, swollen
84
How is DVT treated?
bed rest for 48-72 hours medical management vena cava filter placement
85
This term is defined as a reflex that occurs due to noxious stimulus below the level of the injury
autonomic dysreflexia
86
Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in areas they can perceive a stimulus (true/false)
false
87
With autonomic dysreflexia it is important to NOT
NOT put in dependent position, elevated BP can lead to vascular problems
88
Early rehab after SCI includes
interdisciplinary team approach prevention of secondary complications prepare for full rehab early mobilization
89
What setting of rehab is involved with an emphasis on improving function, ordering equipment, family training, patient education, home, and school or work evaluation? a. inpatient b. outpatient
inpatient
90
What setting works on advanced transfers, gait and is 2-3/week? a. inpatient b. outpatient
outpatient
91
Which SCATS test is described as the foot in full plantarflexion then pull into DF with force and maintain DF force? a. flexor spasms b. extensors spasms c. clonus
clonus
92
Which of the following is a noxious pin prick into the arch with enough to be noxious but not enough to break skin? a. flexor spasms b. extensors spasms c. clonus
flexor spasm
93
A reaction of clonus is seen when there is
a contraction of the gastroc and a repeat if there is clonus
94
A positive reaction of flexor spasm is seen when
the leg withdrawls and pulls away
95
Which of the following is when the therapist places the hip and knee at 90 degrees flexion then rapidly extend to the mat quickly? a. flexor spasms b. extensors spasms c. clonus
extensors spasms
96
A positive reaction of extensor spasms is
a contraction of extensor muscles and a quick fall if spasticity
97
Identify which level typically has these outcomes: bed mobility is dependent transfers are dependent, verbalizes care, hydraulic lift mod I in W/C mobility, UE and trunk supports skin care dependent and dep to mod I for pressure relief ROM and exercise: dependent but verbalizes cough max assist, vent a. C1-C4 b. C5 c. C6 d. C7-C8
C1-C4
98
Identify which given level bed mobility - max A to dependent, verbalizes, 4-way adj hospital beds, loops transfers - max A to dep, verbalizes, hydraulic lift; swival bar and loops, sliding boar W/c mobility: mod I, P/W/C UE/trunk sup skin scare - dependent verbalizes, dependent to mod I for pressure relief ROM and exercise - dependent verbalizes, min A UE, lt weights and airsplints driving - mod I, highly specialized van cough - assisted a. C1-C4 b. C5 c. C6 d. C7-C8
C5
99
Identify the functional outcome level: sitting tolerance - 90 degrees, all day, W/C cushion bed mobility - min A to mod I, loops or E bed transfers - A to dep, verbalizes, sliding board, loops W/C mobility - mod I, P W/C skin care - A pressure relief - mod I ROM and exercise - min A, light weights, airsplints and loops driving - mod I, modified vehicle cough - A to self-A a. C1-C4 b. C5 c. C6 d. C7-C8
C6
100
``` Identify the functional outcome level: sitting tolerance - 90 degrees, all day W/C cushion bed mobility - mod I, loops transfers - mod I to A, sliding board W/C mobility - mod I, W/C P or manual skin care - min A to mod I mirror, cushion pressure relief - mod I ROM and exercise - min A, light weights, loops driving - mod I, modified vehicle cough - A to self A a. C1-C4 b. C5 c. C6 d. C7-C8 ```
C7-C8
101
Identify the following functional outcome level: sitting tolerance - 90 deg, all day, W/C cushion bed mobility - I transfers - mod I to I, sliding board W/C mobility - I, manual W/C skin care - mod I, mirror, cushion pressure relief - I ROM and exercise - mod I, variety of equip driving - mod I, hand controls cough - self A to WF ambulation - standing mod I, frame/stander a. C6 b. C7-C8 c. T1-T9 d. T10-L4
T1-T9
102
At what level is ambulation possible in the home? a. T1-T9 b. T10-L4 c. L3 d. L1-L2
L1-L2
103
At what level would you expect ambulation potential for limited community ambulation? a. T10-L4 b. L2 c. L3 d. L4
L3
104
At what level would you expect ambulation potential for community ambulation? a. L1 b. L2 c. L3 d. L4
L4
105
What orthotics can be used for level L3 ambulatory? a. KAFO, crutches, walker b. GR AFO, AFO, KAFO c. AFO and forearm crutches d. AFO and cane
Ground reaction AFOs, AFOs, or KAFOs
106
What orthotics can be used for L4 ambulatory? a. KAFO, crutches, walker b. GR AFO, AFOs, KAFO c. AFOs and forearm crutches d. AFOs and canes
AFOs and forearm crutches
107
What level is independent community ambulation common? a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. L5, S1, S2
L5, S1, S2
108
Passive ROM should be performed for
all joints not innervated
109
It is important to stretch long finger flexors (True/false)
False DONT stretch finger flexors
110
What HS length should be attained in a complete SCI? a. 90-100 b. 100-120 c. 110-120 d. 105-110
110-120
111
What is key with stretching the HS?
