MFD Flashcards

1
Q

Purpose of Koch’s postulates?

A

Scientific approach to finding the cause of infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Koch’s Postulates

A
  1. Organism must be present in every case of disease and not present in health
  2. Organism must be isolated in pure culture
  3. Isolated organism must cause disease in suitable animal
  4. Organism must be re-isolated from infected animal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is Koch’s postulates not possible to fulfil (relating to each step)?

A
  1. Asymptomatic carriers e.g. cholera
  2. Viruses could not be cultured in 1900s and prions are still hard to culture. Some infections are poly microbial
  3. Suitable animal may not be available and may not be representative of humans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Koch’s postulate cannot be applied when: (5)

A

No infecting species detected
Bacteria cannot be grown in culture
No suitable animal model available
More than one species of bacterium involved
The level of species rather than the presence of the species is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How has Koch’s postulates changed in molecular biology era?
Positives

How has this development changed views on what infectious disease are?

A

DNA analysis is often used to determine the infectious species (PCR, hybridisation, sequencing)

  • this circumvents need for isolation
  • very sensitive and often detects even in absence of disease
  • may be quantitative (can tell you how much there is)

Infectious disease now regarded as imbalances in microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is latex agglutination used for?

A

Antigen detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does latex agglutination work?

A

Latex article is coated in antibodies specific for the capsular polysaccharide antigen of the bacterium, this causes agglutination of the sample (positive result)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is latex agglutination better than growing on carbohydrate agar?

A

It is quicker and cheaper (don’t need to wait for it to grow) and very specific
Can be useful if patient has received antibiotic treatment so the organisms appear morphologically unidentifiably in sample and may not grow in culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of antigen is latex agglutination used to detect?

A

Legionella in urne

Streptococcus Pneumoniae in CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Advantages of latex agglutination?

A

Quick
Cheap
Specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is critical pH of mouth?

A

Approx 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why do people have different critical pH?

A

Critical pH dependent on calcium and phosphate concentration in saliva which is dependent on individuals saliva flow rate, this differs dramatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the 3 plaque hypothesis?

A

Specific plaque hypothesis
Non-specific plaque hypothesis
Ecological plaque hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Specific plaque hypothesis

A

Disease caused by single microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Non-specific plaque hypothesis

A

Disease caused by amount of plaque present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ecological plaque hypothesis

A

Disease caused by interactions of specific micro-organisms with the microbial community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal pH of the mouth?

A

Approximately 6.2-7.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens if HA left in pH7?

Why does the temperature rise?

A

HA normally lives at pH 6.5
Increase in pH will shift equilibrium to the left and increase bond making
Exothermic reaction = increase in temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Function of peptidoglycan?

A

Forms cell wall of bacteria
Provides structure and resists osmotic effects of cytoplasm
Involved in binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Opportunistic pathogen

A

Pathogen that grows in an environment not normally available in the host e.g. weakened immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What agents aren’t killed by sterilisation?

A

Prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does antibiotic resistance occur?

A

Bacteria in human body, some are more resistant than others
Antibiotics kills the susceptible strain and the resistant strains live
Resistant strains replicate
Resistance spreads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Intrinsic resistance

A

Innate property of bacterium seen in all strains e.g. G-ve to beta lactic ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acquired resistance

