Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MEPT Groundschool > Air Systems 2 > Flashcards

Air Systems 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the generator voltages and currents?

A
  • 28 V DC
  • 325 A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the battery voltages and charge?

A
  • 24 V DC
  • 27 Ah
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what voltage will the GPU button look like this?

A

24.5 – 29 V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Shed Bus includes the ………. and the ………. and will only run with ………. generators or ………. .

A

The Shed Bus includes the Inverter and the Vapour Cycle System (VCS) and will only run with both generators or the GPU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

At what voltage will the BATT indication turn yellow when connected to the GPU?

A

≤ 26.9 V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the voltage output and overload capability of the GPU?

A
  • 28.5 V DC
  • Overload capability of 2000 A for 2 secs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What will be displayed on the GPU button when the GPU is physically connected (i.e. plugged in)?

A

A white ‘AVAIL’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What will be displayed on the GPU button when the GPU is electrically connected (i.e. button pushed in)?

A

A green ‘IN USE’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what voltage will the GPU automatically disconnect from the aircraft?

A

< 24.5 V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In an emergency, what light sources will be available?

A
  • Dome light;
  • PFD 1 & MFD;
  • Courtesy light;
  • 2x torches.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long is the timer on the courtesy and baggage compartment lights?

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does PRSOV stand for?

A

Pressure Regulating Shut-Off Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the maximum altitude with two engine bleed air supplies?

A

41000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the maximum altitude with one engine bleed air supply?

A

31000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the maximum Differential Over Pressure?

A

8.6 PSID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum Differential Normal Pressure?

A

8.3 PSID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does PSID mean?

A

Pounds per Square Inch Difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What valve regulates the cabin pressure differential?

A

Out Flow Valve (OFV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In an emergency involving an overpressure, what regulates the pressure differential?

A

Positive Pressure Relief Valve (PPRV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In an emergency involving an underpressure, what regulates the pressure differential?

A

Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the maximum Differential Negative Pressure?

A

-0.4 PSID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the DUMP command do?

A

It fully opens the Out Flow Valve (OFV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With the cabin pressurisation set to AUTO, what cabin altitude will not be exceeded during a DUMP command?

A

12000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

With the cabin pressurisation set to MAN, what cabin altitude will not be exceeded during a DUMP command?

A

14500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is the emergency O2 supply for the Phenom located?

A

Between the forward baggage compartment and cockpit avionics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

At what cabin altitude does the passenger emergency O2 supply automatically deploy?

A

14700 ft ± 300 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is the O2 bottle pressure green on the MFD?

A

> 1590 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is the O2 bottle pressure white on the MFD?

A

Between 1590 PSI and 730 PSI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is the O2 bottle pressure yellow on the MFD?

A

≤ 730 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the O2 limits for local and landaway sortie profiles?

A
  • Local: ≥ 1050 PSI;
  • Landaway: ≥ 1590 PSI;
  • < 730 PSI is NO GO for dispatch.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At what pressure does the hydraulic system run?

A

3000 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what pressure does the hydraulic system indication turn yellow?

A

< 1500 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At what pressure does the emergency brake indication turn yellow?

A

< 1800 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are the Main Hydraulic and Emergency Brake accumulators located?

A

Under the fuselage on the port side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Under what conditions will the hydraulic system 28 V DC cooling fan motor run?

A

With the nose wheel down and locked, and 1 generator online.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is the undercarriage locked in the UP position?

A

By trapped hydraulic pressure, there are no uplocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the maximum possible steering angle for the nose wheel?

A
  • By rudder pedals: 18.3º
  • With differential braking: 16.7º

Total: ± 35º

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The Brake Control Unit (BCU) is connected to which DC Bus?

A

DC Bus 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the drop-out speed for the wheel anti-lock protection system?

A

30 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When is Touchdown Protection is deactivated on BOTH wheels?

A
  1. Wheel speed is > 35 kts OR;
  2. 3 secs with WOW sensing the ground.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In an emergency, how many actuations of the parking brake may be applied to stop the aircraft?

A

6, with no anti-skid protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What will you do to disconnect the GPU?

A

Give the ‘disconnect GPU’ hand signal to the groundcrew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What order of priority is given to the various sources of electrical power for the aircraft?

A

Whichever power unit was providing power first. E.g. if the GPU is electrically connected to the aircraft, then an engine switched on, the GPU will continue to provide the electrical power until disconnected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is a generator failure indicated on the aircraft system page on the MFD?

A
  • Corresponding generator goes yellow;
  • The current (A) on the good generator increases due to higher load;
  • The lines from the failed generator will turn white.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long will the batteries provide power during an electrical emergency?

A

At least 45 mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the Memory Items associated with the following CAS message?

