Evolution Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is the starting point of reproduction according to cell theory?

A

All living organisms are composed of one or more cells which originate from pre-existing cells by the process of cell division.

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3
Q

What are the main reasons for cell division?

A
  • Growth
  • Repair of old/dead cells
  • Reproduction
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4
Q

What is reproduction?

A

The process by which living organisms produce offspring of their own kind.

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5
Q

What are the two types of reproduction?

A
  • Asexual (involves only one parent)
  • Sexual (involves a combination of two parents)
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6
Q

What processes are involved in asexual reproduction?

A

Mitosis and cytokinesis.

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7
Q

What does mitosis accomplish?

A

The nucleus divides into two nuclei with identical genetic material.

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8
Q

List the importance of mitosis.

A
  • Growth & development
  • Asexual reproduction in some organisms
  • Cell repair & replacement
  • Copying & transfer of next generation nuclei/cells
  • Maintaining the regular number of chromosomes in somatic cells
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9
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

The process that completes cell division, separating the cytoplasm and organelles into two new daughter cells.

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10
Q

What are the two main parts of the cell cycle?

A
  • Interphase
  • Mitosis
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11
Q

What is interphase?

A

The preparatory stage that lasts from the end of one cell division to the beginning of the next.

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12
Q

What percentage of the cell cycle does interphase occupy?

A

About 90% of the time.

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13
Q

What occurs during the G1 phase of interphase?

A

The cell grows and prepares to replicate its DNA.

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14
Q

What happens during the S phase of interphase?

A

The chromosomes replicate, resulting in two identical copies called sister chromatids.

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15
Q

What occurs during the G2 phase of interphase?

A

Organelles and materials required for cell division are formed or replicated.

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16
Q

What are the five main phases of mitosis?

A
  • Prophase
  • Prometaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
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17
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

Sister chromatids become visible and the nuclear envelope breaks up.

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18
Q

What occurs during prometaphase?

A

Chromosomes gradually migrate to the center of the cell.

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19
Q

What is the arrangement of chromosomes during metaphase?

A

Chromosomes are lined up along the equatorial plate.

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20
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

Centromeres are pulled apart, causing sister chromatids to separate into two daughter chromosomes.

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21
Q

What marks the beginning of telophase?

A

Separated chromosomes reach the opposite poles of the cell.

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22
Q

What is the final stage of the cell cycle?

A

Cytokinesis.

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23
Q

How does cytokinesis differ in animal and plant cells?

A
  • Animal cells: cleavage furrow forms and deepens.
  • Plant cells: a cell plate forms to divide the cell.
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24
Q

What happens to cells that do not divide in adult animals?

A

They exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called the quiescent stage (G0).

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25
Q

What happens to cells in this stage?

A

Cells remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called upon to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

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26
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

Reproduction that occurs without the fusion of gametes, resulting in offspring that are genetically identical to the parent.

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27
Q

What is binary fission?

A

The simplest form of asexual reproduction where the parent cell divides into two equal daughter cells.

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28
Q

In which organisms does binary fission occur?

A

Unicellular organisms such as bacteria, algae, amoeba, and paramecium.

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29
Q

What is budding?

A

A form of asexual reproduction resulting in the formation of two unequal parts, where a smaller version of the parent detaches to become self-sufficient.

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30
Q

Which organisms reproduce by budding?

A

Hydra, yeast, sea sponge, and corals.

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31
Q

What is spore formation?

A

The production of specialized cells capable of germinating into new individuals identical to their parents.

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32
Q

How do spores differ from seeds?

A

Spores are produced by the division of cells on the parent, not by the union of two cells.

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33
Q

Examples of organisms that reproduce by spores include:

A
  • Fungi
  • Green algae
  • Ferns
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34
Q

What is vegetative reproduction?

A

A type of asexual reproduction in plants where offspring are produced from vegetative structures like roots, stems, and leaves.

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35
Q

What are the two types of vegetative reproduction?

A
  • Natural vegetative reproduction
  • Artificial vegetative reproduction
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36
Q

What methods are used in natural vegetative reproduction?

A
  • Bulbs
  • Corms
  • Tubers
  • Runners
  • Rhizomes
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37
Q

Examples of plants that undergo natural vegetative reproduction include:

A
  • Onions
  • Tulips
  • Lilies
  • Gladioli
  • Potatoes
  • Strawberries
  • Ginger
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38
Q

What is cutting in artificial vegetative reproduction?

A

Using a vegetative structure to create a new individual by cutting, treating with growth hormones, and planting.

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39
Q

What is layering in artificial vegetative reproduction?

A

Bending a stem over and covering it with soil to form a new plant, which is then cut from the parent.

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40
Q

What is grafting?

A

A technique where a stem or bud is cut from one plant and joined to another closely related plant.

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41
Q

In grafting, what are the terms for the root-producing part and the added piece?

A
  • Stock (root-producing part)
  • Scion (added piece)
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42
Q

What is regeneration?

A

The ability of an organism to regrow lost body parts.

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43
Q

Examples of organisms capable of regeneration include:

A
  • Starfish
  • Earthworms
  • Hydras
  • Planarians
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44
Q

What is parthenogenesis?

