samplex topics Flashcards
1
Q
Classes of hemorrhagic shock and estimated blood loss:
A
2
Q
Enumerate: guidelines for referral to a burn center
A
3
Q
- Selective neck dissection for laryngeal malignancy:
- what levels of lymph nodes are removed?
A
- lateral lymph node dissection
- levels II, III, IV
4
Q
- Selective neck dissection for oral cavity malignancies:
- what levels of lymph nodes are removed?
A
- supraomohyoid dissection
- levels I, II, III
5
Q
- Selective neck dissection for thyroid malignancies:
- what levels of lymph nodes are removed?
A
- posterolateral neck dissection
- levels II, III, IV, V
6
Q
currant jelly stools
A
intussusception
7
Q
cherry red stools
A
intussusception
8
Q
(+) dance sign
A
intussusception (absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant)
9
Q
Surgical procedure for treatment of malrotation:
A
Ladd procedure
10
Q
coiled spring sign
A
intussusception
11
Q
double bubble sign
A
duodenal obstruction (duodenal atresia)
12
Q
soap bubble sign
A
meconium ileus
13
Q
pseudokidney sign
A
intussusception
14
Q
microcolon (in contrast enema)
A
meconium ileus
15
Q
donut sign
A
intussusception
16
Q
eggshell pattern (in abdominal x-ray)
A
meconium ileus
17
Q
target sign
A
intussusception
18
Q
ground-glass appearance in abdominal x-ray
A
meconium ileus
19
Q
double track sign
A
pyloric stenosis
20
Q
initial treatment for intussusception
A
air then hydrostatic reduction barium enema
21
Q
- Enumerate: steps of the Ladd procedure
- This procedure is done for the treatment of _____:
A
- untwist the bowels
- divide the Ladd bands
- indidental appendectomy and rearrange the intestine inside
- bowel resection if necrosis is present
-malrotation
22
Q
Enumerate (3) risk factors for nephrolithiasis:
A
- poor fluid intake
- hypercalcemia
- renal tubular acidosis
23
Q
Identify: stones radiolucent in abdominal x-rays:
A
uric acid stones
24
Q
Identify: stones associated with urea-splitting bacteria:
A
struvite stones
25
Staghorn calculi are associated with this species of bacteria:
Proteus mirabilis
26
Identify: stones radioopaque in abdominal x-rays:
calcium stones
27
Symptom associated with stones in the proximal 1/3 of ureter:
flank pain radiating to the groin
28
Symptom associated with stones in the middle 1/3 of ureter:
anterior lower quadrant pain
29
Symptom associated with stones in the distal 1/3 of ureter:
bladder irritative symptoms
30
Identify: This diagnostic test is very sensitive for detecting calculi of any composition in any location in the urinary tract:
non-contrast enhanced (helical) CT (CT stonogram
31
Threshold of CBC count that implies possibility of pyelonephritis:
\> 15
32
When is nephrectomy indicated in managing nephrolithiasis?
when the stone-bearing kidney has \<20% function
33
stones associated with urine pH \> 7
struvite stones
34
What type of stones (2) are associated with gout?
uric acid or calcium stones (because of acidic urine and uricosuria)
35
stones associated with urine pH \< 5
uric acid stones
36
What type of stones (2) are associated with chronic diarrhea?
uric acid or calcium stones (because of dehydration, hypocitrauria, and enteric hyperoxaluria)
37
Enumerate: urease-positive bacteria (3) that are associated with the formation of struvite stones:
- Proteus
- Klebsiella
- Pseudomonas
38
Enumerate: (3) stone-provoking medications:
- acetazolamide - alkalinizes the urine
- calcium supplements or vitamin D - hypercalciuria
- Vitamin C - metabolized to oxalate causing calcium oxalate formation
39
Term for incomplete stone fragmentation as a complication of ESWL:
streinstrasse
40
Size of stones that rarely pass spontaneously:
\> 6 mm
41
Identify: type of stone that cannot be broken down to shock-wave lithotripsy:
cystine stones
42
procedure for large or complex renal or ureteral calculi
Percutaneous nephrectolithotomy (PCNL)
43
Salvage treatment of stones for rare cases of endoscopic or SWL failure:
Laparoscopic or open stone removal
44
Most common type of ASD?
Ostium secundum
45
- congenital anomaly most commonly associated with coarctation of the Aorta?
- Enumerate (3) characteristics associated with this anomaly:
-bicuspid aortic valve
- aortic stenosis
- rib notching on CXR due to extensive collaterals
- decreased femoral pulses
46
- Identify: congenital heart disease characterized by discontinuity between the RA and the RV?
- Surgical treatment for this defect?
- tricuspid atresia
- Glenn shunt
47
Identify: the only true surgical emergency among all congenital heart diseases?
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
48
- Identify: congenital heart disease characterized by discontinuity between the RA and the RV?
- Surgical treatment for this defect?
- tricuspid atresia
- Glenn shunt (SVC to pulmonary artery)
49
Most common type of VSD?
Muscular VSD
50
Enumerate (2) common sites of AV fistula formation (in order of descending preference)
1. Wrist primary AV fistula (radiocephalic)
2. Elbow primary AV fistula (brachiocephalic)
51
These spinal tract control motor function:
Where do these tracts decussate?
* lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts (pyramidal tract)
* level of the medulla
52
These spinal tract convey epicritic sensation and proprioception:
What are the components of epicritic sensation? (3)
Where do these tracts decussate?
* gracile and cuneate fasciculi (posterior column)
* fine touch, vibration, and pressure
* level of the medulla
53
These spinal tract convey protopathic sensation:
What are the components of protopathic sensation? (3)
Where do these tracts decussate?
* anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts
* temperature, pain, and crude touch
* only at the segmental level or shortly above
54
Hyperextension injury often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:
central cord syndrome
55
occlusion of anterior spinal artery often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:
anterior cord syndrome
56
occlusion of the posterior spinal artery often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:
posterior cord syndrome
57
Spinal cord compression often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:
another name for this syndrome:
Brown-Sequard syndrome
a.k.a. hemisection syndrome
58
Injuries below the L1 vertebral level often result to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:
Cauda Equina syndrome:
59
Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration, and tactile discrination, with spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation one or two levels below the lesion:
Brown-Sequard syndrome
60
Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: bilateral paresis, upper \> lower extremity
Central cord syndrome
61
Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration, and touch sensation below the level of the lesion
posterior cord syndrome
62
Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: flaccidity, areflexia, and impairment of bowel and bladder function
cauda equina syndrome
63
Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: bilateral motor paralysis, loss of pain and temperature sensation
anterior cord syndrome
64
Enumerate (3): penetrating injuries (trauma) can cause the following incomplete cord syndromes:
* anterior cord syndrome
* posterior cord syndrome
* Brown-Sequard syndrome
65
Identify: single most important test in the evaluation of thyroid masses
FNAB
66
Identify: This thyroiditis cannot be diagnosed using FNAB:
Reidel thyroiditis (FNAB is impossibly because the thyroid becomes too hard)
67
Enumerate: these types of thyroid carcinomas cannot be diagnosed using FNAB:
* Follicular carcinoma
* Hurthle cell carcinoma
68
In what conditions (3) will unilateral lobectomy become indicated for simple thyroid cysts?
* more than 3 unsuccessful attempts at aspiration
* cysts \> 4 cms
* complex cysts
69
Most common site of metastasis of colorectal cancers:
liver
70
Most common type of neoplastic colonic polyp:
tubular adenoma
71
Identify: types of inflammatory bowel disease:
-which of these is more related to the development of colorectal cancer than the other?
- ulcerative colitis
- Crohn's disease
-ulcerative colitis
72
Age at which screening for colorectal cancer is started:
45 years
73
Most common genetic defect leading to sporadic colorectal cancer is:
APC
74
Most common abnormality of hemostasis that results to bleeding in surgical patients is:
thrombocytopenia
75
Test of choice in evaluating patients with suspected malignancy of the gallbladder and extrahepatic biliary tree:
abdominal CT scan
76
Test of choice in diagnosing stones in the biliary tree:
ultrasound
