school slide Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is meiosis?

A

A type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in four haploid daughter cells.

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3
Q

How many nuclear divisions occur during meiosis?

A

Two nuclear divisions.

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4
Q

What is the chromosome number in daughter cells after meiosis?

A

Half of the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

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5
Q

What are the two stages of meiosis?

A
  • Meiosis I
  • Meiosis II
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6
Q

What is another name for Meiosis I?

A

Reductional Division

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7
Q

What is another name for Meiosis II?

A

Equational Division

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8
Q

What occurs during interphase before meiosis?

A

Cell growth and DNA replication.

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9
Q

What are the three phases of meiotic interphase?

A
  • G1 phase
  • S phase
  • G2 phase
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10
Q

What happens during the G1 phase?

A

Cell growth.

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11
Q

What occurs during the S phase?

A

DNA replication.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the G2 phase?

A

Preparation for meiosis.

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13
Q

What happens during Prophase I?

A

Homologous chromosomes pair up and crossing over occurs.

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14
Q

How long does Prophase I last compared to Prophase in mitosis?

A

It takes about 85 - 95 percent of the total time for meiosis.

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15
Q

What are the five substages of Prophase I?

A
  • Leptotene
  • Zygotene
  • Pachytene
  • Diplotene
  • Diakinesis
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16
Q

What occurs during the leptotene stage?

A

Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes.

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17
Q

What is synapsis?

A

The pairing of homologous chromosomes.

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18
Q

What is formed at the completion of the zygotene stage?

A

Bivalents.

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19
Q

What occurs during the pachytene stage?

A

Crossing over occurs.

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20
Q

What is a tetrad?

A

A group of four sister chromatids.

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21
Q

What happens during the diplotene stage?

A

DNA recombination is complete.

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22
Q

What is the significance of diakinesis?

A

Chromosomes become shorter and thicker due to condensation.

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23
Q

What occurs during Metaphase I?

A

All bivalents align at the metaphase plate.

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24
Q

What happens during Anaphase I?

A

Homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles.

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25
Q

What is the outcome of Telophase I?

A

Two distinct nuclei form around each set of chromosomes.

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26
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Division of the cytoplasm resulting in two haploid daughter cells.

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27
Q

What is interkinesis?

A

A phase similar to interphase between meiosis I and II.

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28
Q

List the important functions of meiosis.

A
  • Reduction of chromosome number
  • Genetic diversity
  • Formation of gametes
  • Maintenance of chromosome number
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29
Q

What does Meiosis II resemble?

A

A typical mitotic division.

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30
Q

What occurs during Prophase II?

A

The nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle apparatus forms.

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31
Q

What happens during Metaphase II?

A

Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.

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32
Q

What occurs during Anaphase II?

A

Sister chromatids are pulled apart and move toward opposite poles.

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33
Q

What is the result of Telophase II?

A

Nuclear membrane reforms around each set of chromosomes.

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34
Q

What is the outcome of cytokinesis in Meiosis II?

A

Four haploid daughter cells are formed.

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35
Q

What is the purpose of mitosis?

A

Growth, repair, and asexual reproduction.

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36
Q

What is the difference in the number of daughter cells produced by mitosis and meiosis?

A

Mitosis produces two daughter cells, meiosis produces four.

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37
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

The process by which gametes are produced.

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38
Q

What are the two types of gametogenesis?

A
  • Spermatogenesis
  • Oogenesis
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39
Q

Where does spermatogenesis occur?

A

In the testes.

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40
Q

What is the outcome of spermatogenesis?

A

Four viable sperm cells.

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41
Q

Where does oogenesis occur?

A

In the ovaries.

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42
Q

What is the outcome of oogenesis?

A

One viable ovum and three polar bodies.

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43
Q

What role do mitochondria play during meiosis?

A

They provide energy and are distributed to daughter cells.

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44
Q

What is mitochondrial inheritance?

A

The passing down of mitochondrial DNA exclusively from the mother.

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45
Q

What is the structure of mitochondrial DNA?

A

A small circular DNA molecule.

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46
Q

What can mutations in mitochondrial DNA lead to?

A

Mitochondrial diseases.

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47
Q

How is mitochondrial DNA used in genetics?

A

To trace maternal lineage and study evolution.

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48
Q

What are the four steps of natural selection?

A

Overproduction, Variation, Competition, Selection

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49
Q

Define convergent evolution.

A

Occurs when species of different ancestry share analogous traits due to similar environments or selection pressures.

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50
Q

What is divergent evolution?

A

An evolutionary pattern where two species gradually become increasingly different.

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51
Q

What is an example of divergent evolution?

A

The evolution of polar bears from a group of Brown bears that became geographically separated.

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52
Q

List the three types of evolution.