dont bend the back
112
Strengthening can be performed on muscles that are less than a 3+ (True/false)
True
113
What MMT level is needed to strengthen? a. 0/5 b. 1/5 c. 2/5 d. 3/5
1/5
114
What treatments can be done for spasticity?
medication, surgery, stretching, ice
115
What are 3 components of floor to wheelchair transfers?
hands and knees, crawling, kneeling
116
What are 3 components for ambulation from floor to standing?
Half kneel, push-up into hands and feet, standing balance
117
FEF can be used to improve
Cardiovascular fitness, muscle mass, skin protection, maintain ROM
118
Does the peripheral or central nerve injury have more potential for recovery?
Peripheral
119
if peripheral nerves are intact then _ is still present
reflexes
120
Brown Sequard is caused by what MOI?
penetrating burst flexion with rotation
121
Brown Squard have a low level of function (true/false)
false | will likely have a high level of function
122
What information do the dorsal columns carry?
proprioception vibration sense deep touch discriminative touch
123
What information does the anterolateral tract carry?
pain temperature crude touch
124
What information does the lateral corticospinal tract carry?
voluntary motor control
125
Consider what 2 things for prognosis of SCI?
level of injury | rate of return
126
What carry info to and from the brain? | gray or white matter?
white matter
127
(gray/white) matter are synaptic junctions between the nerves at the specific spinal level
gray matter
128
areas of partial preservation with complete SCI will be functional (true/false)
false
129
If flexion injury with wedge fracture is severe, what can happen to the vertebral bodies?
dislocation of vertebral bodies and severe spinal damage
130
flexion/rotation MOI can have _ _ dislocation
unilateral facet dislocation
131
with a vertical compression or burst fracture, what can enter the spinal cord and compress?
bony fragments
132
What tracts are lost with Brown Sequard syndrome?
dorsal column - ipsilateral lateral corticospinal - ipsilateral anterolateral - contralateral
133
What tracts are lost with Anterior Cord Syndrome?
anterolateral and lateral corticospinal - bilateral
134
What tracts are lost with Posterior Cord Syndrome?
dorsal column - bilateral | posterior lateral corticospinal - ipsilateral
135
What is the goal with ventilation?
max ventilatory ability | prevent pulmonary complications
136
What is described as elastic support that stretches across abdomen for continuous support tight to compress and lift it back up
abdominal binder
137
DVT is more common in UE or LE
LE
138
For spasticity management, strengthen the (antagonist/agonist)
antagonist
139
Autonomic dysreflexia starts with excessive (parasympathetic/sympathetic) response (below/above) lesion
sympathetic response | below lesion
140
What is the primary goal of ROM?
to prevent contractures
141
What is the difference between hyperextension and stenosis injury and extension injury?
hyperextension with osteophytes | extension without osteophytes
142
Muscles <3/5 are considered intact (true/false)
true