A

A form of asexual reproduction where a zygote is produced from an unfertilized egg.

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45
Q

In which organisms does parthenogenesis occur?

A
  • Invertebrates (e.g., scorpions, nematodes, mites)
  • Some vertebrates (e.g., amphibians, fish, reptiles, birds)
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46
Q

Which species of sharks have been observed to reproduce via parthenogenesis?

A
  • Blacktip shark
  • Bonnethead shark
  • Zebra shark
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47
Q

True or False: Parthenogenesis can occur in both animals and plants.

A

True

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48
Q

Parthenogenesis is also referred to as _______.

A

[virgin birth]

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49
Q

What are the two types of parthenogenesis?

A

Automixis parthenogenesis and apomixis parthenogenesis

Automixis involves the fusion of the egg cell with the polar body, while apomixis does not involve meiotic division.

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50
Q

In automixis parthenogenesis, what is the result of the egg cell fusing with the polar body?

A

An embryo with genes similar to the mother but not a full clone

This process can lead to the production of new alleles.

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51
Q

What type of offspring does automixis parthenogenesis produce?

A

Female offspring only

Rarely, it can produce fertile males with only one X chromosome.

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52
Q

What is the key characteristic of offspring produced by apomixis parthenogenesis?

A

They are full clones of the mother

This type is most commonly found in plants.

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53
Q

What is sexual reproduction?

A

A biological process that creates a new organism by combining the genetic material of two organisms

This process starts with meiosis.

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54
Q

What is the purpose of meiosis?

A

To ensure continuity & survival of organisms, increase genetic variation, and form gametes

It is also known as reduction division.

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55
Q

Where does meiosis occur in animals?

A

In the testis and ovaries

In plants, meiosis occurs in the anther and ovule.

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56
Q

What happens during interphase of germ cells?

A

The cell grows and diploid chromosomes replicate

This brings the total number of individual chromosomes (chromatid) to 92.

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57
Q

How many daughter cells are produced after meiosis I?

A

Two daughter cells

This occurs at telophase 1.

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58
Q

How many daughter cells are produced after meiosis II?

A

Four daughter cells

They have a haploid number of chromosomes.

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59
Q

What are gametes?

A

Specialized sex cells produced for sexual reproduction

They are formed by the combination of genetic material from two parent organisms.

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60
Q

What are the two types of gametes in anisogamous species?

A

Sperm (male) and ova (female)

Anisogamous species have different types of gametes.

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61
Q

In isogamous species, how do gametes differ?

A

They are similar or identical in form but may have separable properties

Examples include the green alga, Chlamydomonas reinhardtii.

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62
Q

At what age does puberty generally occur in females?

A

11 - 15 years

Influenced by factors such as nutrition and economic status.

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63
Q

At what age does puberty generally occur in males?

A

13 - 14 years

Influenced by similar factors as for females.

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64
Q

What are secondary sexual characteristics in males induced by?

A

Testosterone

Examples include a deeper voice and increased size of testes.

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65
Q

What is the function of the penis?

A

To deliver semen into the vagina during sexual intercourse

The urethra passes through the penis and allows urine and semen to exit the body.

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66
Q

What is the role of the scrotum?

A

To maintain the proper temperature of the testes

Sperm is destroyed unless a temperature of 34°C is maintained.

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67
Q

Where are gametes typically produced?

A

In gonads (ovaries & testes)

Germ cells are set aside early in development to produce only gametes.

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68
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

The production of gametes

Includes spermatogenesis and oogenesis

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69
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Each primary spermatocyte divides to form 4 sperm

Involves meiotic divisions

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70
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Each primary oocyte divides to form 1 ovum and 2-3 polar bodies

Cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis

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71
Q

What happens to polar bodies in oogenesis?

A

They degenerate

Polar bodies receive minimal cytoplasm

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72
Q

What are spermatogonia?

A

Diploid cells in the outermost layer of the seminiferous tubules

They develop into primary spermatocytes

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73
Q

What are secondary spermatocytes?

A

Cells formed after the first meiotic division of primary spermatocytes

They are haploid

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74
Q

What are spermatids?

A

Haploid cells formed when meiosis is complete

They mature into sperm

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75
Q

What is the vagina?

A

A tube leading from the uterus to the outside of the body

Also known as the birth canal

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76
Q

What is the cervix?

A

The lower portion of the uterus where the vagina and uterus meet

Plays a role in childbirth

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77
Q

What is the uterus?

A

A hollow, fist-sized organ located between the bladder and rectum

Responsible for nurturing the developing fetus

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78
Q

What are the fallopian tubes?

A

Two tubes connecting the uterus with the ovaries

Also called oviducts

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79
Q

What is the clitoris?

A

A small sensitive protrusion comparable to the penis in males

It can become erect and is very sensitive to stimulation

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80
Q

What is the usual pH of the vaginal environment?

A

Usually acidic

Can change due to medications, douches, or infections

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81
Q

What are the ovaries responsible for?

A

Production and release of eggs (ova)

Females are born with all the eggs they will ever produce

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82
Q

What is ovulation?