A
  • Divergent
  • Convergent
  • Parallel
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53
Q

What is microevolution?

A

Small scale changes within species that produce new varieties or species in a relatively short time.

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54
Q

What are the mechanisms of evolution?

A
  • Mutation
  • Gene flow
  • Genetic drift
  • Natural selection
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55
Q

What is speciation?

A

The process by which new species arise.

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56
Q

List the types of speciation.

A
  • Allopatric
  • Sympatric
  • Parapatric
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57
Q

What is macroevolution?

A

Large scale changes occurring over long periods, leading to new species formation.

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58
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The process where individuals better suited to their environment survive and reproduce.

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59
Q

True or False: Survival of the fittest means that only the strongest organisms survive.

A

False

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60
Q

What does ‘descent with modification’ imply?

A

Each living organism has descended, with changes, from other species over time.

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61
Q

Define parallel evolution.

A

Occurs when two species evolve independently while maintaining the same level of similarity.

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62
Q

What is adaptive radiation?

A

The evolution of many diversely adapted species from one ancestor.

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63
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?

A

States that allele frequency remains constant if a population is not evolving.

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64
Q

List the five assumptions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

A
  • No mutation
  • Random mating
  • No gene flow
  • Very large population size
  • No natural selection
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65
Q

What is artificial speciation?

A

The creation of new species by humans through laboratory experiments.

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66
Q

What is the fossil record?

A

Evidence of past life forms preserved in geological formations.

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67
Q

What are homologous structures?

A

Structures that develop from the same embryonic tissue but have different mature forms.

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68
Q

What is allopatric speciation?

A

Occurs when a physical barrier separates two groups of a species, preventing interbreeding.

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69
Q

What is peripatric speciation?

A

Similar to allopatric, but involves a small group breaking off from a larger population.

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70
Q

What is sympatric speciation?

A

Occurs without physical barriers, where new species develop in close proximity.

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71
Q

Give an example of sympathetic speciation.

A

The Midas cichlid in Lake Apoyo, which evolved to become a distinct species.

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72
Q

What is phylogenetics?

A

The study of evolutionary relationships among biological entities.

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73
Q

Why is molecular data important in phylogenetics?

A

It provides specific and rich information about evolutionary relationships.

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74
Q

List applications of phylogeny.

A
  • Classification
  • Forensics
  • Identifying the origin of pathogens
  • Conservation
  • Bioinformatics and computing
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75
Q

What did Thomas Malthus contribute to Darwin’s theory?

A

He proposed that population growth leads to competition for resources.

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76
Q

Who was Russell Wallace?

A

He wrote an essay summarizing evolutionary change that motivated Darwin to publish his findings.

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77
Q

What is the significance of vestigial organs?

A

They are remnants of organs that have lost their original function.

78
Q

What are some types of evidence for evolution?

A
  • Fossil record
  • Biogeography
  • Vestigial structures
  • Similarities in early development
  • Biochemical evidence
79
Q

What is the origin of the word ecology?

A

Derived from Greek words ‘Oikos’ meaning house and ‘Logos’ meaning to study.

80
Q

How is ecology defined?

A

The scientific study of the relationship of living organisms with each other and their environment.

81
Q

Who coined the term ecology and in what year?

A

Ernst Haeckel in 1869.

82
Q

What is autecology?

A

The study of an individual species of organisms and its population.

83
Q

What is synecology?

A

The study of communities, their composition, behavior, and relation with the environment.

84
Q

Fill in the blank: Aquatic ecology is the study of interaction of organisms in _______.

85
Q

What are the two main divisions of aquatic ecology?

A

Marine water ecology and Freshwater ecology.

86
Q

What does terrestrial ecology study?

A

The interaction of organisms on land surfaces.

87
Q

What is organism ecology?

A

The study of an individual organism’s behavior, morphology, and physiology in response to environmental challenges.

88
Q

What factors does population ecology examine?

A

Factors that alter and impact the genetic composition and size of the population.

89
Q

What is community ecology focused on?

A

How community structure is modified by interactions among living organisms.

90
Q

What does ecosystem ecology study?

A

The entire ecosystem, including living and non-living components and their relationships.

91
Q

What is landscape ecology concerned with?

A

The exchange of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystems.

92
Q

What does biosphere ecology study?

A

Interactions among Earth’s ecosystems, land, atmosphere, and oceans.

93
Q

What defines an ecosystem?

A

A biological community where living and non-living components interact.

94
Q

Name the two types of ecosystems.

A
  • Natural ecosystem
  • Artificial ecosystem
95
Q

What are the major components of an ecosystem?

A
  • Biotic components
  • Abiotic components
96
Q

What are biotic components?

