Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MEPT Groundschool > Scheduled Performance > Flashcards

Scheduled Performance Flashcards

1
Q

Define MAC.

A

Mean Aerodynamic Chord

The chord of an imaginary aerofoil that is rectangular but with the same area and aerodynamic properties as the actual wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the MAC for the Phenom?

A

1.64m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define payload.

A

The weight of the occupants, baggage, and cabinet contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What makes up Ramp Weight?

A

The Zero Fuel Weight + all fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a moment?

A

A turning effect of any weight about a point of balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the expected probability of an aircraft suffering a structural failure over its planned life?

A

1:1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is meant by metal fatigue?

A

The propagation of cracks due to repeated cycles of stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define stress.

A

Load force per unit of cross sectional area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define strain.

A

Deformation due to stress.

(i.e. deformation per unit length)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What graph maps the relationship between stress levels and endurance?

A

S-N Curve

  • S - Percentage of ultimate stress.
  • N - number of cycles to failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What design philosophy requires the regular monitoring of cracks for acceptable damage?

A

Damage Tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four design philosophies for fatigue management?

A
  1. Infinite Lifetime - over-engineered;
  2. Safe Life - fixed life with no significant failure;
  3. Fail Safe - no single failure will be catastrophic;
  4. Damage Tolerance - monitoring visible cracks.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main form of lower wing stress?

A

Tensile (tension) stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For a Perf. A aircraft, what is the normal screen height?

A

35ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For a Perf. A aircraft, what is the screen height for wet runway conditions?

A

15ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define V1.

A

Decision Speed

  • The max speed during T/O at which the pilot must have taken the first action (close thrust levers) to stop the aircraft within the ASDA.
  • The minimum speed during T/O following a failure of the critical power unit at which the pilot can continue and T/O and achieve screen height within the TODA.
  • VMCG < V1 < VR & VMBE.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the purpose of SP?

A

To calculate the max regulated T/O weight in given conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between gross and net performance?

A
  • Gross performance* is the average actual performance of an aircraft (flown iaw prescribed techniques).
  • Net performance* is gross performance less an applied safety factor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many stages can SP be broken into, and at what points does each stage commence and conclude?

A

6 stages, however only 4 are usually used.

  1. Take Off - Brake Release Point to Screen Height.
  2. Take Off Climb - Screen Height to 1500 above surface datum.
  3. En-Route - 1500ft above departure surface datum to 1500ft above destination surface datum.
  4. Landing - 1500ft above destination surface datum to a full stop.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a clearway?

A

A defined area under the aerodrome authority, either side of the runway centreline and at the end of the runway, that is cleared of obstacles that would affect the initial climb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What condition is assumed if an airfield is described as a balanced field?

A

TODA = ASDA

(i.e. it ignores the clearway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define stopway.

A

A rectangular area at the end of, and same width as, the runway designated as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an aborted T/O.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do the letters in EASA stand for?

A

European Aviation Safety Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define VR.

A

Rotation Speed

The speed at which the pilot initiates rotation with the intention of becoming airborne.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What classification is the Phenom with respect to SP planning?

A

Perf. A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define TORA.

A

Take Off Run Avaliable

The length of runway avaliable for the take off run.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define ASDA.

A

Acceleration Stop Distance Available

The TORA plus any stopway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define TODA.

A

Take Off Distance Avaliable

The area avaliable, under airfield authority, cleared of obstacles and thus avaliable between BRP and attaining screen height.

Limited to a max of 1.5 TORA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What speed should you attain by the end of the TODA?

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does the Weight, Pressure Altitude, Temperature (WAT) limit affect?

A

The climb gradient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Should V1 be higher or lower than usual in wet conditions?

A

Lower, it allows for longer stopping distance on a wet surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define VMBE.

A

Max Brake Energy Speed

The highest speed on the ground from which the aircraft can safely stop within the energy capabilities of the brakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What determines a T/O Climb segment change?

A

A configuration (or thrust setting) change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What modelled climb gradient must be sufficient to miss all obstacles within the defined T/O climb domain?

A

One Engine Inoperative (OEI) net climb gradient.

The OEI conditions assume the critical engine is inoperative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

By what vertical distance must the aircraft clear obstacles in the T/O Climb?

A

35ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

By how much, and under what circumstances does the avoidance height increase during the T/O Climb?

A

Increases to 50ft if 15º AoB used

(and/or maybe a heading change of 15º who the fuck knows)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What’s a good noise abatement speed?

A

V2 + 10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What defines the start of the T/O Climb stage?

A

Screen height at V2.

39
Q

What is the required clearance of obstacles during the drift down?

A

2000ft and 5nm

40
Q

What is the horizontal avoidance distance during a drift down without GPS?

A

10nm

41
Q

What is the obstacle avoidance criteria once the aircraft has reached it’s stabilised altitude?

A

1000ft and 5nm

42
Q

When do you achieve drift down stablisation altitude?

A

When you have a 0% negative climb gradient.

43
Q

What is the required power setting and climb speed for a drift down?

A
  • Max. Cont. Thrust on the live engine.
  • Best climb speed OR calculated drift down speed
44
Q

What does ETOPS stand for?

A

Extended Range Twin-Engine Operations

45
Q

Long Range Cruise speed is ……….% slower than Max Speed Cruise but gives ……….% more range (in the Phenom).

A

Long Range Cruise speed is 25% slower than Max Speed Cruise but gives 20% more range.

46
Q

What does ETOPS require?

A

Type approval and crew certification.

47
Q

What % of tailwind and headwind is considered during the T/O stage?

A
  • 150% of tailwind;
  • 50% of headwind.
48
Q

What percentage of runway slope is considered during the landing stage?

A
  • 100% negative slope
  • 0% positive slope
49
Q

Define the landing distance.

A

From 50ft above threshold to a complete stop.

50
Q

What is the approach climb gradient?

A

The required climb gradient should a go around be required with One Engine Inoperative (OEI).

51
Q

What is the landing climb gradient?

A

The required climb gradient if a go around is initiated from touchdown at idle thrust. It is assumed both engines are operative and the gear is down.

52
Q

What percentage of the Landing Distance Avaliable must the Landing Distance Required be within for jet aircraft?

A

60%

53
Q

Define C of G.

A

Centre of Gravity

The position where mass is considered to be concentrated for the purpose of balance. Expressed as a % MAC.

54
Q

What should you do if nearing the MDA/MDH and the approach is unstable?

A

Go Around.

55
Q

What obstacles are significant in the T/O domain?

A

All obstacles.

56
Q

How is the climb gradient calculated?

A

The ratio between vertical distance and horizontal distance, multiplied by 100.

57
Q

Where does the Landing Segment begin?

A

1500ft above the surface datum of the destination for Perf. A aircraft.

(1000ft for Perf. B)

58
Q

What is the Critical Point?

A

The point between 2 airfields from which it would take the same time to fly to either airfield.

59
Q

Why would an aircraft hold island fuel?

A

Island airports can be remote, with no suitable diversion. If the destination airfield suddenly becomes unavailable then it allows for greater holding time.

60
Q

What is the Point of No Return?

A

The furthest point along a route from an aircraft’s departure airfield to which it can fly and still return to that airfield within its safe endurance.

61
Q

What is the Last Point of Diversion?

A

A point along the track, beyond which it is impossible to reach the nominated diversion airfield safely.

62
Q

How does the Phenom achieve best range?

A
  • Flying at the highest altitude it can maintain;
  • Flying at 1.32 VMD;
  • Engines at the optimum power setting.
63
Q

How does the Phenom achieve best endurance?

A
  • Flying at VMD;
  • Flying at the optimum altitude.
64
Q

Define the S-N curve.

A

The S-N curve is the relationship between applied alternating stress levels and the endurance to failure of a material, illustrated on a graph.

65
Q

In SP planning, what altitude is used?

A

Pressure Altitude.

(i.e. Flight Level - altimeters set to STD BARO)

66
Q

Define VFS.

A

Final Segment Speed

The speed to be achieved for the final segment of the T/O flight path with the critical engine inoperative, landing gear up and flaps retracted.

67
Q

Define VAC.