A

The release of ova from the ovaries

Occurs monthly

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83
Q

What is a simplex uterus?

A

Normal uterine structure

Abnormal forms include bicornuate or septate uterus

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84
Q

What are the two parts of the female reproductive cycle?

A

Uterine (menstrual) cycle and ovarian cycle

These cycles are integrated

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85
Q

What happens during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

The maturing follicle develops an internal fluid-filled cavity and grows large

Ends with ovulation

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86
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

The structure formed from the follicle after ovulation

Secretes estrogen and progesterone

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87
Q

What happens during the luteal phase?

A

The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone

Inhibits GnRH production in the hypothalamus

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88
Q

What triggers menstruation if the egg is not fertilized?

A

The disintegration of the corpus luteum and a drop in estrogen and progesterone

Leads to breakdown of the endometrium

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89
Q

What is menstruation?

A

The flow of blood and lining from the inside of the uterus

Typically lasts 3-7 days

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90
Q

Fill in the blank: The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle is coordinated with the ______ phase of the uterine cycle.

A

proliferative

Both phases occur simultaneously

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91
Q

True or False: The uterine cycle typically lasts 28 days.

A

True

One cycle is from the beginning of one period to the next

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92
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

The production of gametes

Includes spermatogenesis and oogenesis

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93
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Each primary spermatocyte divides to form 4 sperm

Involves meiotic divisions

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94
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Each primary oocyte divides to form 1 ovum and 2-3 polar bodies

Cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis

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95
Q

What happens to polar bodies in oogenesis?

A

They degenerate

Polar bodies receive minimal cytoplasm

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96
Q

What are spermatogonia?

A

Diploid cells in the outermost layer of the seminiferous tubules

They develop into primary spermatocytes

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97
Q

What are secondary spermatocytes?

A

Cells formed after the first meiotic division of primary spermatocytes

They are haploid

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98
Q

What are spermatids?

A

Haploid cells formed when meiosis is complete

They mature into sperm

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99
Q

What is the vagina?

A

A tube leading from the uterus to the outside of the body

Also known as the birth canal

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100
Q

What is the cervix?

A

The lower portion of the uterus where the vagina and uterus meet

Plays a role in childbirth

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101
Q

What is the uterus?

A

A hollow, fist-sized organ located between the bladder and rectum

Responsible for nurturing the developing fetus

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102
Q

What are the fallopian tubes?

A

Two tubes connecting the uterus with the ovaries

Also called oviducts

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103
Q

What is the clitoris?

A

A small sensitive protrusion comparable to the penis in males

It can become erect and is very sensitive to stimulation

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104
Q

What is the usual pH of the vaginal environment?

A

Usually acidic

Can change due to medications, douches, or infections

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105
Q

What are the ovaries responsible for?

A

Production and release of eggs (ova)

Females are born with all the eggs they will ever produce

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106
Q

What is ovulation?

A

The release of ova from the ovaries

Occurs monthly

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107
Q

What is a simplex uterus?

A

Normal uterine structure

Abnormal forms include bicornuate or septate uterus

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108
Q

What are the two parts of the female reproductive cycle?

A

Uterine (menstrual) cycle and ovarian cycle

These cycles are integrated

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109
Q

What happens during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

The maturing follicle develops an internal fluid-filled cavity and grows large

Ends with ovulation

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110
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

The structure formed from the follicle after ovulation

Secretes estrogen and progesterone

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111
Q

What happens during the luteal phase?

A

The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone

Inhibits GnRH production in the hypothalamus

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112
Q

What triggers menstruation if the egg is not fertilized?

A

The disintegration of the corpus luteum and a drop in estrogen and progesterone

Leads to breakdown of the endometrium

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113
Q

What is menstruation?

A

The flow of blood and lining from the inside of the uterus

Typically lasts 3-7 days

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114
Q

Fill in the blank: The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle is coordinated with the ______ phase of the uterine cycle.

A

proliferative

Both phases occur simultaneously

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115
Q

True or False: The uterine cycle typically lasts 28 days.

A

True

One cycle is from the beginning of one period to the next

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116
Q

What is the Law of Dominance?

A

When two unlike unit factors responsible for a single trait are present in a single individual, one unit factor is dominant to the other, which is said to be recessive.

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117
Q

What does Mendel’s first law of inheritance state?

A

An organism’s genetic makeup is called its genotype.

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118
Q

Define phenotype.

A

The physical trait an organism develops as a result of its genotypes.

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119
Q

What does Mendel’s law of segregation state?

A

The two alleles for a trait separate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes.

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120
Q

What ratio is typically produced in the F2 generation from a monohybrid cross?

A

3:1

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121
Q

What does Mendel’s law of independent assortment state?

A

During gamete formation, the segregating alleles assort independently of each other.

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122
Q

What ratio is typically produced in the F2 generation from a dihybrid cross?

A

9:3:3:1

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123
Q

What is a monohybrid?

A

An individual that is heterozygous for one trait.

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124
Q

What is a Punnett Square?

A

A diagram that can be used to show and predict genotype, phenotype, and probability ratios in a genetic cross.

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125
Q

Fill in the blank: A cross of two heterozygous tall plants (Tt) will produce: F2 - ____.

A

3 tall: 1 short plant(s)

126
Q

What is codominance?

A

Both alleles are equally expressed and affect the phenotype.

127
Q

Provide an example of codominance.

A

Roan cattle, where a cross between a red bull and a white cow yields roan calves.

128
Q

What is the characteristic ratio for codominance?

129
Q

What are the genotypes for homozygous red coat and white coat in roan cattle?

A

CR CR for red coat; CW CW for white coat.

130
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

A blend of both alleles resulting in a phenotype that is intermediate between the two parental phenotypes.

131
Q

Give an example of incomplete dominance.

A

Flower color in snapdragons, where a cross between white and red flowers produces pink offspring.

132
Q

What is the characteristic ratio for incomplete dominance in the F2 generation?

133
Q

What are multiple alleles?

A

Traits controlled by genes for which more than two alleles exist.

134
Q

Provide an example of a trait controlled by multiple alleles.

A

The human ABO blood group system, controlled by alleles A, B, and O.

135
Q

True or False: Even if more than two alleles exist in a population, each individual possesses more than two alleles.

136
Q

What is the Law of Dominance?

A

When two unlike unit factors responsible for a single trait are present in a single individual, one unit factor is dominant to the other, which is said to be recessive.

137
Q

What does Mendel’s first law of inheritance state?

A

An organism’s genetic makeup is called its genotype.

138
Q

Define phenotype.

A

The physical trait an organism develops as a result of its genotypes.

139
Q

What does Mendel’s law of segregation state?

A

The two alleles for a trait separate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes.

140
Q

What ratio is typically produced in the F2 generation from a monohybrid cross?

141
Q

What does Mendel’s law of independent assortment state?

A

During gamete formation, the segregating alleles assort independently of each other.

142
Q

What ratio is typically produced in the F2 generation from a dihybrid cross?

143
Q

What is a monohybrid?

A

An individual that is heterozygous for one trait.

144
Q

What is a Punnett Square?

A

A diagram that can be used to show and predict genotype, phenotype, and probability ratios in a genetic cross.

145
Q

Fill in the blank: A cross of two heterozygous tall plants (Tt) will produce: F2 - ____.

A

3 tall: 1 short plant(s)

146
Q

What is codominance?

A

Both alleles are equally expressed and affect the phenotype.

147
Q

Provide an example of codominance.

A

Roan cattle, where a cross between a red bull and a white cow yields roan calves.

148
Q

What is the characteristic ratio for codominance?

149
Q

What are the genotypes for homozygous red coat and white coat in roan cattle?

A

CR CR for red coat; CW CW for white coat.

150
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

A blend of both alleles resulting in a phenotype that is intermediate between the two parental phenotypes.

151
Q

Give an example of incomplete dominance.

A

Flower color in snapdragons, where a cross between white and red flowers produces pink offspring.

152
Q

What is the characteristic ratio for incomplete dominance in the F2 generation?

153
Q

What are multiple alleles?

A

Traits controlled by genes for which more than two alleles exist.

154
Q

Provide an example of a trait controlled by multiple alleles.

A

The human ABO blood group system, controlled by alleles A, B, and O.

155
Q

True or False: Even if more than two alleles exist in a population, each individual possesses more than two alleles.

156
Q

What is evolution?

A

A gradual change over time.

Evolution encompasses geologic evolution and organic evolution.

157
Q

What is geologic evolution?

A

Continuous changes of the Earth since its formation about 4.6 billion years ago.

158
Q

What is organic evolution?

A

The evolution of organisms through gradual changes over time.

159
Q

What is the main evidence for evolution?

A

Fossils, anatomical similarities, embryological similarities, and biochemical similarities.

160
Q

What are the two types of fossil dating?

A

Relative dating and absolute dating.

161
Q

What is relative dating?

A

A method that determines the order of events by observing sedimentary layers.

162
Q

What is absolute dating?

A

A method that determines the actual time of events, such as radioactive dating.

163
Q

What is the most reliable method of absolute dating?

A

Radioactive dating.

164
Q

What is the half-life of Carbon-14?

A

About 5,730 years.

165
Q

What happens to Carbon-14 after 50,000 years?

A

The amount remaining becomes too small to measure reliably.

166
Q

Which isotopes can be used to date older fossils?

A
  • Uranium-238 (half-life of about 4.46 billion years)
  • Potassium-40 (half-life of about 1.28 billion years)
167
Q

What can radioactive dating of sedimentary rocks determine?

A

The age of sediments, not the actual time the rock was formed.

168
Q

What are some important facts revealed by fossil dating?

A
  • Similar patterns of evolution
  • Extinction of some species
  • Missing links in fossil records
169
Q

What does comparative anatomy study?

A

Structural similarities and differences among living things.

170
Q

What are homologous structures?

A

Parts of different organisms with similar internal structures but different external forms and functions.

171
Q

What are analogous structures?

A

Structures with similar external forms and functions but different internal structures.

172
Q

What do embryological similarities provide evidence for?

A

Evolutionary relationships among species.

173
Q

What do DNA analyses reveal about evolutionary relationships?

A

Closer phylogenetic relationships result in more identical DNA and protein structures.

174
Q

Who was Anaximander and what was his contribution to evolution?

A

A Greek philosopher who suggested life began as slime in oceans and evolved over time.

175
Q

What did Aristotle contribute to evolutionary thought?

A

Developed an epigenetic model of evolution and a classification system for animals.

176
Q

What is John Ray known for?

A

Catalogued 18,600 kinds of plants and defined species based on common descent.

177
Q

What is Carolus Linnaeus famous for?

A

Published ‘Systema Naturae’ and developed a classification system still in use today.

178
Q

What did Erasmus Darwin propose in ‘Zoonomia’?

A

All life evolved from a common ancestor, driven by competition and sexual selection.

179
Q

What is abiogenesis?

A

The hypothesis of spontaneous generation, disproved by experiments from Francesco Redi and Louis Pasteur.

180
Q

Who proposed the first theory of evolution?

A

Jean Baptiste de Lamarck

181
Q

What are the two principles of Lamarck’s theory of evolution?

A
  • Law of use and disuse
  • Inheritance of acquired characteristics
182
Q

What does the law of use and disuse state?

A

The more an animal uses a part of its body, the stronger and better developed that part becomes, and vice versa

183
Q

What is meant by inheritance of acquired characteristics?

A

Characteristics developed through use and disuse can be passed on to offspring

184
Q

True or False: Lamarck’s theory has been proven correct in its basic premises.

185
Q

What did George Cuvier maintain regarding species?

A

He maintained the ‘fixity’ of species

186
Q

What is catastrophism according to Cuvier?

A

The theory that violent and sudden natural catastrophes cause extinctions and changes in species

187
Q

How did Charles Lyell’s theory of uniformism differ from Cuvier’s catastrophism?

A

Lyell believed in slower, progressive changes rather than sudden catastrophes

188
Q

What are the six main points of Darwin’s theory of evolution?

A
  • Over-production
  • Competition
  • Variation
  • Adaptations
  • Natural Selection
  • Speciation
189
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The environment selects optimal traits to be the parents of the next generation

190
Q

What is speciation?

A

The formation of new species through accumulation of favorable traits over generations

191
Q

What is biogenesis?

A

The modern hypothesis that living organisms originate from pre-existing organisms

192
Q

What is the primordial soup?

A

A hot, thin soup of water and organic materials covering early Earth

193
Q

What type of cells are theorized to have evolved through endosymbiosis?

A

Eukaryotic cells

194
Q

What is the synthetic theory of evolution?

A

A fusion of Darwin’s theory with modern discoveries in genetics and population theory

195
Q

What is mutation?

A

A sudden change in the structure or amount of genetic material

196
Q

Fill in the blank: Genetic recombination is the formation of new combinations of alleles during _______ reproduction.

197
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

A change in the gene pool of a small population brought about by chance

198
Q

What is an adaptation?

A

An inherited trait that improves the chances of survival and reproduction for an organism

199
Q

True or False: Genetic drift is more likely to occur in large populations.

200
Q

What are the three types of adaptations?

A
  • Structural
  • Physiological
  • Behavioral

Structural adaptations involve physical modification, physiological adaptations pertain to metabolic processes, and behavioral adaptations are responses to environmental stimuli.

201
Q

Define structural adaptation.

A

Adaptations that involve the modification of the body of the organism, e.g., the wings of birds and insects adapted for flight.

Structural adaptations are crucial for survival in specific environments.

202
Q

What is physiological adaptation?

A

Involves the metabolism of organisms, e.g., the production of venom by snakes.

Physiological adaptations enhance an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce.

203
Q

What is behavioral adaptation?

A

Particular responses made by an organism in any situation, e.g., migration of birds due to seasonal weather changes.

Behavioral adaptations can include mating behaviors and responses to predators.

204
Q

What are the three general types of color adaptation?

A
  • Protective coloration
  • Warning coloration
  • Mimicry

Color adaptations help organisms survive by either blending in with their environment or signaling danger.

205
Q

Define protective coloration.

A

Enables an animal to blend in with its background, making it less likely to be seen by enemies.

Examples include the chameleon and sundial flounder.

206
Q

What is warning coloration?

A

Occurs in certain poisonous or unpleasant-tasting animals, helping predators recognize them.

An example is the monarch butterfly, which birds avoid due to its distinctive coloring.

207
Q

What is mimicry in the context of color adaptation?

A

Common in defenseless animals, mimics a closely related animal that possesses qualities that cause predators to avoid it.

The viceroy butterfly mimics the monarch butterfly to avoid predation.

208
Q

What is directional selection?

A

A type of natural selection that favors a relatively rare phenotype, usually occurring when the environment changes.

An example is the evolution of long-necked giraffes.

209
Q

Define stabilizing selection.

A

Favors the average phenotypes and limits evolution by keeping allele frequencies relatively constant.

This type of selection is common in stable environments.

210
Q

What is disruptive selection?

