Air Systems 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the generator voltages and currents?
A
- 28 V DC
- 325 A
2
Q
What are the battery voltages and charge?
A
- 24 V DC
- 27 Ah
3
Q
At what voltage will the GPU button look like this?
A
24.5 – 29 V DC
4
Q
The Shed Bus includes the ………. and the ………. and will only run with ………. generators or ………. .
A
The Shed Bus includes the Inverter and the Vapour Cycle System (VCS) and will only run with both generators or the GPU.
5
Q
At what voltage will the BATT indication turn yellow when connected to the GPU?
A
≤ 26.9 V
6
Q
What is the voltage output and overload capability of the GPU?
A
- 28.5 V DC
- Overload capability of 2000 A for 2 secs
7
Q
What will be displayed on the GPU button when the GPU is physically connected (i.e. plugged in)?
A
A white ‘AVAIL’.
8
Q
What will be displayed on the GPU button when the GPU is electrically connected (i.e. button pushed in)?
A
A green ‘IN USE’.
9
Q
At what voltage will the GPU automatically disconnect from the aircraft?
A
< 24.5 V DC
10
Q
In an emergency, what light sources will be available?
A
- Dome light;
- PFD 1 & MFD;
- Courtesy light;
- 2x torches.
11
Q
How long is the timer on the courtesy and baggage compartment lights?
A
5 mins
12
Q
What does PRSOV stand for?
A
Pressure Regulating Shut-Off Valve
13
Q
What is the maximum altitude with two engine bleed air supplies?
A
41000 ft
14
Q
What is the maximum altitude with one engine bleed air supply?
A
31000 ft
15
Q
What is the maximum Differential Over Pressure?
A
8.6 PSID
16
Q
What is the maximum Differential Normal Pressure?
A
8.3 PSID
17
Q
What does PSID mean?
A
Pounds per Square Inch Difference
18
Q
What valve regulates the cabin pressure differential?
A
Out Flow Valve (OFV)
19
Q
In an emergency involving an overpressure, what regulates the pressure differential?
A
Positive Pressure Relief Valve (PPRV)
20
Q
In an emergency involving an underpressure, what regulates the pressure differential?
A
Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV)
21
Q
What is the maximum Differential Negative Pressure?
A
-0.4 PSID
22
Q
What does the DUMP command do?
A
It fully opens the Out Flow Valve (OFV).
23
Q
With the cabin pressurisation set to AUTO, what cabin altitude will not be exceeded during a DUMP command?
A
12000 ft
24
Q
With the cabin pressurisation set to MAN, what cabin altitude will not be exceeded during a DUMP command?
A
14500 ft
25
Where is the emergency O2 supply for the Phenom located?
Between the forward baggage compartment and cockpit avionics.
26
At what cabin altitude does the passenger emergency O2 supply automatically deploy?
14700 ft ± 300 ft
27
When is the O2 bottle pressure green on the MFD?
\> 1590 PSI
28
When is the O2 bottle pressure white on the MFD?
Between 1590 PSI and 730 PSI.
29
When is the O2 bottle pressure yellow on the MFD?
≤ 730 PSI
30
What are the O2 limits for local and landaway sortie profiles?
* Local: ≥ 1050 PSI;
* Landaway: ≥ 1590 PSI;
* **\< 730 PSI is** ***_NO GO_*** **for dispatch**.
31
At what pressure does the hydraulic system run?
3000 PSI
32
At what pressure does the hydraulic system indication turn yellow?
\< 1500 PSI
33
At what pressure does the emergency brake indication turn yellow?
\< 1800 PSI
34
Where are the Main Hydraulic and Emergency Brake accumulators located?
Under the fuselage on the port side.
35
Under what conditions will the hydraulic system 28 V DC cooling fan motor run?
With the nose wheel down and locked, and 1 generator online.
36
How is the undercarriage locked in the UP position?
By trapped hydraulic pressure, there are no uplocks.
37
What is the maximum possible steering angle for the nose wheel?
* By rudder pedals: 18.3º
* With differential braking: 16.7º
Total: ± 35º
38
The Brake Control Unit (BCU) is connected to which DC Bus?
DC Bus 2.
39
What is the drop-out speed for the wheel anti-lock protection system?
30 kts
40
When is Touchdown Protection is deactivated on BOTH wheels?
1. Wheel speed is \> 35 kts **OR**;
2. 3 secs with WOW sensing the ground.
41
In an emergency, how many actuations of the parking brake may be applied to stop the aircraft?
6, with **no anti-skid protection**.
42
What will *you* do to disconnect the GPU?
Give the ‘disconnect GPU’ hand signal to the groundcrew.
43
What order of priority is given to the various sources of electrical power for the aircraft?
Whichever power unit was providing power *first*. E.g. if the GPU is electrically connected to the aircraft, then an engine switched on, the GPU will continue to provide the electrical power *until disconnected*.
44
How is a generator failure indicated on the aircraft system page on the MFD?
* Corresponding generator goes yellow;
* The current (A) on the good generator increases due to higher load;
* The lines from the failed generator will turn white.
45
How long will the batteries provide power during an electrical emergency?
At least 45 mins.
46
What are the Memory Items associated with the following CAS message?
1. **ELEC EMER Button . . . P Push in**
This forces BTC 1 and BTC 2 open.
47
In an emergency, which Bus Bars are powered?
1. Hot Batt Bus 1
2. Hot Batt Bus 2
3. Emergency Bus
4. Central Bus
48
What are the load limits for each generator?
1. 300 A;
2. 250 A above 34000 ft or when on the ground.
49
What is the minimum GPU voltage required to charge the batteries?
27 V DC
50
What Signs/Outlet switch positions will allow the cabin power outlets to be ON?
1. BELTS/ON
2. OFF/ON
51
What systems *protect* and *control* the GPU?
The GCU 1 and GPU switch.
52
At what voltage range will the battery indicators be green when connected to the GPU?
27 V DC – 29 V DC
53
At what position is the HYD PUMP switch during normal operation?
AUTO
54
At what pressure will the HYD PUMP automatically activated to recharge the system?
\< 2400 PSI
55
Where are the hydraulic main reservoir and cooling fan located?
On the starboard side of the nose.
56
What is lost if the HYD PUMP is switched out of AUTO?
Thermal protection is lost.
57
How can the brake wear be assessed?
By using the Brake Wear Pins. With the brakes applied the pin must sit proud. If the pin is flush, the brakes must be replaced.
58
What must be disconnected before towing?
The torque links must be disconnected from the nose wheel and stowed in the up position.
59
How long will the smoke hood provide O2 to the user?
At least 15 minutes, however up to 60 minutes, depending on workload.
60
Where is the water barrier located?
In the lavatory cabinet.
61
Where is the First Aid kit located?
In the lavatory cabinet.
62
What secures the main door?
8x green latches, with 2x green lock indications.
63
Where is the smoke hood located?
Behind the co-pilot seat.
64
Where is the cockpit fire extinguisher located?
Behind the co-pilot seat. Contains Halon.
65
What selection should the ELT be set to in normal flight?
Armed.
66
How should the emergency escape hatch be operated?
By using the handle to pull the door into the cabin, detaching from the aircraft. It should then be thrown outside to prevent obstruction.
67
How is the Landing Field Elevation (LFE) adjusted in the cockpit?
With the LFE soft key on the MFD, or through the Flight Management System (FMS).
68
The ram air ………. the bleed air temperature in the ………. exchanger.
The ram air **decreases** the bleed air temperature in the **heat** exchanger.
69
When is the Vapour Cycle System (VCS) operative?
With 2 operating generators up to 41000ft, or on the GPU (i.e. when the Shed Bus is active).
70
How should control inputs for manual cabin altitude be made?
Short (≈ 0.5 sec) ‘blips’.
71
What percentage O2 will be given through the O2 mask with it set to 100%?
100% O2 *regardless of cabin altitude*.
72
In what mode should the O2 mask be in during a smoke and fumes emergency?
Mask should be set to EMER.
73
What indication is there of O2 supply discharge?
The green Oxygen Relief High Pressure marker on the port side of the nose.
74
Where is the ice protection inspection light located?
The port wing.
75
What is this diagram depicting?
**Electric Emergency**
* ***Only*** time EBC2 closes;
* GLC 1 & 2 open;
* SBC open;
* EBC1 open;
* BTC 1 & 2 open.
76
What is this diagram depicting?
**Aircraft De-energised, Battery Switched OFF**
77
What is this diagram depicting?
**Battery switched ON only and WOW**
78
What is this diagram depicting?
**GPU Connected**
* GPC & SNB close.
79
What are the components highlighted in red?
Battery 1 (forward) & Battery 2 (aft)
80
What data is transferred from the FMS to the Avionics & Data Concentrator System?
The Landing Field Elevation (LFE).
81
What is the avionics component providing data to the CPCS?
Air Data Computer (ADC)
82
Which CPCS parameters are displayed on the MFD EICAS?
LFE, Cabin Alt, Delta-p, Cabin Rate of Climb/Descent
83
Which component of the CPCS looks like an air horn?
Out Flow Valve (OFV)
84
With GEN 1 yellow and DC Bus 1 white, what CAS message will appear?
DC BUS 1 OFF
85
Describe how the EPGDS configures if the pilot selects ENG 2 STOP/RUN/START to START.
The GPU and BATT 2 will provide power via SC2 to start Engine 2.
86
Which component of the CPCS has a red hook on top?
Positive Pressure Relief Valve (PPRV)
87
Which component of the CPCS has an orange ring around it?
Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV)
88
Which component of the CPCS looks like a yellow box?
Electronic Control & Monitoring Unit (ECMU)
89
What is the component highlighted in green?
Emergency Power Distribution Unit (EPDU)
90
What is the component highlighted in blue?
External Power Supply
91
What components are connected to the main wheels?
Fusible plugs & Wheel Speed Transducers.
92
What does the BLEED switch control in the aircraft?
The PRSOVs and Ram Air valve.
93
What does it mean if a contactor is *closed*?
The switch is ‘on’ and current can flow.
94
What is this diagram depicting?
**Engine 2 start from GPU and BATT 2**
* BTC 1 open;
* SBC open;
* BTC 2 open;
* QSC open;
* SC2 open.
95
What is this diagram depicting?
**Engine 1 start from GEN 2 and BATT 2**
* SBC open;
* SC1 & SC2 closed;
* QSC closed;
* BTC1 & BTC2 open;
* GLC open.
96
What is this diagram depicting?
**Generators On Line**
* SBC closed;
* GLC1 & GLC2 closed;
* BTC2 closed;
* BTC1 open.
97
What is this diagram depicting?
**GEN 1 FAIL (in flight)**
* GLC1 open;
* BTC1 close;
* SBC open.
98
What contactor is affected by the GEN 1 switch?
GLC 1
99
What contactor is affected by the GPU switch?
GPC
100
What contactor is affected by the BUS TIE switch?
BTC1 & BTC2
101
What contactor is affected by the BATT 1 switch?
BC1 & BC2
102
Which contactors are **CLOSED** in normal flight?
* BC1 & BC2;
* EBC1;
* BTC2;
* GLC1 & GLC2;
* SBC.
103
Which contactors are **OPEN** in normal flight?
* EBC2;
* BTC1;
* GPC;
* SC1 & SC2;
* QSC.
104
Which contactors are **CLOSED** in an electrical emergency?
* BC1 & BC2;
* EBC2.
105
Which contactors are **OPEN** in an electrical emergency?
* EBC1;
* BTC1 & BTC2;
* QSC;
* GLC1 & GLC2;
* SC1 & SC2;
* GPC;
* SBC.
106
Which contactors are **CLOSED** with the GPU connected?
* BC1 & BC2;
* EBC1;
* BTC1 & BTC2;
* GPC;
* SBC.
107
Which contactors are **OPEN** with the GPU connected?
* EBC2;
* GLC1 & GLC2;
* SC1 & SC2;
* QSC.
108
Which contactors are **CLOSED** with a GEN 1 failure?
* BC1 & BC2;
* EBC1;
* BTC1 & BTC2;
* GLC2.
109
Which contactors are **OPEN** with a GEN 1 failure?
* EBC2;
* GLC1;
* SC1 & SC2;
* GPC;
* SBC.
110
What does the CKPT FAN switch control in the aircraft?
Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator
111
What does the CABIN FAN switch control in the aircraft?
Cabin (Aft) Evaporator
112
What does the Air Conditioning MODE switch control in the aircraft?
* Ground Cooling Fan;
* Cabin (Aft) Evaporator;
* Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator;
* Compressor and DC Electric Motor Module.
113
What does the CKPT TEMP switch control in the aircraft?
* TMV (Temp Management[?] Valve);
* Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator.
113
What does the CABIN TEMP switch control in the aircraft?
* TMV (Temp Management[?] Valve);
* Cabin (Aft) Evaporator.
114
What does the Air Conditioning TEMP switch control in the aircraft?
* TMV (Temp Management[?] Valve);
* Cockpit (Fwd) Evaporator;
* Cabin (Aft) Evaporator.
115
How does the EPGDS configure if the pilot selects ENG 2 STOP/RUN/START to START?
The SBC opens, and GPU and BATT 2 provide power via SC2 to start ENG 2.
116
What avionics components are indicated?
(anti-clockwise from the top)
1. ADF;
2. CVDR;
3. ADC 1;
4. AHRS 1;
5. XPDR;
6. TCAS II;
7. RADALT;
8. DME;
9. GIA 1;
10. Aileron, rudder, & elevator servos;
11. GEA 1;
12. GEA 2;
13. GEA 3;
14. GIA 2;
15. AHRS 2;
16. ADC 2.
