Sayner Intramembranous vs Endochondral Bone Formation Flashcards

1
Q

made of specialized CT (cells and ECM)

A

bone

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2
Q

what matrix is calcified

A

bone

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3
Q

where do RBC’s develop in the bone

A

bone marrow (in diaphysis)

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4
Q

what two ions does bone act as a reservoir for

A

calcium and phosphate

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5
Q

what do you do to increase serum calcium

A

break down bone

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6
Q

looks like honeycomb; inside bone

A

trabeculae

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7
Q

part of bone that has Haversian systems (osteons)

A

cortical bone

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8
Q

surrounded by lamellae

A

osteon

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9
Q

sheets of collagen

A

lamellae

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10
Q

pink in H + E stain

A

collagen

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11
Q

composed of protein fibers (collagen) and it’s mineralized

A

extracellular matrix of bone

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12
Q

specialized cells that come from mesenchymal lineage

A

osteoprogenitor

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13
Q

mesenchymal stem cells exposed to bone morphogenic proteins (BMPs) differentiate into what cells

A

osteoprogenitor cells

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14
Q

reside on surface of bone tissue and undergo mitotic division and can differentiate into osteoblasts

A

osteoprogenitor cells

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15
Q

cells that secrete matrix and calcify matrix

A

osteoblasts

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16
Q

bone matrix that is secreted from osteoblast but NOT calcified

A

osteoid

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17
Q

osteoblasts only secrete matrix where

A

on existing bone tissue

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18
Q

growth from the outside that allows for thickness of bone to increase (deals with bone only)

A

appositional growth

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19
Q

happens when cells within matrix secrete more layers (not for bone)

A

interstitial growth

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20
Q

osteoblasts that no longer secrete matrix

A

bone lining cells

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21
Q

2 main types of bone lining cells

A

periosteal and endosteal

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22
Q

cells that lie on surface of bone

A

periosteal cells

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23
Q

cells that line internal surfaces of bone tissue

A

endosteal cells

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24
Q

osteoblast that is surrounded by matrix

A

osteocyte

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25
Q

what protein do osteoblasts secret when they secrete matrix

A

alkaline phosphatase (AlkP)

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26
Q

an increase in serum what can sometimes mean osteoblast activity

A

alkaline phosphatase

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27
Q

in bone, these occupy lacunae

A

osteocytes

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28
Q

in cartilage, these occupy lacunae

A

chondrocytes

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29
Q

one osteocyte can communicate with other osteocytes through what

A

cytoplasmic projections and gap junctions

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30
Q

how do nutrients get to bone tissue (b/c it is calcified, makes it harder)

A

fluid around osteocytes

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31
Q

blood vessels occupy this

A

osteon

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32
Q

nutrients travel from ______ through tissue then through _______ and ________

A

osteon, canaculi and lacunae

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33
Q

arrows are pointing to

A

lacuna and canaculi

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34
Q

arrows pointing to

A

osteocyte in the middle
osteoblast on outside

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35
Q

this lineage deals with bone deposition

A

mesenchymal lineage

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36
Q

this lineage deals with bone resorption and remodeling

A

hematopoetic lineage

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37
Q

remove bone tissue and are important for bone remodeling

A

osteoclasts

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38
Q

these cells are large and multi-nucleated and derived from hematopoietic stem cell

A

osteoclasts

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39
Q

these will express RANK and RANKL; will resorb bone when active

A

mature osteoclasts

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40
Q

expressed by osteoclast precursors

A

RANK

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41
Q

expressed by stromal cells

A

RANKL

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42
Q

soluble form of RANKL can be activated when released by activated ______ due to inflammation

A

T lymphocytes

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43
Q

can lead to bone resorption

A

inflammation

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44
Q

_____ binds to RANKL and blocks osteoclast differentiation and activity

A

OPG

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45
Q

mutation in OPG (osteoprotegrin) can lead to this disease

A

Juvenile’s Paget disease

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46
Q

this disease causes increase in osteoclast activity and bone turnover; weak bones and bone; hearing loss, retinopathy, and joint pain

A

Juvenile’s Paget disease

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47
Q

patient with this disease has woven bone rather than mature bone

A

Juvenile’s Paget Disease

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48
Q

osteoclasts secrete acid to release ____ and _____ from calcified bone tissue (osteolysis)

A

calcium and phosphate

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49
Q

process that involves ruffled border, acidification of matrix, digestive enzymes that end up forming Howship’s lacuna

A

bone resorption

50
Q

mutation in CLCN7 gene that encodes either chloride channel or ATP proton pump; defect in bone resorption

A

osteopetrosis

51
Q

features include dense bones (affects bone marrow function) with frequent fractures, growth retardation and recurrent illnesses

A

osteopetrosis

52
Q

patients with this suffer from anemia and recurrent infections due to abnormal bone marrow function

A

osteopetrosis

53
Q

the 2 main channels in the ruffled border that is used during bone resorption

A

chloride channel and ATP dependent proton pump

54
Q

acts on osteoblasts to regulate osteoclast activity by increasing expression of RANKL and decreasing OPG

A

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

55
Q

if serum calcium levels are low, what can be released

A

PTH to increase serum Ca2+ by bone resorption

56
Q

how PTH is used as therapy for osteoporosis?

A

intermittent PTH actually increases bone density (acts on gut to increase calcium)

57
Q

stimulates OPG and inhibits osteoclast differentiation

A

estrogen

58
Q

so if _____ levels decrease in postmenopausal women and/or in older men, what can happen

A

estrogen; osteoporosis

59
Q

binds to receptor on osteoclasts and induces inactivation protecting maternal bones

A

Calcitonin

60
Q

patients on ___________ for too long can lead to bone loss and dermal atrophy

A

glucocorticoids

61
Q

secrete osteoid and regulate matrix mineralization

A

osteoblasts

62
Q

fibrous component of ECM

A

collagen (type I)

63
Q

abnormal collagen type I leading to (BITE)-affects bones, eyes, teeth, ears

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

64
Q

this deals with a decrease in the amount of collagen type I, but still normal collagen produced

A

osteogenesis imperfecta type I

65
Q

this leads to abnormal collagen molecules being produced

A

osteogenesis imperfecta type II-IV

66
Q

vitamin C deficiency leads to this; Pro and Lys unable to hydroxylate alpha chain and crosslink

A

Scurvy

67
Q

ecchymosis, bleeding gums, and weak joints features of

A

Scurvy

68
Q

this part of ECM contains bone matrix proteins (proteoglycan macromolecules and multiadhesive glycoproteins)

A

ground substance

69
Q

when both _____ and _____ increase, crystals form

A

calcium and phosphate

70
Q

increase in hydroxyapatite crystals that co-allesce eventually form

A

mineralized matrix

71
Q

facilitates calcium absorption in the gut

A

vitamin D

72
Q

disease that deals with vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Rickets

73
Q

disease that deals with vitamin D deficiency in adults

A

osteomalacia

74
Q

bone formation

A

osteogenesis

75
Q

type of bone formation dealing with direct mineralization of the matrix; facial bones; appositional growth

A

intramembranous ossification

76
Q

type of bone formation dealing with replacement of hyaline cartilage; short and long bones

A

endochondral ossification

77
Q

immature bone that is remodeled

A

mature bone

78
Q

mesenchymal stem cells get patterning signals so facial bones know where to form; once differentiated from osteoprogenitors to osteoblasts, matrix secreted and eventually calcified form sequestered calcium from blood

A

intramembranous ossification

79
Q

mutation in gene encoding patterning protein (TREACLE) for intramembranous ossification causes what (severe craniofacial defects)

A

Treacher Collins Syndrome

80
Q

first 3 steps of this ossification includes:
1. hyaline cartilage model
2. boney collar forms in diaphysis
3. calcification of cartilage matrix

A

endochondral ossification

81
Q

3 things that happen during the 3rd phase of endochondral ossification (calcification of cartilage matrix)

A
  1. chondrocyte hypertrophy
  2. alkaline phosphatase secretion (by osteoblasts); calcification of cartilage
  3. chondrocyte apoptosis
82
Q
A

PB – periosteal bone
HC – hypertrophic cartilage cells
CM – calcified matrix
C – hyaline cartilage
JC – joint cavity

83
Q
  1. formation of primary ossification center
  2. endochondral ossification (mixed spicules)
A

last steps of endochondral ossification

84
Q

happens after bony collar forms and cells die in the middle (forming spicules)

A

formation of primary ossification center

85
Q

remnants of cartilage that osteoprogenitor cells attach to during endochondral ossification

A

spicules

86
Q
A

PB – periosteal bone
Cav – marrow cavity, which is the primary ossification center
EB – endochondral bone
C – hyaline cartilage
JC – joint cavity

87
Q

4 steps of endochondral ossification that happens after birth

A
  1. secondary ossification center
  2. loss of epiphyseal plate (distal)
  3. loss of epiphyseal plate (proximal)
  4. articular surfaces
88
Q

how does bone grow in length

A

epiphyseal plates moving in opp. directions

89
Q

when diaphysis becomes continuous w/ epiphysis

A

epiphyseal closure

90
Q

important zone of epiphyseal plate formation that deals with bone growth in length

A

zone of proliferation

91
Q

this zone deals with chondrocytes stacking up in rows and actively secreting hyaline cartilage

A

zone of proliferation

92
Q

epiphyseal plate is made of what

A

hyaline cartilage

93
Q
A

top to bottom:
zone of reserve chondrocytes
zone of proliferating chondrocytes
zone of hypertrophic chondrocytes
zone of calcification
zone of ossification

94
Q

osteoprogenitor cells into osteoblasts and secrete bone matrix then forming mixed spicules happens in this zone

A

zone of ossification

95
Q

chondrocyte proliferation regulated by:

A

GH (growth hormone)
IGF
FGFR3

96
Q

overactivity of FGFR3 blunts chondrocyte proliferation and inhibits growth; early calcification and closure of epiphyseal plates

A

Achondroplasia

97
Q

woven bone persists causing

A

Juvenile’s Paget disease

98
Q

(weak bone)

A

woven/primary bone

99
Q

strong bone

A

mature/lamellar/secondary bone

100
Q

these are found ONLY in cortical bone

A

haversian systems

101
Q

has blood vessels surrounded by lamella and have adjacent canals connected by volkmann’s canal

A

central canal/Haversion canal of osteon

102
Q
A

left to right:
volkmann’s canal
interstitial lamellae
osteon

103
Q
A

left to right:
lacunae
canaliculi
Haversion canal

104
Q

resorption and rebuilding of bone tissue

A

bone remodeling

105
Q

2 parts of bone remodeling unit

A
  1. cutting zone (osteoclasts)
  2. closing zone (osteoblasts)
106
Q

2 parts of cutting zone

A

osteoclasts and capillary loop

107
Q

2 parts of closing zone

A

osteoprogenitors
osteoblasts that deposit lamella and enclose blood vessels and nerves

108
Q
A

cortical bone on outside
trabecular on inside (spongy)

109
Q

when bone resorption exceeds deposition

A

osteoporosis

110
Q

diagnose this using bone density test and T-scores

A

osteoporosis

111
Q

what part of bone is more susceptible to osteoporosis due to higher metabolic rate and larger surface area

A

trabecular bone

112
Q

freely moving; stabilized by ligaments and tendons

A

synovial joint

113
Q

inflammation and joint pain due to wear and tear

A

osteoarthritis

114
Q

inflammation and joint pain due to systemic response

A

rheumatoid arthritis

115
Q

formed by outer CT layer and synovium

A

joint capsule

116
Q

secretes synovial fluid

A

inner synovial membrane

117
Q

megakaryoctes produce what and are where

A

platelets and in bone marrow

118
Q

cells that will be found right up against bone

A

osteoclasts

119
Q

will have distinct red granules

A

mast cells

120
Q

multiple chondrocytes in a lacunae

A

isogenous growth (a nest)

121
Q

cells that look like a clockface

A

plasma cells

122
Q

does not have perichondrium, so can’t regenerate anything

A

fibrocartilage