A

Favors two rare and opposite phenotypes while acting against average phenotypes, resulting in the creation of two subpopulations.

This type of selection can lead to speciation.

211
Q

What is speciation?

A

The formation of new species as a result of a net accumulation of favorable traits and adaptations.

Speciation often occurs due to geographic and reproductive isolation.

212
Q

What is geographic isolation?

A

Occurs when a population is separated by a natural barrier, preventing interbreeding.

Barriers can include mountains, deserts, or bodies of water.

213
Q

What does the term ‘range’ refer to in ecology?

A

The particular region of the earth where a species is found.

Species characteristics may vary across different parts of their range due to environmental conditions.

214
Q

Define reproductive isolation.

A

The loss of the ability to interbreed by two isolated groups over time.

This can occur due to changes in courtship behaviors and mating times.

215
Q

Fill in the blank: Reproductive isolation occurs when isolated groups can no longer _______.

A

interbreed.

This leads to the evolution of different gene pools in each group.

216
Q

What is peripatric speciation?

A

A special form of allopatric speciation where a very small subpopulation becomes isolated from a much larger majority.

It is characterized by rapid divergence due to the founder effect and genetic drift.

217
Q

What is the founder effect?

A

A phenomenon where small populations are more sensitive to genetic drift and natural selection acts on a small gene pool.

This effect can lead to rapid divergence in isolated populations.

218
Q

Define sympatric speciation.

A

The formation of two or more descendant species from a single ancestral species all occupying the same geographic location.

It occurs through reproductive isolation and adaptation via genetic drift and natural selection.

219
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

A condition in which an offspring or group of offspring is produced with twice the normal number of chromosomes.

Polyploidy is a common mechanism in sympatric speciation.

220
Q

What is parapatric speciation?

A

An extremely rare type of speciation occurring when populations are separated by different niches in a habitat, rather than a geographic barrier.

Isolation may result from temporal or behavioral differences.

221
Q

What is convergent evolution?

A

Evolution that results in the resemblance of unrelated species living in the same geographic location due to natural selection.

It leads to similar adaptive traits or analogous structures.

222
Q

What is divergent evolution?

A

Evolution that results in the accumulation of differences between groups of the same species geographically isolated from each other.

It can lead to the formation of new species due to different selective pressures.

223
Q

What is coevolution?

A

The evolution of two or more species simultaneously due to cooperative or competitive adaptations.

An example is the relationship between flowers and their pollinators.

224
Q

What is artificial selection?

A

Evolution brought about by the selective actions of humans on plants and animals.

It favors individuals with certain traits, allowing them to reproduce and pass on their genes.

225
Q

True or False: Artificial selection has provided strong evidence that selection is an effective evolutionary mechanism.

A

True

It has produced substantial change in almost every case it has been applied.

226
Q

What is Industrial Melanism?

A

The evolutionary process in which darker individuals predominate over lighter individuals in populations exposed to industrial air pollution

Example: dominance of dark colored moths in industrialized England

227
Q

What is the role of darker coloration in moths due to Industrial Melanism?

A

It serves as protective coloration to protect from predators

228
Q

What is the interrelationship of living organisms?

A

All living organisms interact and are interdependent on each other and their environment for survival, reproduction, and ecological balance

229
Q

What is an ecosystem?

A

An area where all biotic and abiotic parts interact

230
Q

What are the categories of organism associations?

A

Interspecific and intraspecific categories

231
Q

What is Saprotropism?

A

A type of relationship where living organisms grow on dead organic matter and take nutrients from it

232
Q

What is saprophytic nutrition?

A

Nutrition found in non-green plants that draw nourishment from dead matter

233
Q

What are the two types of saprophytes?

A
  • Total saprophytes
  • Partial saprophytes
234
Q

What are total saprophytic organisms?

A

Organisms like fungi that completely depend on dead and decaying substances for nutrition

Example: Mucor, Agaricus

235
Q

What is Antagonism in organism relationships?

A

A relationship where either one or both types of organisms are harmed

236
Q

What is Parasitism?

A

A relationship where one organism (parasite) benefits at the expense of another (host)

237
Q

What is an ectoparasite?

A

A parasite that lives outside the host body

238
Q

What is an endoparasite?

A

A parasite that lives inside the host body

239
Q

Give an example of an ectoparasite and an endoparasite.

A
  • Ectoparasite: Lice
  • Endoparasite: Round worm
240
Q

What is Exploitation in organism relationships?

A

A relationship where one organism enslaves another

241
Q

What is Ammensalism (antibiosis)?

A

A relationship where the chemical secretion of one organism harms another, with no nutrition taking place

242
Q

What is an example of an antibiotic?

A

Penicillin, produced from the fungus Penicillium notatum

243
Q

What is Competition in ecological relationships?

A

A relationship where two organisms compete for food and shelter

244
Q

What is Symbiosis?

A

A relationship where living organisms live together and help one another

245
Q

What are the three categories of Symbiosis?

A
  • Commensalism
  • Mutualism
  • Protocooperation
246
Q

What is Commensalism?

A

A relationship where one organism benefits and the other remains neutral, with no harm done

247
Q

Give an example of Commensalism.

A

Fierasfer fish living inside the cloacal cavity of a Sea cucumber

248
Q

What is Mutualism?

A

An obligatory relationship where both organisms benefit and are interdependent

249
Q

Give an example of a mutualistic relationship.

A

The association between algae Zoochlorella and hydra

250
Q

What is Protocooperation?

A

A facultative relationship where both organisms benefit but can live independently

251
Q

Give an example of Protocooperation.

A

The association between hermit crab and sea anemone

252
Q

What are the geographical locations of Tropical Savanna?

A

Large parts of eastern Africa, southern Brazil, northern Australia

Tropical savannas are known for their warm temperatures and seasonal rainfall.

253
Q

What characterizes a Tropical Savanna?

A

Cover of grasses, warm temperatures, seasonal rainfall, compact soil, frequent fires

Frequent fires are often set by lightning.

254
Q

What are the dominant plants in the Tropical Savanna?

A

Tall, perennial grasses; trees or shrubs

These plants are adapted to the savanna’s seasonal climate.

255
Q

Which wildlife is dominant in the Tropical Savanna?

A

Lions, elephants, giraffes, zebras; eagles, termites

These species are well adapted to the savanna environment.

256
Q

What are the geographical locations of Deserts?

A

Africa, Asia, the Middle East, North & South America, Australia

Deserts are found on every continent except Antarctica.

257
Q

What characterizes a Desert?

A

Low precipitation; variable temperatures; soils rich in minerals but poor in organic material

This combination results in a harsh living environment.

258
Q

What are the dominant plants in Deserts?

A

Cacti, creosote bush

These plants are adapted to conserve water.

259
Q

Which wildlife is dominant in Deserts?

A

Mountain lions, mule deer, kangaroo, rats; owls, butterflies, flies, tortoises, rattlesnakes, lizards

Many desert animals are nocturnal to avoid daytime heat.

260
Q

What are the geographical locations of Temperate Grasslands?

A

Central Asia, North America, Australia, central Europe, parts of South America

These regions have a mix of warm to hot summers and cold winters.

261
Q

What characterizes Temperate Grasslands?

A

Warm to hot summers; cold winters; moderate, seasonal precipitation; fertile soils; occasional fires

Fires play a role in maintaining grassland ecosystems.

262
Q

What are the dominant plants in Temperate Grasslands?

A

Lush, perennial grasses and herbs; most resistant to drought, fire, and cold

These plants contribute to the grassland’s biodiversity.

263
Q

Which wildlife is dominant in Temperate Grasslands?

A

Coyotes, grizzly bears, antelope, rabbits, hawks, snakes, grasshoppers

These species thrive in the grassland habitat.

264
Q

What are the two main categories of Aquatic biomes?

A

Freshwater and marine

Freshwater includes ponds, rivers; marine includes oceans and estuaries.

265
Q

What defines Freshwater regions?

A

Having a low salt concentration — usually less than 1%

This low salt content is crucial for the survival of freshwater species.

266
Q

What types of Freshwater regions exist?

A

Ponds and lakes; streams and rivers; wetlands

Each type supports unique ecosystems.

267
Q

What is the significance of Marine regions?

A

Cover about three-fourths of the Earth’s surface; supply much of the world’s oxygen; provide rainwater

Marine algae are key to the global oxygen supply.

268
Q

What conditions must exist for an ecosystem to be stable and self-sustaining?

A

Constant source of energy; organisms that can synthesize incoming energy; cycle of materials between organisms and environment

These conditions are essential for ecosystem health.

269
Q

What is Ecological Succession?

A

The process by which an existing community is slowly replaced by another community

It can occur through primary or secondary succession.

270
Q

What are the two types of Ecological Succession?

A

Primary and secondary

Primary occurs in areas with no existing life; secondary occurs after partial destruction of an existing community.

271
Q

What does Human Ecology study?

A

The relationships between humans and their environment

It addresses the impact of human actions on ecological systems.

272
Q

What are some environmental problems linked to human activities?

A

Global warming; pollution; land degradation; disease outbreaks

These issues stem from negligence or poor attitudes toward the environment.

273
Q

What is the estimated world population currently?

A

Approximately 7 billion

This figure contributes to overpopulation concerns.

274
Q

What is a consequence of Urbanization?

A

Disruption of existing ecosystems

Urbanization leads to the destruction of natural habitats and increased competition for resources.

275
Q

Fill in the blank: An ecosystem requires a _______ source of energy.

A

[constant]

Energy sources can include sunlight or chemosynthesis.

276
Q

What are the geographical locations of Tropical Savanna?

A

Large parts of eastern Africa, southern Brazil, northern Australia

Tropical savannas are known for their warm temperatures and seasonal rainfall.

277
Q

What characterizes a Tropical Savanna?

A

Cover of grasses, warm temperatures, seasonal rainfall, compact soil, frequent fires

Frequent fires are often set by lightning.

278
Q

What are the dominant plants in the Tropical Savanna?

A

Tall, perennial grasses; trees or shrubs

These plants are adapted to the savanna’s seasonal climate.

279
Q

Which wildlife is dominant in the Tropical Savanna?

A

Lions, elephants, giraffes, zebras; eagles, termites

These species are well adapted to the savanna environment.

280
Q

What are the geographical locations of Deserts?

A

Africa, Asia, the Middle East, North & South America, Australia

Deserts are found on every continent except Antarctica.

281
Q

What characterizes a Desert?

A

Low precipitation; variable temperatures; soils rich in minerals but poor in organic material

This combination results in a harsh living environment.

282
Q

What are the dominant plants in Deserts?

A

Cacti, creosote bush

These plants are adapted to conserve water.

283
Q

Which wildlife is dominant in Deserts?

A

Mountain lions, mule deer, kangaroo, rats; owls, butterflies, flies, tortoises, rattlesnakes, lizards

Many desert animals are nocturnal to avoid daytime heat.

284
Q

What are the geographical locations of Temperate Grasslands?

A

Central Asia, North America, Australia, central Europe, parts of South America

These regions have a mix of warm to hot summers and cold winters.

285
Q

What characterizes Temperate Grasslands?

A

Warm to hot summers; cold winters; moderate, seasonal precipitation; fertile soils; occasional fires

Fires play a role in maintaining grassland ecosystems.

286
Q

What are the dominant plants in Temperate Grasslands?

A

Lush, perennial grasses and herbs; most resistant to drought, fire, and cold

These plants contribute to the grassland’s biodiversity.

287
Q

Which wildlife is dominant in Temperate Grasslands?

A

Coyotes, grizzly bears, antelope, rabbits, hawks, snakes, grasshoppers

These species thrive in the grassland habitat.

288
Q

What are the two main categories of Aquatic biomes?

A

Freshwater and marine

Freshwater includes ponds, rivers; marine includes oceans and estuaries.

289
Q

What defines Freshwater regions?

A

Having a low salt concentration — usually less than 1%

This low salt content is crucial for the survival of freshwater species.

290
Q

What types of Freshwater regions exist?

A

Ponds and lakes; streams and rivers; wetlands

Each type supports unique ecosystems.

291
Q

What is the significance of Marine regions?

A

Cover about three-fourths of the Earth’s surface; supply much of the world’s oxygen; provide rainwater

Marine algae are key to the global oxygen supply.

292
Q

What conditions must exist for an ecosystem to be stable and self-sustaining?

A

Constant source of energy; organisms that can synthesize incoming energy; cycle of materials between organisms and environment

These conditions are essential for ecosystem health.

293
Q

What is Ecological Succession?

A

The process by which an existing community is slowly replaced by another community

It can occur through primary or secondary succession.

294
Q

What are the two types of Ecological Succession?

A

Primary and secondary

Primary occurs in areas with no existing life; secondary occurs after partial destruction of an existing community.

295
Q

What does Human Ecology study?

A

The relationships between humans and their environment

It addresses the impact of human actions on ecological systems.

296
Q

What are some environmental problems linked to human activities?

A

Global warming; pollution; land degradation; disease outbreaks

These issues stem from negligence or poor attitudes toward the environment.

297
Q

What is the estimated world population currently?

A

Approximately 7 billion

This figure contributes to overpopulation concerns.

298
Q

What is a consequence of Urbanization?

A

Disruption of existing ecosystems

Urbanization leads to the destruction of natural habitats and increased competition for resources.

299
Q

Fill in the blank: An ecosystem requires a _______ source of energy.

A

[constant]

Energy sources can include sunlight or chemosynthesis.

300
Q

What are the consequences of poor farming practices?

A

Depletion of nutrients in the soil, loss of top soil, erosion

Poor farming practices include over-farming and over-grazing.

301
Q

What health hazards can arise from the abuse of pesticides and herbicides?

A

Land contamination, disruption in the food chain, food poisoning, various health hazards

These abuses affect both human health and the environment.

302
Q

Define pollution.

A

The introduction of contaminants into the natural environment that causes adverse change.

303
Q

What forms can pollution take?

A

Noise, heat (light), chemical substances

These forms of pollution can impact various aspects of the environment.

304
Q

List some common pollutants.

A
  • Organic wastes
  • Inorganic chemicals
  • Heavy metals
  • Oil spills
  • Radioactive wastes
  • Greenhouse gases
  • Pathogens
305
Q

What are the serious risks posed by pollutants?

A

Contamination of land, water, air, health risks, environmental degradation.

306
Q

What is a key environmental solution to restoring the environment?

A

Developing environmentally safe and cost-effective solutions.

307
Q

Name some measures to restore the environment.

A
  • Population control
  • Bioremediation of contaminated land and water
  • Clean-up technologies
  • Encouraging renewable energy and resources
  • Soil, forest, and wildlife conservation
  • Agricultural best practices
308
Q

Fill in the blank: The use of _______ is an agricultural best practice that helps in soil conservation.

A

crop rotation

309
Q

True or False: Erosion prevention technologies are included in agricultural best practices.

310
Q

What is bioremediation?

A

The process of using organisms to remove or neutralize contaminants from the environment.