Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phase 3A Conditions > SAQ > Flashcards

SAQ Flashcards

1
Q

Croup:
Likely pathogen?
Management?

A

Parainfluenza virus
Single dose of IV dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Whooping cough:
Likely pathogen?
Management?

A

Bordello pertussis
Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

VIW:
Likely pathogen?
Management?

A

RSV
Supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bronchiolitis:
Likely pathogen?
Management?

A

RSV
Supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Red flags for hospital admission of children?

A

Cyanosis
Moderate/severe intercostal recessions
Apnoeas
Temp over 38 under 3 months, under 39 any age
Feeding below 50%
RR over 60
Clinical dehydration
Grunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Epiglottitis:
Pathogen?
Treatment?

A

Heamophilius influenza B
SECURE AIRWAY
Ceftriaxone and dexamethasone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chest compression ratio for different ages?

A

Neonatal 3:1
Paediatric 15:2
Adult 30:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the components of the APGAR scoring system?

A

Appearance (cyanosis)
Pulse
Grimace
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiration (RR and effort)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What pulse is checked in a child under 1 vs a child over 1?

A

Under 1: femoral
Over 1: carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Otitis media:
Pathogen?
Management?

A

Strep pneumonia
SYSTEMIC ILLNESS
NO IMPROVEMENT AFTER 3 DAYS
BILATERAL OTITIS MEDIA
HIGH FEVER
amoxicillin 5 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sound:
ASD
VSD
Patent PDA
ToF

A

1 Left upper sternal edge ejection-systolic murmur

2 Left lower sternal border pan-systolic murmur

3 Machinery murmur in the left subclavicular region

4 Ejection systolic murmur left-upper sternal border (same as ASD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for patent PDA?

A

Indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Medication for cyanotic heart defect prior to surgery?

A

Prostaglandin to preserve the PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which heart defects are cyanotic?

A

ToF
Coarctation of the aorta
Transposition of the GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GORD management?

A

Mix gaviscon into feed
PPI second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cows milk protein allergy management?

A

Hydrolysed formula
Mother avoid dairy and take a calcium supplement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the management for pyloric stenosis?

A

Pyloromyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two most common causes of gastroenteritis?

A

Noravirus and rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the first line investigation for suspected IBD?

A

Faecal calprotectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the management for crohns (acute and chronic)?

A

Acute is steroids
Chronic is azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management for UC (acute and chronic)?

A

Both it is mesalazine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first line investigation in suspected coeliac?

What confirms the diagnosis?

A

Total IgA and anti-TTG

Small bowel biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is shown on rectal biopsy in Hirschsprungs disease?

A

The absence of parasympatethic ganglion cells in the rectum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the investigation of choice for intussusseption?

A

Abdominal USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What do urine dipstick results show with respect to a UTI?
Nitrites are best indicator - treat as UTI regardless Leukocytes are also common - treat as UTI if ALSO clinical symptoms of UTI.
26
When should a child receive an abdo USS following a UTI? What are the timeframes?
If under 6 months within 6 weeks. If under 6 months and recurrent during illness. If recurrent within 6 weeks. If atypical during illness.
27
What is an MCUG scan used for?
To check for vesico-ureteric reflux. Use in under 6 months with recurrent or atypical UTI.
28
What is the management for eneuresis?
Conservative until 5 YO Enuresis alarm over 5 years Desmopressin for short term control
29
What is the nephrotic syndrome triad? Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Oedema Low albumin Proteinuria. Most common is minimal change disease.
30
What is the treatment for minimal change disease?
Prednisolone Can use diuretics for oedema.
31
What are the two causes of nephritic syndrome in children?
IgA nephropathy. Post strep glomerulonephritis.
32
What is the management for post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
Usually supportive. Need to control BP/oedema? - Antihypertensives - Diuretics
33
What is the management for IgA nephropathy?
Usually supportive. Can use steroids to slow progression.
34
What is the anaphylaxis dosage?
IM adrenaline: 500 micrograms for over 12 300 micrograms 5-12 150 micrograms under 5
35
Kawasaki's disease: Key symptoms (2)? Treatment? Key investigation?
Strawberry tongue Skin peeling on palms and soles. High dose aspirin IV immunoglobulins EchoCG
36
Measles: Key symptoms? Management?
Unvaccinated. High fever. Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa. Rash that starts on face/behind ears. Conservative Isolate for 4 days after rash appears.
37
Notifiable paediatric diseases?
Whooping cough Measles MMR HIB Haemolytic uraemic syndrome Acute viral hepatitis TB Scarlet fever Bacterial meningitis
38
Scalded skin syndrome: Presentation? Treatment?
Skin infection with the appearance of a burn. Oral Abx and fluids.
39
Hand foot and mouth disease: Key symptoms? Management? Pathogen?
Small ulcers on hands feet and around the mouth. Conservative Cocksackie A virus.
40
Roseola infantum: Key symptoms? Management? Pathogen?
Fever that settles, then a macular erythematous macular rash over the whole body. Conservative. HHV-6
41
Scarlett Fever: Key symptoms? Management? Pathogen?
Rough sandpaper rash. Strawberry tongue. Penicillin V for 10 days. 24 hours off school after starting abx. Associated with strep A.
41
Slapped cheek syndrome: Key symptoms? Management? Pathogen?
Red rash primarily focused on the cheeks. Conservative management. Parovirus B19
42
What is the cutoff age for a child being able to walk?
18 months.
43
What is the cutoff age for a child being able to sit unsupported?
9 months.
44
What is the cutoff for responsive smile?
8 weeks.
45
What age does febrile convulsion typically occur in?
6 months to 5 years.
46
What makes a febrile convulsion complex?
Over 15 mins long. Focal seizure (rather than tonic clonic) More than one seizure repeating within 24 hours or within the same febrile illness.
47
When does a febrile seizure require admission to paediatrics?
First seizure presentation. Less than 18 months old. Complex febrile seizure suspected.
48
ADHD: First line medication? What needs monitoring?
First line is methylphenidate. Monitor growth.
49
Meningitis. Most common causes in: Under 3 months 3 months to 60 Over 60
<3 months = strep B 3 months/60 YO = Nesseria meningitidis Over 60 YO = Strep pneumoniae
50
What are the most common viral causes of meningitis?
VZV HSV Enterovirus.
51
What is the management in primary care for suspected meningitis?
IM benzylpenicillin with immediate transfer.
52
What is the management for suspected bacterial meningitis in secondary care?
LP with viral PCR and blood cultures. IV antibiotics: Under 3 months or over 60 give cefotaxime and amoxicillin, if between give just cefotaxime. Consider dexamethasone if likely to be strep pneumonia.
53
Why is amoxicillin added for under 3 months old and over 60?
To cover for listeria monocytogenes.
54
What is the management of close contacts after a confirmed case of bacterial meningitis?
All close contacts for the past 7 days need a single dose of ciprofloxacin.
55
What is the treatment for viral meningitis?
Aciclovir.
56
CSF for viral vs bacterial meningitis?
Viral: Clear Normal glucose Normal/slightly raised protein Lymphocytes Culture is negative Bacterial: Cloudy Glucose is low Protein high Neutrophils Culture positive
57
What are the two special tests for meningitis?
Kernig's test - flex hip and knee and then extend leg at the knee. Look for pain. Brudzinski's test - flex chin into chest and look for involuntary flexion at the hip and knee.
58
What are the signs of meningitis in a neonate?
BULGING FONTANELLE Hypotonia Lethargy Reduced feeding
59
What is the treatment for tonic clonic seizures?
Lamotrigine/leviteracitam
60
What is the first line for focal seizures?
Lamotrigine/levetiracetam
61
What is the first line for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
62
What is the first line for myoclonic seizures?
Levetiracetam
63
What is the first line for atonic/tonic seizures?
Lamotrigine
64
What is juvenile myoclonic epilepsey?
Sudden, brief muscle contractions usually just after waking.
65
What is the alternative name for infantile spasms?
West syndrome. Poor prognosis.
66
What is the criteria for starting investigations for epilepsey?
Any more than one simple tonic-clonic seizure.
67
What are the two key investigations for epilepsy?
EEG and MRI brain.
68
How is status epilepticus managed in hospital?
ABCDE: Airway secure Give O2 Assess breathing/cardiac function. CHECK BLOOD GLUCOSE IV access IV lorazepam with a second dose after 5-10 mins if no response. IV phenytoin if still seizing.
69
What is status epilepticus?
Seizure lasting over 5 mins OR Multiple seizures without recovery between.
70
What are the three types of eating disorder?
Anorexia nervosa - Low BMI, pt feels overweight despite evidence to the contrary. Bulimia nervosa - Normal BMI. Patient has episodes of binge eating followed by purging. Binge eating disorder - high BMI. Patient has episodes where they overeat.
71
What are the key things to monitor during refeeding?
Magnesium, potassium, phosphate and glucose. ECG
72
What are the blood results for refeeding syndrome?
Low potassium Low phosphate Low magnesium Fluid overload.
73
How is bilateral undescended testes managed?
Urgent referral to paediatrics if still undescended by 6-8 weeks.
74
How is unilateral undescended testes managed?
Watch and wait for the first 6 months. Refer for surgery if still undescended.
75
When should retractile testes normalise?
During puberty.
76
What are the signs of congenital hypothyroidism?
Prolonged jaundice neonatally. Poor feeding Constipation. Reduced activity. Slow growth and development.
77
What is tested for on the newborn blood spot test?
Congenital hypothyroidism. CF. Sickle cell disease. Metabolic conditions.
78
What are the findings for congenital adrenal hyperplasia? How does a male or female present?
Low aldosterone Low cortisol High testosterone. Both: Tall for age Deep voice Earrly puberty Males: Small testicles and large penis. Females: Facial hair Primary amenorrhoea.
79
What are the key findings for androgen insensitivity syndrome?
LH:FSH ratio of at least 2:1 Raised testosterone Raised oestrogen.
80
What is the treatment for androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Bilateral orchidectomy. Oestrogen therapy.
81
What type of anaemia does iron deficiency cause?
Microcytic anaemia.
82
What type of anaemia does thalassaemia cause?
Microcytic.
83
What is screened for early in pregnancy (before 10 weeks)?
Sickle cell Thalassaemia.
84
What is screened for later in pregnancy (around 14 weeks?
Edwards syndrome Downs Syndrome Patau's syndrome
85
ITP: What is a key component of the history? Key component of the examination? FBC findings?
Recent viral illness. Non-blanching petechial rash. Isolated thrombocytopenia.
86
What is the management for ITP?
No treatment. Can use steroids if severe.
87
What is the most common paediatric leukaemia?
ALL
88
What are the blood test results for AML?
Thrombocytopenia Leukopenia Anaemia
89
What conditions are more likely for a person with Down's Syndrome (5)?
Alzheimer's disease ALL Hypothydroidism Hearing impairments Ventriculoseptal defects.
90
What are the key features of Turner Syndrome?
Wide spaced nipples Webbed neck Short stature.
91
What is the genetic term for turner syndrome?
45XO
92
What heart defect is associated with Turner's syndrome?
Bicuspid aortic valve (most common). Coarctation of the aorta.
93
What is the genetic term for down syndrome?
Trisomy 21
94
What are the clinical features of Down's syndrome?
Hypotonia Brachycephaly (small head) Short stature Short neck Single palmar creases Epicanthic folds
95
What does the combined test screen for?
Down's syndrome Edwards Syndrome Patau's syndrome.
96
What are the findings on a combined test suggestive of: Down Syndrome? Edwards Syndrome? Patau's syndrome?
Nucheal translucency over 6mm - beta HCG high - PAPPA low For Patau and Edwards, same but with lower bHCG
97
What is the step after a positive combined test?
Non-invasive prenatal screening test: Amniocentesis OR chorionic villous sampling
98
What is the genetic termonology for Edward's syndrome?
Trisomy 18.
99
What are the key characteristics of Edwards syndrome?
Rockerbottom feet. Low set ears. Overlapping fingers.
100
What are the key characteristics of Patau syndrome?
Microcephaly Cleft lip/palate Polydactyly
101
What are the characteristics of fragile X?
Macrocephaly Long face Large ears
102
What is an easy way to remember the symptoms of Noonan syndrome?
Male version of Turner syndrome. Webbed neck Short stature Pectus excavatum.
103
What are the characteristics of William's syndrome?
Short stature Learning difficulties Friendy, extroverted personality.
104
What is the genetic pattern for cystic fibrosis? First symptom? Gold standard test?
Autosomal recessive Meconium illeus Sweat test
105
What is the most common form of muscular dystrophy in children? What is the key sign?
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy Gower's sign - using hands on legs to stand from seating due to weakness.
106
What are the symptoms of septic arthritis?
Systemic symptoms - fever, lethargy, vomiting etc.
107
How should septic arthritis be managed?
Admission to hospital. Joint aspiration and culture. Empirical IV Abx then adjust accordingly to sensitivities.
108
What is the pathophysiology of perthes disease?
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
109
What are the XR findings for perthes disease?
Widening of the joint space.
110
What age for an actue limp requires urgent referral?
Under 3 years old.
111
What is the management for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
USS of both hips. Pavlik harness under 6 months. Over 6 months surgical correction.
112
HSP: Symptoms? Management?
Purpura on buttocks/lower limbs. Abdo pain Joint pain Manage with NSAIDs Can use steroids if unresolving.
113
What criteria is used to assess the likelihood of septic arthritis in children?
Kocher criteria.
114
When is anti-D prophylacis given to the mother?
Miscarriage over 12 weeks. Abdominal trauma during pregnancy. At birth if the baby is rhesus +ve.
115
What is the treatment for jaundice of a baby?
Phototherapy.
116
When does newborn respiratory distress syndrome typically occur?
Under 32 weeks gestation.
117
What is the XR appearance of respiratory distress syndrome?
Ground glass appearance.
118
What is the management of newborn resp distress syndrome? Long term complications?
Artificial surfactant. Assisted ventilation. Chronic lung disease Retinopathy of prematurity
119
Meconium aspiration syndrome: Key features (XR etc.) Management
Meconium stained liquor XR: - Hyperinflation - Patchy opacification - Consolidation Oxygen Assisted ventilation Abx in case of infection.
120
What is the treatment for hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy?
Therapeutic hypothermia.
121
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: Pathophysiology? XR findings? Management?
Delayed resorption of fluid after birth. Most common after C-sections. Chest XR findings: - Hyperinflated lungs - Fluid level. Management: - Oxygen - Assisted ventilation.
122

Phase 3A Conditions (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions