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Stage 2 Cheat sheets > SBA extra > Flashcards

SBA extra Flashcards

1
Q

Rituximab is an anti-CD20 biologic. Identify which condition it would be most useful in treating
A. Anaphylaxis in response to peanut exposure
B. B-cell lymphoma
C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency
E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the pharynx

A

B
CD20 is only expressed on B cells
Kills cancer cells by apoptosis via NK cells

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2
Q

Which of the following cytokines would induce polarisation of TH17 cells?

A.	IFN-γ 
B.	IL-4 
C.	IL-12 
D.	IL-17
E.	TGF-β
A

E

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3
Q

Benzodiazepines act as

A.	Inverse agonists 
B.	Negative allosteric modulators 
C.	Non-competitive antagonists 
D.	Partial agonists 
E.	Positive allosteric modulators
A

E

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4
Q

The dietary reference value (DRV) for adult daily intake of fibre is

A.	10g 
B.	15g 
C.	20g 
D.	25g 
E.	30g
A

E

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5
Q

The dietary reference value (DRV) for child aged 2-5 daily intake of fibre is

A.	10g 
B.	15g 
C.	20g 
D.	25g 
E.	30g
A

B

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6
Q

The dietary reference value (DRV) for child aged 11-15 daily intake of fibre is

A.	10g 
B.	15g 
C.	20g 
D.	25g 
E.	30g
A

D

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7
Q

Which of the following drugs do not potentiate the effects of Warfarin?

A.	Aspirin 
B.	Ibuprofen 
C.	Metronidazole
D.	Miconazole 
E.	Nystatin
A

E

Antibiotics inhibit reduction of Vit K

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8
Q

Dobutamine is a β1 agonist. It would therefore be most useful in the treatment of

A.	Asthma 
B.	Glaucoma 
C.	Heart failure 
D.	Tachycardia 
E.	Xerostomia
A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following bones is a simple, intramembranous bone?

A.	Ethmoid  
B.	Frontal 
C.	Malleus 
D.	Maxilla 
E.	Zygomatic
A

E

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10
Q

Which of the following bones is a simple, endochondral bone?

A.	Ethmoid  
B.	Frontal 
C.	Malleus 
D.	Maxilla 
E.	Zygomatic
A

C

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11
Q

Which of the following bones is a complex bone formed from 2 or more endochondral elements?

A.	Ethmoid  
B.	Frontal 
C.	Malleus 
D.	Maxilla 
E.	Zygomatic
A

A

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12
Q

Which of the following bones is a complex bone formed from 2 or more intramembranous elements?

A.	Ethmoid  
B.	Frontal 
C.	Malleus 
D.	Maxilla 
E.	Zygomatic 
F.     Sphenoid
A

D

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13
Q

Which of the following bones is a complex bone formed from endochondral and intramembranous elements?

A.	Ethmoid  
B.	Frontal 
C.	Malleus 
D.	Maxilla 
E.	Zygomatic 
F.     Sphenoid
A

F

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14
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tests could be used to diagnose bullous pemphigoid?

A.	ELISA 
B.	Flow cytometry 
C.	Indirect immunofluorescence 
D.	Intradermal skin test 
E.	Turbidimetry
A

C

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15
Q

Metyrapone is a commonly used treatment for

A.	Addison’s disease 
B.	Cushing’s syndrome 
C.	Grave’s disease 
D.	Myasthenia gravis 
E.	Type 2 diabetes mellitus
A

B

Inhibits cortisol production

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16
Q

By what age should bottle-feeding be discouraged in infants?

A.	6 months 
B.	12 months 
C.	1.5 years 
D.	2 years 
E.	5 years
A

B

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17
Q

Below are the INR values for patients A, B, C, D and E on warfarin therapy. Which patient has an INR value within the optimum range?

A.	Patient A – INR = 1.2 
B.	Patient B – INR = 2.9 
C.	Patient C – INR = 4.8 
D.	Patient D – INR = 6.2 
E.	Patient E – INR = 8.3
A

B

INR should be between 2 and 4

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18
Q

A patient comes onto clinic complaining that their mandibular denture is digging into their soft tissue every time they chew. One possible solution would be to make a denture liner. During this process you would

A.	Add a plasticiser 
B.	Add a retarder 
C.	Add a seeding agent 
D.	Do stress relief annealing 
E.	Homogenise
A

A

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19
Q

Which of the following is not recommended in early infants due to the presence of phytoestrogens?

A.	Breastmilk 
B.	Hypoallergenic formula milk 
C.	Semi-skimmed cow’s milk 
D.	Skimmed cow’s milk 
E.	Soya milk
A

E

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20
Q

Growth of the maxilla during development would not involve

A. Bone remodelling of the alveolar processes
B. Bone remodelling of the hard palate
C. Bony deposition at the anterior surface of the nasomaxillary complex
D. Bony deposition at the zygomatic and frontal sutures
E. Growth at the posterior surface of the maxillary tuberosities

A

C

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21
Q

Which of the following factors is least likely to contribute to the high rate of burnout in dental professionals?

A. Coping with short time allocations per patient
B. Dealing with anxious patients
C. Maintaining difficult postures during treatment
D. Making complex treatment decisions
E. Making hospital referrals

A

E

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22
Q

Which of the following is an example of passive immunisation?

A. Creating vaccines using purified recombinant surface antigens to Hepatitis B
B. Giving a snake-bite victim the antiserum against the snake’s venom
C. Having a faster T cell response upon second exposure of a particular strain of flu
D. Some patients having natural resistance to HIV due to a rare mutation in the CCR5 gene
E. Variolation therapy to prevent smallpox infection

A

B

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23
Q

Which heat treatment involves converting martensitic steel to pearlite?

A.	Homogenisation 
B.	Hot work 
C.	Order hardening 
D.	Precipitation hardening 
E.	Tempering 
F.     Quenching
G.    Heating
A

E

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24
Q

Which heat treatment involves converting pearlite to austenite?

A.	Homogenisation 
B.	Hot work 
C.	Order hardening 
D.	Precipitation hardening 
E.	Tempering 
F.     Quenching
G.    Heating
A

G

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25
Q

Which heat treatment involves converting austenite to martensite?

A.	Homogenisation 
B.	Hot work 
C.	Order hardening 
D.	Precipitation hardening 
E.	Tempering 
F.     Quenching
G.    Heating
A

F

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26
Q 
Martensite is
A. Tough, malleable
B. Hard, brittle
C. Soft, ductile
D. Hard, malleable
A

B

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27
Q

The reduced enamel epithelium (REE) is formed from

A. Ameloblast layer and primary enamel cuticle
B. Outer and inner enamel epithelia
C. Outer enamel epithelium and the primary enamel cuticle
D. Papillary layer and ameloblast layer
E. Regression of Nasmyth’s membrane

A

D

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28
Q

Which of the following routes of infection transmission is the least relevant to dental practice?

A.	Implantation 
B.	Ingestion
C.	Inhalation 
D.	Injection 
E.	Inunction
A

E = Rubbing

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29
Q

Which of the following is an example of a type IV autoimmune reaction?

A.	Bullous pemphigoid 
B.	Goodpasture’s syndrome 
C.	Multiple sclerosis 
D.	Myasthenia Gravis 
E.	Systemic lupus erythematous
A

C

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30
Q

Which of the following could not be interpreted from a graph of stress against strain?

A.	Hardness
B.	Proof stress 
C.	Proportional limit 
D.	Ultimate compressive/tensile strength 
E.	Young’s modulus
A

A

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31
Q

Which of the following enamel proteins form nanospheres during the secretory stage of amelogenesis?

A.	Ameloblastine 
B.	Amelogenin 
C.	Enamelin 
D.	Enamelysin 
E.	Tuftulin
A

B

32
Q

Which of the following indices quantifies the amount of dental plaque by observing its presence or absence for each tooth?

A.	Basic erosive wear examination (BEWE)
B.	Basic periodontal examination (BPE) 
C.	DMFT 
D.	Plaque coverage index 
E.	Silness and Loe plaque index
A

D

33
Q

Which of the following indices quantifies the amount of dental plaque by giving it a score between 0 and 3?

A.	Basic erosive wear examination (BEWE)
B.	Basic periodontal examination (BPE) 
C.	DMFT 
D.	Plaque coverage index 
E.	Silness and Loe plaque index
A

E

34
Q

Which of the following is a method of cold working by being pulled through a die?

A.	Casting 
B.	Drawing 
C.	Forging 
D.	Milling 
E.	Rolling
A

B and E

35
Q

Which of the following is a method of cold working by heating and hammering?

A.	Casting 
B.	Drawing 
C.	Forging 
D.	Milling 
E.	Rolling
A

C

36
Q

What is the function of cold working?

A

Increase mechanical properties (hardness and strength)

37
Q

Identify the cytokine which is least likely to be involved in the viral response

A.	IFN-β 
B.	IL-2 
C.	IL-6
D.	IL-12 
E.	TNF-α
A

C

38
Q

For inhalation anaesthetics, high potency and fast recovery would be achieved by using a drug with

A. High blood:gas coefficient and high EC50
B. High blood:gas coefficient and high oil:gas coefficient
C. High blood:gas coefficient and low oil:gas coefficient
D. Low blood:gas coefficient and high oil:gas coefficient
E. Low blood:gas coefficient and low oil:gas coefficient

A

D

39
Q

The lateronasal process would contribute to which of the following facial structures?

A.	Alar base of nose 
B.	Lateral part of upper lip 
C.	Lower lip 
D.	Philtrum 
E.	Primary palate
A

A

40
Q

Calculate the plasma clearance rate of Warfarin, given that it has a volume of distribution of 8L, and a half-life of approximately 40 hours.

A.	0.2 L/hr 
B.	138.5 L/hr 
C.	138.5 ml/hr 
D.	320 L/hr
E.	320 ml/hr
A

C

41
Q

Which treatment would improve the corrosion resistance of a solid solution?

A.	Homogenisation 
B.	Hot work 
C.	Order hardening 
D.	Precipitation hardening 
E.	Tempering 
F.     Quenching
A

A

42
Q

Which treatment leads to coring?

A.	Homogenisation 
B.	Hot work 
C.	Order hardening 
D.	Precipitation hardening 
E.	Tempering 
F.     Quenching
A

F

43
Q

Identify the gene family responsible for specifying the neural crest contribution of the styloid process

A.	Barx 
B.	Dlx 
C.	Hox 
D.	Msx 
E.	Pax
A

C

44
Q

Which of the following organisms might you find forming mycelia?

A.	Candida albicans 
B.	Helicobacter pylori  
C.	Porphyromonas gingivalis 
D.	Staphylococcus aureus 
E.	Streptococcus gordonii
A

A

45
Q

Timolol is a β2 antagonist. Timolol is therefore most likely to be useful in treating

A.	Asthma 
B.	Atrial fibrillation 
C.	Excess weight gain 
D.	Glaucoma 
E.	Xerostomia
A

D

46
Q

Identify the material that can increase fluoride in the oral environment through leaching

A.	Amalgam 
B.	Composite 
C.	Glass ionomer cement 
D.	Gypsum 
E.	Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)
A

C

47
Q

Identify the cell type that produces acid phosphatase and lysozomal enzymes?

A.	Hypertrophic chondroblasts  
B.	Osteoblasts 
C.	Osteoclasts 
D.	Proliferating chondroblasts 
E.	Stratum intermedium
A

C

48
Q

Which of the following involves mechanically cutting out shapes from a sheet of metal with a sharp blade?

A.	Casting 
B.	Drawing 
C.	Forging 
D.	Milling 
E.	Rolling
A

D

49
Q

In which of following scenarios is the individual exhibiting dental fear?

A. An advertisement for a new local dental practice appears on TV. Brian has to change the channel, as it reminds him of his dental appointment in two weeks’ time
B. James is in the waiting room for his root canal treatment appointment and his heart is beating faster than normal
C. John is told by his dentist that he can be booked in at some point next week to get impressions taken. He goes quiet, because he has heard that getting impressions taken is a really uncomfortable experience
D. Sarah listens to her friend talk about her recent dental appointment and gets butterflies in her stomach
E. Whilst at the dentist, Tina cries in the chair when the dentist opens the instrument tray

A

E

50
Q

At which stage of embryological development do the palatal shelves fuse anteriorly with the nasal septum and primary palate?

A.	6 weeks in utero
B.	7 weeks in utero
C.	9 weeks in utero
D.	12 weeks in utero
E.	18 weeks in utero
A

C

51
Q

Which of the following drugs can be classified as a ‘chemotherapeutic agent’?

A.	H1 receptor antagonist 
B.	Heparin 
C.	Ibuprofen 
D.	Miconazole 
E.	Sulphonylureas
A

D

52
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the recrystallisation temperature (RcT) is true?

A. Casting requires heating to above the RcT
B. Diffusion rate within grains is high below the RcT
C. Grain growth can occur below the RcT
D. Homogenisation is most effective when done above the RcT
E. The melting point of a metal is approximately 30% of its RcT

A

A

53
Q

The Turku studies involved replacing dietary sucrose almost completely with xylitol and analysing the incremental DMFT scores after 2 years in comparison to a control group. The Turku studies were

A.	Case-control studies 
B.	Cross-sectional studies 
C.	Enamel slab studies 
D.	Intervention studies 
E.	Plaque pH studies
A

D

54
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the enamel knot form?

A.	6 weeks in utero
B.	7 weeks in utero
C.	9 weeks in utero
D.	12 weeks in utero
E.	18 weeks in utero
A

D

55
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the primary epithelial band form?

A.	6 weeks in utero
B.	7 weeks in utero
C.	9 weeks in utero
D.	12 weeks in utero
E.	18 weeks in utero
A

A

56
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the dental and vestibular lamina form?

A.	6 weeks in utero
B.	7 weeks in utero
C.	9 weeks in utero
D.	12 weeks in utero
E.	18 weeks in utero
A

B

57
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the tooth bud form?

A

8 weeks i.u

58
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the cap stage form?

A

11 weeks i.u

59
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the late cap stage form?

A.	6 weeks in utero
B.	7 weeks in utero
C.	9 weeks in utero
D.	12 weeks in utero
E.	18 weeks in utero
A

D

60
Q

At which stage in embryological development does the early bell stage form?

A

14 i.u

61
Q

Which of the following is unlikely to be a potential side effect of using D2 antagonists in the treatment of schizophrenia?

A.	Breast development in men 
B.	Disorganised thoughts 
C.	Galactorrhoea 
D.	Involuntary lip-smacking 
E.	Muscle rigidity
A

B

62
Q

Which of the following is an EPS from D2 antagonists? (more than 1)

A.	Breast development in men 
B.	Disorganised thoughts 
C.	Galactorrhoea 
D.	Involuntary lip-smacking 
E.	Muscle rigidity
A

D and E

63
Q

Which of the following is a side effect as a result of interference with tuberoinfundibulnar pathway?

A.	Breast development in men 
B.	Disorganised thoughts 
C.	Galactorrhoea 
D.	Involuntary lip-smacking 
E.	Muscle rigidity
A

A and C

64
Q

Which pathway is over activated in schizophrenia?

a) nigrostriatal
b) mesiocortical
c) tuberoinfundibulnar

A

B

65
Q

Which pathway causes EPS due to D2 antagonism?

a) nigrostriatal
b) mesiocortical
c) tuberoinfundibulnar

A

A

66
Q

Which pathway is important in milk production?

a) nigrostriatal
b) mesiocortical
c) tuberoinfundibulnar

A

C

67
Q

Other then D2 what receptors do typical anti-psychotics have affinity for?

A

H1 = sedation
M1 = dry mouth
Alpha 1 = hypotension

68
Q

How do atypical anti-psychotics differ from typicals?

A

Much faster dissociation rate from D2 so the drug can be displaced by physiological bursts of DA - less EPS

69
Q

Which are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
A. Halluncinations, disorder of thoughts, paranoia
B. Blunted emotions, social withdrawal, loss of energy

A

A

70
Q

Which of the following is most likely to encourage intermetallic formation in an alloy?

A. Differences in atomic radii size <15%
B. Differences in atomic radii size >65%
C. Differences in crystal structure of the components
D. Differences in electronegativity of components
E. Differences in relative atom valency

A

D

71
Q

Which of the following scenarios is an example of extinction behaviour?

A. A dental practitioner calms a patient who is struggling to cope in the dental chair, but doesn’t praise them
B. A dentist gives a 4-year-old girl a sticker after getting fissure sealants placed
C. A dentist tells a younger patient that she’s disappointed in him for eating so much sugar, hoping that the patient stops eating as much sugar
D. A mother tells her 18-year-old son that she never went to the dentist after leaving home, and so the son fails to make dental appointments when moving out to study at university
E. A patient is anxious about their upcoming dental appointment. They phone to cancel and feel better immediately.

A

A

72
Q

Which of the following types of nerve ending are not found in the periodontal ligament?

A.	Coiled type 
B.	Encapsulated spindle type 
C.	Free-ending 
D.	Pacinian corpuscles
E.	Ruffini’s corpuscles
A

D

73
Q

Which of the following is involved in the production of hypothiocyanous acid (HOSCN)?

A.	Lactoperoxidase 
B.	MG2 
C.	Proline-rich proteins 
D.	Salivary agglutinin 
E.	Statherin
A

A

74
Q

Which of the following dietary acids has the least erosive potential?

A.	Carbonic 
B.	Citric 
C.	Lactic 
D.	Phosphoric 
E.	Tartaric
A

A

75
Q

Which of the following organisms produces a powerful neurotoxin capable of blocking neurotransmitter release?

A.	Clostridium difficile 
B.	Clostridium tetani 
C.	Helicobacter pylori 
D.	Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E.	Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi
A

B

76
Q

Setting time for light activated composite?

A

60s

77
Q

Setting time for chemically activated composite?

A

5 mins

Stage 2 Cheat sheets (9 decks)

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