A

Resistance selected by antibiotic use e.g penicillin and staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Cross resistance
Resistance to one AB leads to resistance to another (in the same class)
26
Multi-resistance
Resistance to several AB via independent mechanisms
27
Why is vancomycin and neomycin used int he agar to select for fusobacterium?
Fusobacterium have innate resistance to vancomycin and neomycin Vanco = too large to cross the G-ve outer membrane Neo = needs an active election transport chain for uptake, anaerobic bacteria do not have these
28
How is resistance transferred?
Mutation Tranformation Transduction Conjugation
29
Transformation?
Cell lysis DNA into environment Taken up into bacteria and incorporated into their DNA
30
Transduction?
Viruses infect bacteria cell, incorporate parts of DNA into their genome, kill cell and spread
31
Conjugation?
Pili | Donor cell contains plasmid and pili, makes contact with host and transfers
32
Main mechanism of resistance (3)
Modification of AB Modification of target Preventing drug reaching target
33
Mode of action of penicillin
Inhibit transpeptidase forming cross linked in peptidoglycan cell wall (between NAM and NAG as glycine) Bacteria swell and rupture
34
Why is amoxicillin better than penicillin?
Wider range of action Effective against G-ve as it contains amino group to penetrate outer membrane Longer duration of action
35
Mechanism of action for sulphonamides?
act as a false substrate for dihydropterate synthetase in folate synthesis
36
How are sulphonamides selective to bacteria?
Bacteria have to make own folate = intracellular | Humans get it from diet
37
Nature of sulphonamides? a) Bacteriocidal b) Bacteriostatic c) Bacteriolytic
B Bacteriostatic
38
Mode of action of flouroquiolones?
Inhibit DNA gyrase in G-ve and DNA topioisomerase in G+ve | stop DNA replication
39
Mode of action for macrolides
Block protein synthesis by blocking translocation on large ribosomal subunit
40
Mode of action for tetracylines
``` Small subunit Block elongation (join gin of AA) ```
41
Structural features of archaea
Prokaryote | No nucleus, single celled, no internal organelles, coiled ring of DNA
42
How to take sample of archaea organisms from mouth?
Anaerobes so sub-gingival swab
43
Difference between specificity and sensitivity?
``` Specificity = proportion of people who test negative and remain disease free Sensitivity = proportion of people who test positive and develop disease ```
44
``` Calculating specificity and sensitivity from table Disease Yes No +ve a b Test -ve c d ```
``` Sensitivity = a/a+c Specificity = d/d+b ```
45
2 molecular components contributing to fighting fungal infections
Azoles | Polyenes
46
How can dental clinicians avoid spread of antibiotic resistance?
Follow up to date prescription guidance Don't give as a preventative measure Prioritise local measures Inform patient on options, risks and risks on over prescribing
47
Why is saliva hypotonic?
Resorption of Na+ and Cl- is greater than secretion of K+ and HCO3- in salivary duct Duct cells are impermeable to water so water stays within the lumen reducing the concentration of the solute in the saliva
48
Why do B lactase only work on growing bacteria?
Transpeptidase is not active in quiescent bacteria
49
Function of MacConkey agar | Positive test, Negative test
Differentiate between bacteria that can ferment lactose and those that cannot Select for G-ve enterobacteria using bile salts If fermenting lactose = produces acid = pH indicator turns red If fermenting proteins = produce alkali substance = pH indicator = yellow
50
Why does number of CFU not equal total number of bacteria?
Some cells may be dead/non-vaibale/unable to grow on particular medium Some cells clump together or form chains = may appear as one CFU
51
3 red complex bacteria?
P. gingivalis T. denticola T. forsythia
52
Orange complex bacteria?
Fusobacterium
53
Obligate anaerobes | Environment?
Unable to live in areas where there is oxygen | Subgingivally
54
2 bacteria in Mutans Streptococci?
Strep. Mutans | Strep. Sobrinus
55
Example of bacteria that does beta haemolysis? | Appearance on agar?
Streptococcus pyogenes | Transclucent
56
Example of bacteria that does alpha haemolysis? | Appearance on agar?
Streptococcus Gordonii | Red with greenish tinge
57
Example of bacteria that does gamma haemolysis? | Appearance on agar?
Staphylococcus epidermis | No haemolysis = red
58
4 labels on batch curve of bacteria?
``` Lag = slow growth because small number of bacteria Exponential = growth increases quickly Stationary = growth = death = limited availability of nutrients Death = too many bacteria and absence of nutrients = reduction ```
59
2 compounds causing halitosis?
Volatile sulphur compounds e.g. hydrogen sulphide | Protein and amino acid metabolites e.g. skatole/cadaverine
60
What is a plasmid?
Small circular string of DA in cytoplasm, containing useful but not essential genes for survival
61
Endotoxin
Bacterial virulence factor = LPS = associated with cell wall of G-ve When cell dies Lipid A from LPS = pro-inflammatory
62
Definition of neurotoxin
Exotoxin that destroys nervous tissue
63
2 types of exotoxins secreted by bacteria?
Tetanus toxin and botulinum
64
Faculatative anaerobe
Can use oxygen to make ATP but when oxygen is not present can switch to fermentation
65
How do Mutans polymers support plaque?
Increase adhesion and survival of mutant streptococci
66
What is the Snyder test used to determine?
Susceptibility to caries - selects acidogenic bacteria e.g. lactobacilli
67
Which carbohydrate is fermented in Snyder test?
Glucose
68
How does fluoride affect critical pH?
Reduce so the environment can be more acidic before dissolution
69
Main virulence factor of Aa?
``` Leukotoxin LPS adhesions (fimbriae) Cytolethal distending toxin Proteases ```
70
FAA agar? | Identifies?
Fastisious anaerobe agar? | Non-selective anaerobes
71
How can FAA be made selective fro fusobacterium?
Add vancomycin and neomycin = resistant to both of these (too large and doesn't have the transporter)
72
Blood agar? | Identifies?
Nutrient-rich, non-selective
73
TYCS agar? | Identifies?
Tryptone Yeats Cysteine S. mutans and other streptococci by having high sucrose levels = glucans Distinguished between S. mutans and S. sanguinis
74
MSB agar? | Identifies?
Mitis Salivarius Bacitracin | Distinguish between S. Mitis and S> salivarius
75
What enzyme tests distinguish a) E.coli b) S. aureus c) S. salivarius
a) -ve urease, +ve catalase, -ve DNAase b) -ve urease, +ve catalase, +ve DNAase, +ve coagulase c) +urease, -ve catalase, -ve DNAse
76
Virulence factors of a) T. Forsythia b) T. denticola c) P. gingivalis d) S, aureus e) Aa f) C. albicans
a) Glycosylated S layer to hide from immune cells b) Flagellum and majro sheath protein c) proteases, LPS d) Exotoxins e) leukotoxin f) hyphae formation and phenotypic switching
77
On blood agar what will appear red when looking at it? Bacteria?
Due to alpha haemolysis = S. Gordonii
78
Which antibiotic causes fluorescence?
Tetracycline
79
What is calculus?
Plaque depositions that irritate the human and cause inflammation
80
What is added to toothpastes to reduce calculus formation?
Anti-bacterial agents
81
MIC | MBC
Minimum inhibitory concentration | Minimum bactericidal concentration
82
Sections of LPS
Lipid A = inflammatory response | O antigen
83
What bacteria brows on NaCl agar?
Staphyloccus
84
How is cholera transmitted?
Food or water that have been contaminated with faeces from contaminated person
85
What do you clean clinical surfaces with?
Disinfectant
86
What would you clean a blood spillage with?
Wipe area with water and detergent until visibly clean and the use sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
87
What produce black colonies on blood agar?
P. gingivalis due to porphoryn pigments containing heam
88
Main etiological factor of caries
Microbial dysbiosis, bacterial fermentation
89
2 main spore forming bacteria
Bacillus anthracsis, Clostridium difficile
90
What component of enamel pellicle functions by stabilising calcium and phosphates with oral environment?
Proline rich proteins | Slatherin
91
What inhibits growth by binging enzyme co-factor?
Lactoferrin
92
When sugar in low quantities, what is a virulence factor of mutans?
Antigen I and II can bind lots of structures with high affinty
93
Action of antigen I/II on streptococci?
Mediate adhesion in pellicle and binds bacteria e.g. p. gingivalis and Aa
94
What is chlorhexidine?
Disinfectant and antiseptic used for disinfection fo skin and surfaces
95
What is autoclaving unable to kill?
Prions
96
What procedure is used to treat a dental hand piece?
Steralisation through autoclaving (heat and pressure)
97
Prion
Misfolded proteins which form aggregates = highly resistant
98
What salivary element is a potent inhibitor of candida albicans?
Competence stimulating protein of S. mutans inhibit hype formation Lactobacillus
99
What component of s. gordonii promotes binding to Candida albicans hyphae form?
Antigen I/II
100
What contributes to pathogenicity of Staph Aureus?
Exotoxin production | Results in toxic shock syndrome
101
What bacterial component causes an acute inflammatory response?
LPS (G-ve)
102
What is CLED agar?
Cysteine, lactose, electrolyte deficienent agar
103
Why is CLED used to culture urinary microbes?
Cysteine and lactose promote the growth of the pathogens but lack of electrolytes prevents the swarming of proteus species
104
What are the selective agents of MacConkey agar? How do they work?
Bile salts and crystal violet iodine stain Inhibits growth of Gram +ve Selects for gram -ve Because G-ve have outer membrane which decreases the permeability to bile salts - bile salts can't cause protein aggregation
105
What is the product of tryptophan metabolism? Consequence?
Skatole | Halitosis
106
2 products of protein breakdown and the consequence?
Cadervine, Putrescine | Halitosis
107
What is BANA test used for?
Halitosis diagnosis by detecting presence of periodontal pathogens
108
What bacteria will test positive in a BANA test?
Red complex bacteria P. gingivalis T. denticola T. forsythia
109
Which bacteria is a spirochete?
T. denticola
110
Units of Ksp (solubility product?
``` (Moles/L) to the power of the number of products e.g. HA 10 Ca 6 PO3 2 OH (moles/L)18 ```
111
3 most outer layers of bacteria?
Capsule Cell wall Plasma membrane
112
Function of capsule
Protect against phagocytosis
113
Function of cell inclusion bodies?
Nutrient reserve and protect against osmotic shock
114
Function of Fimbriae Function of Flagellae Structural difference
Fimbriae = adhesion of biofilm Flagellae = motility Fimbriae are much smaller and in higher numbers
115
Microorganism responsible for stomach ulcers
Helicobacter pilori
116
Microorganism responsible for chicken pox?
Varicella zoster virus (type of herpes)
117
Microorganism responsible for cold sores?
Herpes simplex
118
Genetic structure of a) Herpes b) HIV
a) Double stranded DNA | b) Single stranded RNA
119
What is a retrovirus? | Example?
An RNA virus that inserts its DNA into the host cell changing the genome of that cell HIV
120
What 2 substances act as a buffer?
Saliva and GCF
121
What and how does staphylococcal agar select for?
Staphyloccus bacteria = high salt content
122
How does candida agar select for candida?
Low pH Chloramphenicol which inhibits bacterial growth Chromogenic substances that are cleaved by certain enzymes in the candida = different colours
123
Why does S. Aureus appear gold?
Contains staphyloxanthin
124
What makes some E coli pathogenic?
Possession of O antigen 157 or H antigen 7