A

Approach Climb Speed

The missed approach climb speed for flap configuration with critical engine inoperative.

68
Q

Define VREF.

A

Reference Landing Speed

The speed of the aircraft, in the specified landing configuration, at 50ft above the threshold, which is used to determine the landing distance required.

69
Q

Define V2.

A

Take Off Safety Speed

The target speed to be attained at the 35ft screen height following the failure of the critical engine.

70
Q

Define VMCG.

A

Ground Minimum Control Speed

The minimum speed on the ground at which a critical engine failure on T/O can occur and control of the aircraft can be maintained within defined limits.

71
Q

What is the maximum horizontal distance obstacles must be avoided by in the T/O flight path, assuming turns below 15º AoB, and under GPS?

A

300m

72
Q

What is the Drift Down technique?

A

Set max continuous thrust on remaining power units and maintain altitude until speed reduces to the drift down speed.

73
Q

What is the maximum practical cruise altitude?

A

The altitude at which the margin of thrust available will enable a net minimum 300 fpm rate of climb.

74
Q

What 5 things must be complete for an approach to be considered stable?

A
  1. All briefings & pre-landing checks complete;
  2. Aircraft is in planned landing configuration;
  3. In trim, on centreline, and correct glidepath;
  4. Approach speed is between +10kts and -5kts of required;
  5. Appropriate thrust is set for approach speed and configuration.
75
Q

How far beyond the published runway Pavement Classification Number (PCN) may airport authorities allow an Aircraft Classification Number (ACN) to be for one-off occasional use?

A

Up to 50%. Aircraft with an ACN >50% higher than a runway PCN will only be permitted to use it in an emergency.

76
Q

The approach climb gradient must not be less than ……….% for twin engined aircraft, assuming what?

A

2.1%

Assuming:

  • Critical engine inoperative with live engine at TO/GA;
  • Gear up;
  • Flaps set to approach;
  • Speed at VAC.
77
Q

Landing climb gradient must not be less than ……….% assuming what?

A

3.2%

Assuming:

  • All engines operating with power available 8 seconds after moving thrust levers from IDLE to TO/GA;
  • Gear down;
  • Flaps at land;
  • Speed VREF.
78
Q

What is FRES fuel in the Phenom?

A

Final Reserve Fuel

250kg.

Also known as Minimum Overhead Diversion Fuel.

79
Q

What is Gross Fuel Consumption (GFC)?

A

Fuel used over time (kg/hr)

= Fuel Flow

80
Q

What is Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC)?

A

Fuel used per unit of thrust.

81
Q

What is Specific Air Range?

A

Distance travelled per unit of fuel (NM/kg).

82
Q

What is Block Fuel?

A

The total fuel required for the flight.

83
Q

What is Taxy Fuel?

A

Fuel used for start up and taxy.

84
Q

What is Trip Fuel?

A

The fuel required from Brake Release on T/O to the landing touchdown.

85
Q

What is Contingency Fuel?

A

Fuel carried to account for any additional en-route fuel consumption due to adverse winds, routing changes, or ATC restrictions. The minimum recommended is the greater of either 5% trip fuel or 5 minutes holding fuel at 1500ft.

86
Q

What is Alternate Fuel?

A

The fuel required from the missed approach point at the planned destination airfield until landing at the alternate diversion airfield.

87
Q

What is Final Reserve Fuel?

A

The minimum fuel required to fly for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 1500 above the alternate diversion airfield.

88
Q

What is Minimum Diversion Fuel?

A

Alternate Fuel + Final Reserve Fuel

89
Q

What is Additional Fuel?

A

Fuel required to comply with a specific regulation or operational requirement (e.g. ETOPS or Island Holding fuel).

90
Q

What is Extra Fuel?

A

Fuel added at the discretion of the captain or authoriser.

91
Q

What is the maximum TODA?

A

1.5x TORA

92
Q

In ………. stage, with OEI, the ………. climb gradient must be sufficient to ………. .

A

In T/O climb stage, with OEI, the net climb gradient must be sufficient to clear any obstacles by the required margin.

93
Q

What % of tailwind is considered when calculating the Landing Distance Required?

A

150%

MEPT Groundschool (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions