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Jaspie - Surgery > samplex topics > Flashcards

samplex topics Flashcards

1
Q

Classes of hemorrhagic shock and estimated blood loss:

A
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2
Q

Enumerate: guidelines for referral to a burn center

A
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3
Q
  • Selective neck dissection for laryngeal malignancy:
  • what levels of lymph nodes are removed?
A
  • lateral lymph node dissection
  • levels II, III, IV
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4
Q
  • Selective neck dissection for oral cavity malignancies:
  • what levels of lymph nodes are removed?
A
  • supraomohyoid dissection
  • levels I, II, III
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5
Q
  • Selective neck dissection for thyroid malignancies:
  • what levels of lymph nodes are removed?
A
  • posterolateral neck dissection
  • levels II, III, IV, V
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6
Q

currant jelly stools

A

intussusception

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7
Q

cherry red stools

A

intussusception

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8
Q

(+) dance sign

A

intussusception (absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant)

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9
Q

Surgical procedure for treatment of malrotation:

A

Ladd procedure

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10
Q

coiled spring sign

A

intussusception

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11
Q

double bubble sign

A

duodenal obstruction (duodenal atresia)

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12
Q

soap bubble sign

A

meconium ileus

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13
Q

pseudokidney sign

A

intussusception

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14
Q

microcolon (in contrast enema)

A

meconium ileus

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15
Q

donut sign

A

intussusception

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16
Q

eggshell pattern (in abdominal x-ray)

A

meconium ileus

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17
Q

target sign

A

intussusception

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18
Q

ground-glass appearance in abdominal x-ray

A

meconium ileus

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19
Q

double track sign

A

pyloric stenosis

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20
Q

initial treatment for intussusception

A

air then hydrostatic reduction barium enema

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21
Q
  • Enumerate: steps of the Ladd procedure
  • This procedure is done for the treatment of _____:
A
  1. untwist the bowels
  2. divide the Ladd bands
  3. indidental appendectomy and rearrange the intestine inside
  4. bowel resection if necrosis is present

-malrotation

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22
Q

Enumerate (3) risk factors for nephrolithiasis:

A
  • poor fluid intake
  • hypercalcemia
  • renal tubular acidosis
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23
Q

Identify: stones radiolucent in abdominal x-rays:

A

uric acid stones

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24
Q

Identify: stones associated with urea-splitting bacteria:

A

struvite stones

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25
Q

Staghorn calculi are associated with this species of bacteria:

A

Proteus mirabilis

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26
Q

Identify: stones radioopaque in abdominal x-rays:

A

calcium stones

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27
Q

Symptom associated with stones in the proximal 1/3 of ureter:

A

flank pain radiating to the groin

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28
Q

Symptom associated with stones in the middle 1/3 of ureter:

A

anterior lower quadrant pain

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29
Q

Symptom associated with stones in the distal 1/3 of ureter:

A

bladder irritative symptoms

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30
Q

Identify: This diagnostic test is very sensitive for detecting calculi of any composition in any location in the urinary tract:

A

non-contrast enhanced (helical) CT (CT stonogram

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31
Q

Threshold of CBC count that implies possibility of pyelonephritis:

A

> 15

32
Q

When is nephrectomy indicated in managing nephrolithiasis?

A

when the stone-bearing kidney has <20% function

33
Q

stones associated with urine pH > 7

A

struvite stones

34
Q

What type of stones (2) are associated with gout?

A

uric acid or calcium stones (because of acidic urine and uricosuria)

35
Q

stones associated with urine pH < 5

A

uric acid stones

36
Q

What type of stones (2) are associated with chronic diarrhea?

A

uric acid or calcium stones (because of dehydration, hypocitrauria, and enteric hyperoxaluria)

37
Q

Enumerate: urease-positive bacteria (3) that are associated with the formation of struvite stones:

A
  • Proteus
  • Klebsiella
  • Pseudomonas
38
Q

Enumerate: (3) stone-provoking medications:

A
  • acetazolamide - alkalinizes the urine
  • calcium supplements or vitamin D - hypercalciuria
  • Vitamin C - metabolized to oxalate causing calcium oxalate formation
39
Q

Term for incomplete stone fragmentation as a complication of ESWL:

A

streinstrasse

40
Q

Size of stones that rarely pass spontaneously:

A

> 6 mm

41
Q

Identify: type of stone that cannot be broken down to shock-wave lithotripsy:

A

cystine stones

42
Q

procedure for large or complex renal or ureteral calculi

A

Percutaneous nephrectolithotomy (PCNL)

43
Q

Salvage treatment of stones for rare cases of endoscopic or SWL failure:

A

Laparoscopic or open stone removal

44
Q

Most common type of ASD?

A

Ostium secundum

45
Q
  • congenital anomaly most commonly associated with coarctation of the Aorta?
  • Enumerate (3) characteristics associated with this anomaly:
A

-bicuspid aortic valve

  • aortic stenosis
  • rib notching on CXR due to extensive collaterals
  • decreased femoral pulses
46
Q
  • Identify: congenital heart disease characterized by discontinuity between the RA and the RV?
  • Surgical treatment for this defect?
A
  • tricuspid atresia
  • Glenn shunt
47
Q

Identify: the only true surgical emergency among all congenital heart diseases?

A

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

48
Q
  • Identify: congenital heart disease characterized by discontinuity between the RA and the RV?
  • Surgical treatment for this defect?
A
  • tricuspid atresia
  • Glenn shunt (SVC to pulmonary artery)
49
Q

Most common type of VSD?

A

Muscular VSD

50
Q

Enumerate (2) common sites of AV fistula formation (in order of descending preference)

A
  1. Wrist primary AV fistula (radiocephalic)
  2. Elbow primary AV fistula (brachiocephalic)
51
Q

These spinal tract control motor function:

Where do these tracts decussate?

A
  • lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts (pyramidal tract)
  • level of the medulla
52
Q

These spinal tract convey epicritic sensation and proprioception:

What are the components of epicritic sensation? (3)

Where do these tracts decussate?

A
  • gracile and cuneate fasciculi (posterior column)
  • fine touch, vibration, and pressure
  • level of the medulla
53
Q

These spinal tract convey protopathic sensation:

What are the components of protopathic sensation? (3)

Where do these tracts decussate?

A
  • anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts
  • temperature, pain, and crude touch
  • only at the segmental level or shortly above
54
Q

Hyperextension injury often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:

A

central cord syndrome

55
Q

occlusion of anterior spinal artery often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:

A

anterior cord syndrome

56
Q

occlusion of the posterior spinal artery often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:

A

posterior cord syndrome

57
Q

Spinal cord compression often results to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:

another name for this syndrome:

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

a.k.a. hemisection syndrome

58
Q

Injuries below the L1 vertebral level often result to this type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome:

A

Cauda Equina syndrome:

59
Q

Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration, and tactile discrination, with spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation one or two levels below the lesion:

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

60
Q

Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: bilateral paresis, upper > lower extremity

A

Central cord syndrome

61
Q

Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration, and touch sensation below the level of the lesion

A

posterior cord syndrome

62
Q

Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: flaccidity, areflexia, and impairment of bowel and bladder function

A

cauda equina syndrome

63
Q

Identify the type of incomplete spinal cord injury: bilateral motor paralysis, loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

anterior cord syndrome

64
Q

Enumerate (3): penetrating injuries (trauma) can cause the following incomplete cord syndromes:

A
  • anterior cord syndrome
  • posterior cord syndrome
  • Brown-Sequard syndrome
65
Q

Identify: single most important test in the evaluation of thyroid masses

A

FNAB

66
Q

Identify: This thyroiditis cannot be diagnosed using FNAB:

A

Reidel thyroiditis (FNAB is impossibly because the thyroid becomes too hard)

67
Q

Enumerate: these types of thyroid carcinomas cannot be diagnosed using FNAB:

A
  • Follicular carcinoma
  • Hurthle cell carcinoma
68
Q

In what conditions (3) will unilateral lobectomy become indicated for simple thyroid cysts?

A
  • more than 3 unsuccessful attempts at aspiration
  • cysts > 4 cms
  • complex cysts
69
Q

Most common site of metastasis of colorectal cancers:

A

liver

70
Q

Most common type of neoplastic colonic polyp:

A

tubular adenoma

71
Q

Identify: types of inflammatory bowel disease:
-which of these is more related to the development of colorectal cancer than the other?

A
  • ulcerative colitis
  • Crohn’s disease

-ulcerative colitis

72
Q

Age at which screening for colorectal cancer is started:

A

45 years

73
Q

Most common genetic defect leading to sporadic colorectal cancer is:

A

APC

74
Q

Most common abnormality of hemostasis that results to bleeding in surgical patients is:

A

thrombocytopenia

75
Q

Test of choice in evaluating patients with suspected malignancy of the gallbladder and extrahepatic biliary tree:

A

abdominal CT scan

76
Q

Test of choice in diagnosing stones in the biliary tree:

A

ultrasound

Jaspie - Surgery (18 decks)

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