A

Living organisms in an ecosystem, forming a community.

97
Q

What are producers in an ecosystem?

A

Organisms that make their own food, primarily plants.

98
Q

What role do consumers play in an ecosystem?

A

They get energy and nutrients by feeding on other organisms.

99
Q

What are decomposers?

A

Organisms that break down dead organic material to recycle nutrients.

100
Q

What are abiotic components?

A

Non-living chemical and physical components like water, air, and solar energy.

101
Q

What are climatic factors in an ecosystem?

A

Factors such as rain, temperature, light, and wind.

102
Q

What are edaphic factors?

A

Soil-related factors like pH, topography, and minerals.

103
Q

What three parts make up the biosphere?

A
  • Lithosphere
  • Atmosphere
  • Hydrosphere
104
Q

What is the lithosphere?

A

The terrestrial part of the biosphere, supporting a variety of life.

105
Q

What is the atmosphere?

A

The gaseous envelope surrounding Earth, also known as air.

106
Q

What is the hydrosphere?

A

The aquatic part of the biosphere, including oceans and rivers.

107
Q

Fill in the blank: The frozen part of Earth’s hydrosphere is called the _______.

A

cryosphere

108
Q

What is the focus of study of species interactions?

A

The community

A community consists of all the populations of all the species in the same area and their interactions.

109
Q

Define symbiosis.

A

A close relationship between two species in which at least one species benefits

The relationship can be positive, negative, or neutral for the other species.

110
Q

What are the three basic types of symbiosis?

A
  • Mutualism
  • Commensalism
  • Parasitism
111
Q

How does energy enter ecosystems?

A

In the form of sunlight or chemical compounds.

112
Q

What are producers and consumers in ecosystems?

A
  • Producers (autotrophs) make food using energy
  • Consumers (heterotrophs) obtain energy by eating producers.
113
Q

What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only change form.

114
Q

What do food chains and food webs represent?

A

Feeding relationships from producers to consumers to decomposers.

115
Q

What is a food chain?

A

A simple diagram that shows one way energy flows through an ecosystem.

116
Q

What percentage of energy typically passes to the next level in a food chain?

A

About ten percent.

117
Q

What happens to the energy that is lost at each level of a food chain?

A
  • Given off as heat
  • Goes into animal wastes
  • Goes into growing non-consumable parts like fur.
118
Q

What is a food web?

A

A representation of multiple pathways through which energy and matter flow through an ecosystem.

119
Q

What is a community in the context of an ecosystem?

A

The biotic part of an ecosystem, consisting of all populations of species in the same area.

120
Q

Define interdependence in ecology.

A

The reliance of living things on their environment and other organisms for survival.

121
Q

What is predation?

A

A relationship where members of one species (the predator) consume members of another species (the prey).

122
Q

What are the two types of competition?

A
  • Intraspecific competition
  • Interspecific competition
123
Q

What is intraspecific competition?

A

Competition between members of the same species.

124
Q

What is interspecific competition?

A

Competition between members of different species.

125
Q

What does the term symbiosis mean?

A

Living together.

126
Q

Define mutualism.

A

A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit.

127
Q

Provide an example of mutualism.

A

The relationship between goby fish and shrimp.

128
Q

Define commensalism.

A

A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits while the other is not affected.

129
Q

Provide an example of commensalism.

A

Mites attaching to larger flying insects for a ‘free ride’.

130
Q

What is parasitism?

A

A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits (the parasite) while the other is harmed (the host).

131
Q

Provide an example of a parasite.

A

Roundworms are parasites of mammals.

132
Q

What does heredity refer to?

A

The passing of traits or characteristics through genes from one generation to the next.

133
Q

What is genetics?

A

A branch of science that studies the DNA, genes, genetic variation, and heredity in living organisms.

134
Q

What is inheritance?

A

Acquiring characteristics or traits from one generation to the other.

135
Q

Who is known as the ‘Father of Genetics’?

A

Gregor Johann Mendel.

136
Q

What are Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance?

A

Law of Dominance, Law of Segregation, Law of Independent Assortment.

137
Q

What does the Law of Dominance state?

A

A gene has two contrasting alleles and one always expresses itself in the organism.

138
Q

What does the Law of Segregation state?

A

Traits get segregated completely during the formation of gametes without any mixing of alleles.

139
Q

What does the Law of Independent Assortment state?

A

Traits can segregate independently of different characters during gamete formation.

140
Q

Define traits.

A

Characteristic features of an organism, manifested in a physical form or physiological aspect.

141
Q

What is a gene?

A

The basic unit of inheritance, consisting of a sequence of DNA.

142
Q

What are alleles?

A

Alternative forms of genes affecting the same characteristics, located on the same chromosome.

143
Q

What are chromosomes?

A

Thread-like structures made of DNA and proteins that carry hereditary or genetic information.

144
Q

What is DNA?

A

A self-replicating material present in nearly all living organisms, serving as the main constituent of chromosomes.

145
Q

Define genotype.

A

The complete heritable genetic identity of an organism, including non-expressed alleles.

146
Q

Define phenotype.

A

The description of the actual physical characteristics of an organism.

147
Q

What are dominant alleles?

A

Alleles that affect the phenotype and are represented by capital letters.

148
Q

What are recessive traits?

A

Traits that are not expressed in the presence of a dominant allele.

149
Q

What is a homozygous organism?

A

An organism with two identical alleles for a gene.

150
Q

What is a heterozygous organism?

A

An organism with two different alleles for a gene.

151
Q

Fill in the blank: The traits acquired over an organism’s lifetime are termed as _______.

A

acquired characters.

152
Q

Fill in the blank: The traits inherited from parents are called _______.

A

inherited characters.

153
Q

What is a monohybrid cross?

A

A cross between two plants with one pair of contrasting characters.

154
Q

What is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross?

A

3:1 (3 tall: 1 short).

155
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

A cross between two plants with two pairs of contrasting characters.

156
Q

What is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross?

157
Q

What is sex determination?

A

The process of determining the sex of an individual based on genetic material.

158
Q

What are genetic variations?

A

Differences in DNA sequences among organisms that lead to a diverse gene pool.

159
Q

What is a congenital disorder?

A

Structural or functional anomalies that occur during intrauterine life.

160
Q

What does the human genome refer to?

A

All of the approximately three billion base pairs of DNA that make up the entire set of chromosomes of the human organism.

161
Q

Define evolution.

A

The theory in biology that postulates the origin of various types of living things through modifications in successive generations.

162
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The phenomenon where favorable traits in a population are selected for survival and reproduction.

163
Q

What is an endangered species?

A

Any species at risk of extinction due to a rapid decrease in population or loss of habitat.

164
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

A change in the frequency of an existing allele in a small population.

165
Q

What are fossils?

A

Preserved remains of ancient organisms that provide evidence for the theory of evolution.

166
Q

What is the biological process by which organisms give rise to their own kind?

A

Reproduction

Reproduction allows organisms to pass their traits to their offspring.

167
Q

What are the two main types of reproduction?

A
  • Asexual reproduction
  • Sexual reproduction
168
Q

What term describes reproduction that occurs with a single individual?

A

Asexual reproduction

169
Q

What is sexual reproduction?

A

A process where male gamete fuses with female gamete to create a new individual.

170
Q

Which organisms commonly reproduce asexually?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa
  • Some algae
171
Q

What is binary fission?

A

A type of asexual reproduction where a cell divides to form two individuals.

172
Q

In which organisms does budding occur?

A
  • Yeast
  • Hydra
  • Sponges
173
Q

What is spore formation?

A

A method of asexual reproduction where spores develop into new individuals.

174
Q

What is vegetative propagation?

A

A form of asexual reproduction in plants where new plants arise from vegetative parts.

175
Q

What is artificial propagation in plants?

A

Human methods to grow plants inspired by natural vegetative propagation.

176
Q

What is cloning?

A

Creating a genetic copy of the parent organism.

177
Q

What is the reproductive organ of flowering plants?

A

The flower

178
Q

What are stamens?

A

The male part of a flower that produces pollen.

179
Q

What is pollination?

A

The transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of a flower.

180
Q

Define self-pollination.

A

When pollen from a flower falls on its own stigma.

181
Q

What is cross-pollination?

A

Pollen from one flower fertilizes the ovule of another flower of the same species.

182
Q

What are the two main types of reproduction in animals?

A
  • Asexual reproduction
  • Sexual reproduction
183
Q

What is viviparous reproduction?

A

Reproduction where the baby develops inside the mother’s womb.

184
Q

What are hermaphrodites?

A

Organisms that possess both male and female sex organs.

185
Q

What is adolescence?

A

The stage of life when a person undergoes physical and hormonal changes leading to reproductive maturity.

186
Q

At what age does puberty typically begin in humans?

A

Around 10-11 years of age.

187
Q

What are the three types of changes experienced during adolescence?

A
  • Physical
  • Physiological
  • Psychological
188
Q

What are some psychological changes that occur during adolescence?

A
  • Capability of abstract thinking
  • Mood swings
  • Importance of self-image
  • Interest in friendships and romantic relationships
189
Q

True or False: Humans are viviparous.

190
Q

Fill in the blank: The period between birth and maturity is very short in _______.

191
Q

What is the importance of relationships during adolescence?

A

Building relationships based on equality, mutual respect, and love.