A
  1. ELEC EMER Button . . . P Push in

This forces BTC 1 and BTC 2 open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In an emergency, which Bus Bars are powered?

A
  1. Hot Batt Bus 1
  2. Hot Batt Bus 2
  3. Emergency Bus
  4. Central Bus
48
Q

What are the load limits for each generator?

A
  1. 300 A;
  2. 250 A above 34000 ft or when on the ground.
49
Q

What is the minimum GPU voltage required to charge the batteries?

A

27 V DC

50
Q

What Signs/Outlet switch positions will allow the cabin power outlets to be ON?

A
  1. BELTS/ON
  2. OFF/ON
51
Q

What systems protect and control the GPU?

A

The GCU 1 and GPU switch.

52
Q

At what voltage range will the battery indicators be green when connected to the GPU?

A

27 V DC – 29 V DC

53
Q

At what position is the HYD PUMP switch during normal operation?

A

AUTO

54
Q

At what pressure will the HYD PUMP automatically activated to recharge the system?

A

< 2400 PSI

55
Q

Where are the hydraulic main reservoir and cooling fan located?

A

On the starboard side of the nose.

56
Q

What is lost if the HYD PUMP is switched out of AUTO?

A

Thermal protection is lost.

57
Q

How can the brake wear be assessed?

A

By using the Brake Wear Pins. With the brakes applied the pin must sit proud. If the pin is flush, the brakes must be replaced.

58
Q

What must be disconnected before towing?

A

The torque links must be disconnected from the nose wheel and stowed in the up position.

59
Q

How long will the smoke hood provide O2 to the user?

A

At least 15 minutes, however up to 60 minutes, depending on workload.

60
Q

Where is the water barrier located?

A

In the lavatory cabinet.

61
Q

Where is the First Aid kit located?

A

In the lavatory cabinet.

62
Q

What secures the main door?

A

8x green latches, with 2x green lock indications.

63
Q

Where is the smoke hood located?

A

Behind the co-pilot seat.

64
Q

Where is the cockpit fire extinguisher located?

A

Behind the co-pilot seat. Contains Halon.

65
Q

What selection should the ELT be set to in normal flight?

A

Armed.

66
Q

How should the emergency escape hatch be operated?

A

By using the handle to pull the door into the cabin, detaching from the aircraft. It should then be thrown outside to prevent obstruction.

67
Q

How is the Landing Field Elevation (LFE) adjusted in the cockpit?

A

With the LFE soft key on the MFD, or through the Flight Management System (FMS).

68
Q

The ram air ………. the bleed air temperature in the ………. exchanger.

A

The ram air decreases the bleed air temperature in the heat exchanger.

69
Q

When is the Vapour Cycle System (VCS) operative?

A

With 2 operating generators up to 41000ft, or on the GPU (i.e. when the Shed Bus is active).

70
Q

How should control inputs for manual cabin altitude be made?

A

Short (≈ 0.5 sec) ‘blips’.

71
Q

What percentage O2 will be given through the O2 mask with it set to 100%?

A

100% O2 regardless of cabin altitude.

72
Q

In what mode should the O2 mask be in during a smoke and fumes emergency?

A

Mask should be set to EMER.

73
Q

What indication is there of O2 supply discharge?

A

The green Oxygen Relief High Pressure marker on the port side of the nose.

74
Q

Where is the ice protection inspection light located?

A

The port wing.

75
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

Electric Emergency

  • Only time EBC2 closes;
  • GLC 1 & 2 open;
  • SBC open;
  • EBC1 open;
  • BTC 1 & 2 open.
76
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

Aircraft De-energised, Battery Switched OFF

77
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

Battery switched ON only and WOW

78
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

GPU Connected

  • GPC & SNB close.
79
Q

What are the components highlighted in red?

A

Battery 1 (forward) & Battery 2 (aft)

80
Q

What data is transferred from the FMS to the Avionics & Data Concentrator System?

A

The Landing Field Elevation (LFE).

81
Q

What is the avionics component providing data to the CPCS?

A

Air Data Computer (ADC)

82
Q

Which CPCS parameters are displayed on the MFD EICAS?

A

LFE, Cabin Alt, Delta-p, Cabin Rate of Climb/Descent

83
Q

Which component of the CPCS looks like an air horn?

A

Out Flow Valve (OFV)

84
Q

With GEN 1 yellow and DC Bus 1 white, what CAS message will appear?

A

DC BUS 1 OFF

85
Q

Describe how the EPGDS configures if the pilot selects ENG 2 STOP/RUN/START to START.

A

The GPU and BATT 2 will provide power via SC2 to start Engine 2.

86
Q

Which component of the CPCS has a red hook on top?

A

Positive Pressure Relief Valve (PPRV)

87
Q

Which component of the CPCS has an orange ring around it?

A

Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV)

88
Q

Which component of the CPCS looks like a yellow box?

A

Electronic Control & Monitoring Unit (ECMU)

89
Q

What is the component highlighted in green?

A

Emergency Power Distribution Unit (EPDU)

90
Q

What is the component highlighted in blue?

A

External Power Supply

91
Q

What components are connected to the main wheels?

A

Fusible plugs & Wheel Speed Transducers.

92
Q

What does the BLEED switch control in the aircraft?

A

The PRSOVs and Ram Air valve.

93
Q

What does it mean if a contactor is closed?

A

The switch is ‘on’ and current can flow.

94
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

Engine 2 start from GPU and BATT 2

  • BTC 1 open;
  • SBC open;
  • BTC 2 open;
  • QSC open;
  • SC2 open.
95
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

Engine 1 start from GEN 2 and BATT 2

  • SBC open;
  • SC1 & SC2 closed;
  • QSC closed;
  • BTC1 & BTC2 open;
  • GLC open.
96
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

Generators On Line

  • SBC closed;
  • GLC1 & GLC2 closed;
  • BTC2 closed;
  • BTC1 open.
97
Q

What is this diagram depicting?

A

GEN 1 FAIL (in flight)

  • GLC1 open;
  • BTC1 close;
  • SBC open.
98
Q

What contactor is affected by the GEN 1 switch?

A

GLC 1

99
Q

What contactor is affected by the GPU switch?

A

GPC

100
Q

What contactor is affected by the BUS TIE switch?

A

BTC1 & BTC2

101
Q

What contactor is affected by the BATT 1 switch?

A

BC1 & BC2

102
Q

Which contactors are CLOSED in normal flight?

A
  • BC1 & BC2;
  • EBC1;
  • BTC2;
  • GLC1 & GLC2;
  • SBC.
103
Q

Which contactors are OPEN in normal flight?

A
  • EBC2;
  • BTC1;
  • GPC;
  • SC1 & SC2;
  • QSC.
104
Q

Which contactors are CLOSED in an electrical emergency?

A
  • BC1 & BC2;
  • EBC2.
105
Q

Which contactors are OPEN in an electrical emergency?

A
  • EBC1;
  • BTC1 & BTC2;
  • QSC;
  • GLC1 & GLC2;
  • SC1 & SC2;
  • GPC;
  • SBC.
106
Q

Which contactors are CLOSED with the GPU connected?

A
  • BC1 & BC2;
  • EBC1;
  • BTC1 & BTC2;
  • GPC;
  • SBC.
107
Q

Which contactors are OPEN with the GPU connected?

A
  • EBC2;
  • GLC1 & GLC2;
  • SC1 & SC2;
  • QSC.
108
Q

Which contactors are CLOSED with a GEN 1 failure?

A
  • BC1 & BC2;
  • EBC1;
  • BTC1 & BTC2;
  • GLC2.
109
Q

Which contactors are OPEN with a GEN 1 failure?

A
  • EBC2;
  • GLC1;
  • SC1 & SC2;
  • GPC;
  • SBC.
110
Q

What does the CKPT FAN switch control in the aircraft?

A

Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator

111
Q

What does the CABIN FAN switch control in the aircraft?

A

Cabin (Aft) Evaporator

112
Q

What does the Air Conditioning MODE switch control in the aircraft?

A
  • Ground Cooling Fan;
  • Cabin (Aft) Evaporator;
  • Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator;
  • Compressor and DC Electric Motor Module.
113
Q

What does the CKPT TEMP switch control in the aircraft?

A
  • TMV (Temp Management[?] Valve);
  • Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator.
113
Q

What does the CABIN TEMP switch control in the aircraft?

A
  • TMV (Temp Management[?] Valve);
  • Cabin (Aft) Evaporator.
114
Q

What does the Air Conditioning TEMP switch control in the aircraft?

A
  • TMV (Temp Management[?] Valve);
  • Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator;
  • Cabin (Aft) Evaporator.
115
Q

How does the EPGDS configure if the pilot selects ENG 2 STOP/RUN/START to START?

A

The SBC opens, and GPU and BATT 2 provide power via SC2 to start ENG 2.

116
Q

What avionics components are indicated?

A

(anti-clockwise from the top)

  1. ADF;
  2. CVDR;
  3. ADC 1;
  4. AHRS 1;
  5. XPDR;
  6. TCAS II;
  7. RADALT;
  8. DME;
  9. GIA 1;
  10. Aileron, rudder, & elevator servos;
  11. GEA 1;
  12. GEA 2;
  13. GEA 3;
  14. GIA 2;
  15. AHRS 2;
  16. ADC 2.

MEPT Groundschool (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions